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Spinal Anatomy > 1st Exam > Flashcards

1st Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues

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2
Q

What is osteology?

A

the study of bone

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3
Q

What are the three primary cell types of bone?

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

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4
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast-form bone; osteocyte-maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast-remodel bone

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5
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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6
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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7
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, & hyaluronic acid

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8
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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9
Q

What is the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

calcium, phosphate, citrate & carbonate ions

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10
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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11
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, & radium

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12
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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13
Q

What are the three responses to bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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14
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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15
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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16
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to the third month in utero

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17
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

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18
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of endochondral ossification?

A

from the second to the fifth month in utero

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19
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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20
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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21
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birth

secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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22
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

cortical or compound bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone

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23
Q

What is the name given to a bone BELOW an articulating surface?

A

subchondral bone

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24
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular COVERING of bone?

A

the periosteum

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25
Q

What is the name given to the fibro-cellular LINING of bone?

A

the endosteum

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26
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontoGENETIC variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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27
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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28
Q

What are the classification given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal I?

A

heteroTOPIC and accessory bone

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29
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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30
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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31
Q

What are the names given to the parts of the long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

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32
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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33
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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34
Q

What are flat bones?

A

a thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone

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35
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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36
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

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37
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla & sphenoid

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38
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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39
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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40
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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41
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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42
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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43
Q

What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevations?

A

transverse lines of sternum

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44
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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45
Q

What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?

A

a hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone

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46
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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47
Q

What is the definition of the osseous elevation called “spine”?

A

a thorn-like elevation from the surface of bone

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous process?

A

a relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length

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49
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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50
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisures, groove, and sulcus

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51
Q

What is the definition of an osseous groove?

A

a long furrow of variable depth on the surface of bone

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52
Q

What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?

A

a wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone

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53
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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54
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fossa?

A

a deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone

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55
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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56
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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57
Q

What are the names given to osseous Ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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58
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a THIN region of bone

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59
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a THICK region of bone

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60
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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61
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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62
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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63
Q

What are examples of a flat osseous facet?

A

the articular facets of most zygapophyses of the vertebral column

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64
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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65
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

a knuckled-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

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66
Q

How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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67
Q

What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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68
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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69
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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70
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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71
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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72
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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73
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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74
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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75
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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76
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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77
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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78
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

79
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

80
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

81
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

snydesmology

82
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

83
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

84
Q

Which classification of synarthrosis joints implies a bond condition?

A

syndesmosis

85
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

86
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

87
Q

What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?

A

synostosis

88
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

malocclusion

89
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

interosseous ligament

90
Q

What are the classic examples of the less moveable or “fixed” syndesmosis?

A

tibia-fibula shaft articulation, radio-ulnar shaft articulation, coraco-clavicular joint or tympano-stapedial joint

91
Q

What are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?

A

most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints

92
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification canters within a cartilage template

93
Q

What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?

A

metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, chondrocranium, costochondral joints and the first sternochondral joint

94
Q

What are the examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis)synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

95
Q

Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

96
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

97
Q

What are the characteristics of (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

98
Q

What are the classic examples of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis, sternal symphysis, and symphysis menti

99
Q

Which example of (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

100
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

101
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the _______.

A

capsular ligament

102
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

103
Q

What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

104
Q

What are the characteristics of the type II articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

105
Q

What are the characteristics of the type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, NOT initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

106
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

107
Q

Type IVa receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

108
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

109
Q

Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what part(s) of the synovial (diarthrosis) joint?

A

synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

110
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

1 synovial villi, 2 articular fat pads or Haversian glands, 3 synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

111
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

112
Q

What is the apparent function of synovial villi?

A

increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion-absorption Phenomena

113
Q

Where are the articular fat pads located?

A

in the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc

114
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

115
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints

116
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

117
Q

What are the layers of the synovial membrane?

A

outer fibrous layer and an inner (luminal) cellular layer AKA synovial lamina intima

118
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

119
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

120
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel

121
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

122
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

123
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

124
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

125
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

126
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an ADsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surface is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

127
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

128
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

129
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behaviors?

A

lubricin

130
Q

What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed

131
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

more than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

132
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

133
Q

What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthrosis) based on type of movement?

A

nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial and multiaxial synovial joints

134
Q

What movements are accommodated by nonaxial synovial joints?

A

translational movement, a plane or gliding movement

135
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

136
Q

What movements are accommodated by uniaxial synovial joints?

A

a single combination of movements relative to a single axis: flexion-extension or medial rotation-lateral rotation

137
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

138
Q

What movements are accommodated by biaxial synovial joints?

A

movement in two independent planes at right angles to each other; flexion-extension combined with abduction-adduction

139
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal, and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

140
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

141
Q

What are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column; intercarpal, carpometacarpal and intermetacarpal joints of the hand; intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints of the foot

142
Q

What are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?

A

humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers & toes

143
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

144
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

145
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

146
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

147
Q

Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

148
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

149
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

150
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

151
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

152
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

153
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

154
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

155
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth

156
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

157
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the two toed sloth and manatee

158
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

159
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

160
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

161
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

162
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

163
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

164
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

165
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

166
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 cm or 28 in

167
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 cm or 25 in

168
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 in

169
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 cm or 5 in

170
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

about 28 cm or 11 in

171
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

A

about 18 cm or 7 in

172
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

A

about 12 cm or 5 in

173
Q

Based on the numbers for the individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

about 58 cm or 23 in

174
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

175
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

176
Q

What organ(s) is(are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

177
Q

When does the embryonic disc form?

A

second week in utero

178
Q

When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?

A

third week in utero

179
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

180
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

181
Q

What embryonic structure gives rise to the somites?

A

paraxial mesoderm

182
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite?

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

183
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

184
Q

Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what development feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

185
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

186
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

187
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner)

188
Q

The intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of Von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

189
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

190
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

191
Q

when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

192
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

193
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

194
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six…2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

Spinal Anatomy (1 decks)

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