2013 biochem midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What defines the target sequence of PCR technique?
A. Primers
B. dNTP
C. Pentose sugar moieties

A

A. Primers

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2
Q
What prevents proteins from denaturation when we have fever?
a- Chaperons 
b- Kinase
c- Protease
d. Phosphotase
A

a- Chaperons

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3
Q
What causes pyrimidine dimers in DNA?
A. Alkylation
B. Ionic radiation 
C. Deamination 
D. UV radiation
A

D. UV radiation

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4
Q

How may hormones act through stimulation of protein kinases?
A- rapid increase in activity change in key enzymes
B- rapid decrease in protein degradation
C- rapid increase in suppression of key enzymes
D- rapid increase of glycosylation of key enzymes

A

?

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5
Q
What is the most common sequence on human genome?
A- CGG  nucleotide repeats
B- centromeric repeats
C- Alu family
D- coding DNA sequence
E- pseudogenes sequence
A

C- Alu family

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6
Q

what is the most abundant protein in the human body?
A- elastin
B- albumin
C- collagen

A

C- collagen

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7
Q
What does histone acetylase cause in the nucleus?
A- gene induction 
B- gene splicing 
C- RNA editing
D- gene modification
A

A- gene induction

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8
Q
What bond remains intact in albumin of the egg while boiling it
A- peptide bond
B- H bond
C- S-S bond
D- electrostatic bond
A

A- peptide bond

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9
Q
Which of these is needed for making a beta turn?
A- lysine
B- Serine
C- Proline
D-Argnine
A

C- Proline

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10
Q
What causes the activation of the RAS proto-oncogene?
A- Point mutation
B- Viral insertion
C- Chromosomal translocation
D- Deletion mutation
A

A- Point mutation

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11
Q
Which enzyme recognizes correctly folded proteins and carry on glucose moiety?
A.glucokainse 
B.glucosidase I 
C. glucisidase II
D. Glocucyl-1-transferase
A

C. glucisidase II

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12
Q
what happens to p53 tumor repressor in cancer?
a-activated
b-Increase in number 
c-mutated
d-phosphorylated 
e-translocated
A

c-mutated

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13
Q
if the leader sequence was deleted from the lysosomal gene, where will the protein reach?
A- cytoplasm
B- ER
C- Golgi
D- lysosome
E- Blood
A

A- cytoplasm

I think Salman said something about M-6-P. check.

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14
Q

Which technique is used to separate protein/DNA fragments based on their size?
a - DNA fingerprinting
b - Gel electrophoresis
c - sequencing

A

b - Gel electrophoresis

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15
Q

What is mostly affected by antibiotic during translation?
A - initiation
B - elongation
C - termination

A

no answer

but I think it’s B

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16
Q

What causes Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
A- gene mutation
B- vitamin c deficiency
C- copper deficiency

A

A- gene mutation

17
Q
What epigenetic changes occur in DNA?
A- modification of DNA base
B- change in the nucleotide sequence
C- hydrogen bond synthesis
D- phosphodiester bond synthesis
A

A- modification of DNA base

18
Q
What is the characteristic of the human genome?
A - diploid in all cells
B - only few lack introns
C - most are coding DNA
D - all genes are similar in size
A

B - only few lack introns

19
Q

What is the significance of annealing in PCR?
A - binding primer
B - unattachment of DNA strand
C - initiation of polymerase

A

A - binding primer

20
Q

which of the following forces are not involved in the secondary structure of collagen?

a) H-bonds
b) S-S bonds
c) Hydrophobic interactions
d) Van der waals

A

c) Hydrophobic interactions

21
Q

What of the following feature are shared between the isozymes?

a) they work with the same catalysts
b) they have the same secondary structure
c) they are located in the same tissue
d) they work on the same reaction

A

d) they work on the same reaction

22
Q

what is true about the telomeric DNA sequence?
A- coding sequence
B- located in the centromeric region
C- hexanucleotide DNA sequence

A

C- hexanucleotide DNA sequence

23
Q
What is the amplification of DNA after 6 cycles in the PCR?
A - 16
B - 32
C - 64
D - 6
A

C - 64

24
Q
Which transcription factor has DNA unwinding activity?
A) TFIID 
B) TFIIS 
C) TFIIH 
D) TFIIF
A

D) TFIIF

TFIIF = Transcription factor II F

25
Q

how does an enzyme accelerate a reaction?
A) stabilize transition state
B) change free change of overall reaction
C) change energy of the product
D) change energy of the reactants

A

A) stabilize transition state

26
Q
An enzyme that exhibits Michales mentin activity, if a non-competitive inhibitor drug is administered, what will happen? 
A-Km increase
B-Km decrease
C-Vmax increase
D-Vmax decrease
A

D-Vmax decrease

27
Q

What can be determined from free energy change in a reaction?
A) Direction of metabolites
B) Direction of the pathway

A

B) Direction of the pathway

28
Q
What causes Alzehmier disease? 
A) proteolysis of amyloid plaque 
B) prions
C) deoxygenated valine Beta hemoglobin
D) beta sheet accumulation
A

A) proteolysis of amyloid plaque

29
Q

Which one is a characteristic of mRNA polyA tail?
A) Uncoded by DNA
B) Cleaved by H1
C) Removed by SNURPS

A

A) Uncoded by DNA

30
Q
In which nucleotide sequence of the proximal DNA sequence, where does methylation most commonly occur?
A- AMP 
B- TMP 
C- CMP 
D- GMP
A

C- CMP

Cytidine monophosphate

31
Q

What is the morphology of sickle cell anemia?
A. aggregation in low oxygen
B. Polymerization
C. Oxidation

A

A. aggregation in low oxygen

32
Q
Which amino acid is phosphorylated to regulate enzymatic activity?
A) Proline 
B) Glutamine 
C) Lysine 
D) Alanine
E) Serine
A

E) Serine

33
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of alternative splicing?
A) mRNA modification
B) DNA modification
C) a lot of introns

A

A) mRNA modification

34
Q
which of these is used to synthesize glycogen?
A) UTP-glucose
B) UDP -glucose
C) glucose-6-phosphate 
D) glucose-1-phosphate 
E) free glucose
A

B) UDP -glucose

35
Q
At what base pair of intron N-terminus is cut?
A) 5’ AG 3’ 
B) 5’ GG 3’ 
C) 5’ AA 3’ 
D) 5’ GU 3’
A

D) 5’ GU 3’