AAW - Neuro Flashcards Preview

*First Aid in Brainscape* > AAW - Neuro > Flashcards

Flashcards in AAW - Neuro Deck (132)
Loading flashcards...
1
Q

atrophy of caudate nucleus

A

huntington’s disease

2
Q

depigmentation within the substantia nigra pars compacta

A

parkinson’s

3
Q

symmetric lesions in the paraventricular regions of the thalamus and hypothalamus, mammillary bodies, and periaqueductal region of the midbrain

A

wernicke’s and korsakoff’s

4
Q

neurofibrillary tangles

think:

A

think alzheimer’s

5
Q

places in the brain not protected by the BBB

A

OVLT (organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis; senses change in
osmolarity), area postrema - in the floor of the fourth ventricle (responds to emetics)

6
Q

which area of the brain makes:

ADH
oxytocin

A

ADH: supraoptic nucleus
oxytocin: paraventricular nucleus

7
Q

part of the hypothalamus responsible for:

hunger
satiety
cooling off/parasympathetic
heating up/sympathetic
circadian rhythm
A

hunger - lateral - zap the lateral and you shrink laterally

satiety - ventromedial - zap the ventromedial and you grow medially and ventrally

cooling - anterior hypothalamus - A/C = anterior cooling

heating - posterior - heated seats heat your posterior

circadian rhythm - suprachiasmatic nucleus - you need sleep to be charismatic (SCN –> NE release –> pineal gland –> melatonin)

8
Q

part of the brain responsible for REM eye movement

A

PPRF paramedian pontine reticular formation

if you have a lesion here, your eyes look away from the side of the lesion

9
Q

desmopressin acetate

A

mimics ADH, used to treat betwetting

preferred over imipramine because of the SE

10
Q

mneumonic for stages of sleep

A

BATS Drink Blood

awake - beta
awake (eyes closed) - alpha
N1 - theta
N2 - sleep spindles and K complexes
N3 - Delta

REM - beta

11
Q

thalamus nuclei

input from what nerve?
what sense is it?

VPL
VPM
LGN
MGN

A

The role of the thalamus is the major relay for all ascending sensory information except olfaction

VPL - ventral posteriolateral - input is spinothalamic and dorsal columns/medial lemniscus - pain and temp, pressure, touch, vibration, and proprioception - goes to the primary somatosensory cortex

VPM - ventral posteriomedial - trigeminal and gustatory pathway - face sensation and taste - goes to primary somatosensory cortex (put Makeup on your face)

LGN - Lateral geniculate nucleus - from CN II - does vision - goes to the calcarine sulcus - Lateral = Light

MGN - medial geniculate nucleus - from the superior olive and inferior colliculus of tectum - does hearing - goes to auditory cortex of temporal lobe - Medial = Music

VL - ventrolateral - from basal ganglia, cerebellum, does motor stuff

12
Q

what do you get form lateral lesions in the cerebellum

medial lesions?

A

lateral lesions - voluntary movement of the extremities; when injured, get a propensity to fall toward injured (ipsilateral) side

13
Q

levels of what change in the brain of someone with huntingtons

A

Caudate loses ACh and GABA

CAG repeat disease

14
Q

sudden, wild failing of 1 arm

what is it called
where is the lesion

A

hemiballismus (“half of body ballistic”)

lesion is contralateral subthalamic nucleus (lacunar stroke - often from uncontrolled hypertension)

15
Q

athetosis

A

slow, writhing movements; especially seen in fingers

lesion in basal ganglia (huntingtons)

16
Q

primidone

A

used to treat essential tremor

17
Q

when do you get a slow, zigzag motion when pointing/extending toward a target

A

cerebellar dysfunction (intention tremor)

18
Q

patient has agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation

what happened

A

left parietal-temporal cortex (visual association cortex aka the angular gyrus)

Gerstmann syndrome

19
Q

someone is in a coma

what part of their brain lesion specifically is responsible for reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness

A

reticular activating system (midbrain)

20
Q

confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, memory loss,

A

wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

B1 (thiamine) deficiency and excessive EtOH

can be precipitated with sugar in the absence of B1

21
Q

inability to make new memories

where in the brain is lesioned

A

anteriograde amnesia - hippocampus

an elepheant never forgets
but
a hippo makes new memories

22
Q

where are your lesions if the eyes look

towards the lesion?
away from it?

A

towards a frontal eye field lesion

away from a paramedian pontine reticular formation lesion (abducens nerve)

23
Q

from hi to low and low to hi correcting sodium mneumonic

A

“From low to high, your pons will die”
(Central pontine myelinolysis)

ƒ “From high to low, your brain will blow”
(cerebral edema/herniation)

24
Q

Lewy bodies composed of alpha-synuclein - intracellular eosinophilic inclusion

A

parkinsons

25
Q

damage in the brain in severe hypotension - Sx

A

upper leg/arm wea

26
Q

MCA (Middle cerebral artery) stroke Sx

A

(effects temporal areas and posterior frontal area)

Sx: contralateral paralysis - upper limb and face

Contralateral loss of sensation - upper and lower limbs and face

Aphasia if in dominant (left) hemisphere

Hemineglect if lesion affects non dominant (usually right) side

27
Q

ACA (anterior cerebral artery) stroke Sx

A

contralateral paralysis of lower limb

contralateral loss of sensation of lower limb

28
Q

lenticulostriate artery stroke Sx, cause, area of damage

A

contralateral hemiparesis

caused by unmanaged hypertension (lacunar infarct)

lesion in the striatum, internal capsule

29
Q

Deviation of the tounge to the right

limb weakness on the on the left

loss of discriminative tough, proprioception, and vibration sense on the left

where is the infarct

A

right anterior spinal artery

this is called medial medullary syndrome

(hypoglossal nerves don’t cross over)
medullary pyramid and corticospinal fibers of the pyramidal tract damage causes weakness

medial lemniscus is responsible for loss of discriminative touch, proprioception, and vibration sense

30
Q

Vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, decreased pain and temp sensation from ipsilateral face and contralateral body; dysphagia, hoarsness, decresed gag reflex, ipsilateral horner syndrome, ataxia, dysmetria

where is the stroke/lesion

A

PICA

lateral medullary syndrome (wallenberg)

Nucleus ambiguus effects are specific to PICA lesions “don’t PICA horse (hoarse) that can’t eat (dysphagia)”

31
Q

vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, paralysis of face, decreased lacrimation, salivation, decreased taste from anterior 2/3, decreased corneal reflex. decreased pain and temp sensation, decreased ipsilateral hearing, ipsilateral horners

A

lateral pontine syndrome

facial nucleus effects are specific to AICA lesions “facial droop means the AICA’s pooped)

32
Q

locked in syndrome

stroke locations

A

basilar artery

pons, medulla, lower midbrain, corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts, ocular cranial nerve nuclei, paramedian pontine reticular formation.

33
Q

eye is down and out, with ptosis and pupil dilation

what artery

A

posterior communicating artery

lesions are typically aneurysms, not strokes.`

34
Q

“worst headache of life”

A

rupture of a berry aneurysm leads to subarachnoid hemorrhage

35
Q

epidural hematoma rupture of what artery

A

rupture of middle meningeal artery (branch of maxillary artery) often secondary to fracture of temporal bone

lucid period

36
Q

LMN neuron lesion with flaccid paralysis

what part of the spinal cord was damaged

A

destruction of the anterior horns

get poliomyelitis and spinal muscular atrophy (werdnig-hoffmann disease)

37
Q

enzyme deficit you might see in ALS

A

defect in superoxide dismutase 1

38
Q

cause of tabes dorsalis. Sx?

A

tertiary syphilis. Results from degeneration (demyelination) of dorsal columns and roots

impaired sensation and proprioception and progressive sensory ataxia (inability to sense or feel the legs –> poor coordination)

39
Q

syringomyelia - lesion region

A

anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract (second order neurons)

get bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation, seen with Chiari I malformation; can expand and affect other tracts

40
Q

what causes subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

A

vitamin B12 or vitamin E deficiency

get demyelination of dorsal column, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts; ataxic gait, parasthesia, impaired position and vibration sense

41
Q

blown pupil

what arteries could the stroke have occurred in

A

posterior cerebral
superior cerebellar

(cranial nerve III exists the midbrain between these two arteries)

42
Q

patient has “lateral gaze palsy” or “nystagmus on lateral gaze” where is the lesion (nucleus and artery)

A
in CNVI (abducens) in the middle of the pons
pontine branches of the basilar artery
43
Q

mneumonic for reflex origins in the spinal cord

A

S1, 2—“buckle my shoe” (Achilles reflex)
L3, 4—“kick the door” (patellar reflex)
C5, 6—“pick up sticks” (biceps reflex)
C7, 8—“lay them straight” (triceps reflex)

44
Q

inability to look up

where is the lesion

A

parinaud syndrome

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in the superior colliculi of the brain stem (your eyes are above your ears, and the superior colliculus (visual) is above the inferior colliculus (auditory) (can be caused by a pinealoma)

45
Q

nerve that innervates the superior oblique

A

trochlear (CN IV)

46
Q

function of nucleus solitarius

A

Visceral sensory information (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention)

its a vagal nucleus

gets inputs from facial, hypoglossal, and well as the vagus

47
Q

function of the nucleus ambiguus

A

motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus (swallowing, palate elevation)

it is a vagal nuclei, but also gets inputs from IX, XI

48
Q

dorsal motor nucleus

A

on of the vagal nuclei along with solitarius and ambiguus

sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to the heart, lungs, upper GI

49
Q

brain abnormality of autopsy of patau baby?

A

holoprosencephaly

50
Q

what areas of the brain are effected during paralysis in a patient with central pontine myelinolysis

A

Corticobulbar - muscles of the face, head, neck

Corticospinal - torso, upper and lower limbs

51
Q

lesions in medial longitudinal fasciculus cause what

often seen in what disease

A

The lesion causes Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

the MLF coordinates both eyes to move in the same horizontal direction. they are highly myelinated because then must communicate quickly so eyes can move at the same time.

lesions seen in people with demyelinating disease like MS

(MILFs (MLFs) get MS, and you gotta watch them walk by)

52
Q

mech of succinyl choline

A

binds to ACh receptors irreversible for the first moments, but can be dissociated later.

used to paralyze people in surgery

reverse it with neostigmine later

53
Q

CD count is like 24
demyelination of CNS due to destruction of oligodendrocytes, rapidly progressive and usually fatal

what organism
increased risk assc with what drug

A

JC virus causing progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

JC virus reactivation causes demyelination

JC virus is a polyomavirus (DS and circular DNA) along with BK virus (JC: junky cerebellum, BK: Bad Kidney)

increased risk with natalizumab

54
Q

Tx for absence (petit mal) seizures

mech

SE

A

Ethosuximide (Sux to have Silent Seizures)

blocks T-type calcium channels.

EFGHIJ—Ethosuximide causes
Fatigue, GI distress, Headache,
Itching, and Stevens-Johnson
syndrome

55
Q

new onset seizures in an HIV-positive patient with CD count less than 100

what do you see in brain

tx?

A

toxoplasmosis

ring enhancing lesions

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine (dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor) (martin shkreli made pyrimethamine really expensive)

56
Q

subdural hematoma in an old person

what veins

A

rupture of the bridging veins

57
Q

beta interferon is used to treat what

A

MS

58
Q

alpha interferon is used to treat what

A

chronic hepatitis B and C, kaposi sarcoma, hairy cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, renal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma

59
Q

interferon gamma is used to treat what

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (NADPH oxidase deficiency)

60
Q

human leukocyte antigen associated with MS

A

HLA-DR2

this one is also associated with hay fever, SLE, and goodpasture

61
Q

blind as a bat, red as a beet… fill in the rest

what is it
Tx?

A

blind as a bat, red as a beet, mad as a hatter, hot as a hare, dry as a bone

sx of atropine overdose (cholinergic antagonist) (can be from eating the black shiny berries of the belladona plant)

treat with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor like physostigmine (ups the amount of ACh available to the body) if they are super acutely poisoned and unstable

62
Q

carbamazepine mech

SE

A

increases Na channel inactivation

can cause agranulocytosis
can induce P-450 (greasy carbs)
can cause SIADH, stevens-johnson syndrome

63
Q

flashback: how do thiazides cause hyperglycemia

A

opens the ATP sensitive potassium channels of pancreatic beta cells, which STOPS depolarization, which stops insulin secretion

64
Q

where is ACh made in the brain

A

basal nucleus of Meynert

65
Q

patient is fluent in speech, has intact comprehension, but impaired repetition

what type of aphasia
where is the lesion

A

conduction aphasia, damage to the arcuate fasciculus

66
Q

patient has vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitis

A

meniere disease

increased or decreased excretion of endolymph

67
Q

kid is sick with rash and then develops dementia, myoclonus, personality changes years later

what was the initial rash

A

measles rash (rubeola), starts at the neck and head and spreads downward (also get koplik spots)

68
Q

mutation in people with neurofibromatosis type 1

A

mutated NF1 tumor suppressor gene (normally suppresses RAS) on chromosome 17

69
Q

mech of damage in lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome

assc with what cancer

what happens when you administer AChE inhibitor

A

autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca channel leading to decreased ACh release

small cell lung cancer

minimal effect with AChE inhibitor (where it would reverse symptoms in myasthenia gravis)

70
Q

embryonic origin of microglia cells

A

mesoderm, like all macrophages they are derivative of blood monocytes

71
Q

alpha-synuclein is in what disease

A

parkinsons

72
Q

what area of the brain may be ablated in treatment of parkinsons disease

A

globus pallidus internus

73
Q

what drug do you use to diagnose myasthenia gravis

A

edrophonium

74
Q

mech of sumatriptan

A

5HT1B/1D AGONIST!

75
Q

drugs that exhibit zero order elimination kinetics

A

phenytoin (calcium channel blocker that is first line for prophylaxis against status epilepticus) - can also cause megaloblastic anemia, hirsutism, SJS, induction of CYP, and gingival hyperplasia

ethanol

aspirin

76
Q

physostigmine vs neostigmine

A

neo = no CNS penetration

physo = “phyxes” atropine overdose and penetrates the CNS

77
Q

damage to what structure in the brain causes internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLFs in MS)

on gaze to the left, the primary movement is started in the left cranial nerve (CN VI (trochlear)), and cannot be transmitted to the right CN III nucleus via the right medial longitudinal fasciculus because of demyelination in MS. As a consequence, the right eye cannot adduct.

convergence in usually intact as this maneuver does not utilize the MLF pathway

78
Q

most common causes of meningitis in newborn (0-6mo)

empiric Tx?

A

group B strep (agalactiae) - most common

E coli

listeria - tumbling motility, gram + rod with LPS - give ampicillin

ceftriaxone, vanco, and add ampicillin if listeria is suspected

79
Q

intracellular eosinophillic inclusions in the brain

A

parkinsons - these are called lewy bodies and they are made of alpha-synuclein

80
Q

labs in someone with viral meningitis/encephalitis

A

high WBC with lymphocytic or monocytic predominance

normal protein, glucose, and opening pressure

81
Q

bloody CSF on lumbar puncture in aids patient who had a seizure

what is it
Tx?
where in the brain?

A

HSV causing viral encephalitis

treat with acyclovir

in the temporal and deep frontal lobes

82
Q

tumor in the brain

small dark nuclei and a light clearing around the nuceli

A

fried egg appearance

oligodendroglioma - rare, slow-growing tumor commonly seen in the frontal lobes.

83
Q

drug that ends in -azine

A

one of the typical antipsychotics along with haloperidol

84
Q

in alzheimer’s, what protein is found in the cytoplasmic inclusions of neurons?

what protein is found outside the neurons as plaques?

A

cytoplasmic inclusions: tau (composes the neurofibrillary tangles)

outside the neurons as plaques: beta-amyloid

85
Q

organophosphate-based pesticides can do what to humans

tx?

A

cause excess cholinergic activity (SLUDGE)

treat with atropine (muscarinic antagonist)

86
Q

bells palsy - UMN lesion or LMN lesion?

A

LMN lesion

if the ipsilateral forehead is moving normally, it is an UMN lesion (cerebrovascular event) (the forehead is bilaterally supplied by UMNs

87
Q

what inhaled anesthetic can cause seizures?
which causes nephrotox?
which causes hepatotox?

A

seizures - enflurane
nephrotox - methoxyflurane
hepatotox - halothane

88
Q

polio causes damage to what part of the spinal cord

A

anterior horn cells

89
Q

degeneration of the posterior columns and corticospinal tracts in a lady with tingling fingers

A

vitamin b12 deficiency

90
Q

treatments for huntingtons

A

tetrabenazine and reserpine - inhibit vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT), limit dopamine vesicle packaging and release

haloperidol - dopamine receptor antagonist

91
Q

left side weakness
right side tounge deviation
left side loss of sensation and proprioception from the body, sparing face

where is the damage in the CNS

A

medial medullary syndrome

weakness and loss of sensation - damage to lateral corticospinal tract at the level of the medullary pyramid

tounge deviation - damage to cranial nuclei XII

92
Q

epilepsy drug that can cause neural tube defects

A

valproic acid

93
Q

mech of tetanospasmin

A

protease that cleaves SNARE proteins (proteins required for vesicle release)

toxin prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and Glycine) neurotransmitters from Renshaw cells in spinal cord

94
Q

common causes of meningitis in children (6mo-6yr)

A

most common - S. pneumo - gram pos diplococci, alpha hemolytic

N meningitidis - gram neg diplococci, maltose fermenter (gonorrhoeae doesn’t ferment)

H flu type B (esp if not vacced) - gram neg coccobacilus, requires factors V and X

HSV - going to find blood in the CSF probs

95
Q

number one cause of meningitis in teens

A

N meningitidis - gram neg diplococci

96
Q

hypopigmentation, eczema, and hyperreflexia with a strange odor in a kid

what AA becomes essential

A

kid has PKU

tyrosine becomes essential (cannot convert phenylalanine to tyrosine)

hypopigmentation is from impaired melanin synthesis

97
Q

decreased alpha fetoprotein in pregnant woman: ?

increased?

A

decreased: down syndrome (but elevated beta-hCG), edwards syndrome (also has decreased beta-hCG)
increased: neural tube defects

98
Q

trinucleotide repeat expansion diseases

A

Tri HUNTING for MY FRIED EGGS (X)

huntington - CAG (Caudate loses ACh and GABA)

myoTonic dystrophy - CTG (muscle Tone)

friedreich ataxia - CAA (AA - Ataxia)

fragile X - CGG

99
Q

two types of drugs used to treat alzheimers

A

memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist; helps prevent excitotoxicity (mediated by Ca)

AChE inhibitors - donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine

100
Q

baby with generalized muscle atrophy, fasciculations, and diminished deep tendon reflexes

A

werdnig-hoffmann

autosomal recessive destruction of the anterior horn cells, only affects the lower motor neurons system.

101
Q

bezos vs barbs - what channels do they act on and how do they do it

A

benzos increase the frequency of chloride channel opening

barbs increase the duration they are open

102
Q

lack of this nutrient can give you hypersegmented neutrophils

A

folate

103
Q

a patient with normal pressure hydrocephalus may have defects in which site of venous drainage in the brain

A

superior sagittal sinus - this is the main sinus that collects CSF from the subarachnoid space into the bloodstream

104
Q

what meningitis can cause refractory hypotension and widespread purpura (sepsis with adrenocortical insufficiency)

A

N meningitis - waterhouse-friedrich syndrome

105
Q

what happens when the globus pallidus internus is “on”

A

inhibits the thalamus and stops movement

106
Q

what happens when the sub thalamic nucleus is “on”

A

it makes the globus pallidus do it’s job, which is to inhibit the thalamus and stop movement

injury to this (lacunar stroke) can cause hemiballismus (uncontrolled movement

107
Q

where do the divisions of the trigeminal nerve leave the skill

A

“standing room only”

Superior orbital fissure (CN III, IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic vein, sympathetic fibers)

Foramen Rotundum (V2)

Foramen Ovale (V3)

108
Q

what goes through the foramen spinosum

A

middle meningeal artery

109
Q

what nerves go through the internal auditory meatus

A

VII - facial

VIII - vestibulocochlear

110
Q

What nerves go through the jugular foramen

A

9,10,11

111
Q

what nerves go through the hypoglossal canal

A

XII

112
Q

where are the main dopamine RECEPTORS in the brain

A

striatum (caudate and putamen)

113
Q

mneumonic for drugs that cause seizures

A

I BITE My tounge

INH, Buproprion, Imipenem, Tramadol, Enflurane, Metoclopramide (D2 antagonist used to treat nausea in chemotherapy)

114
Q

common ruptured aneurism in the brain that causes blown pupils

A

posterior communicating artery (runs by CN III)

115
Q

fasciculations - lesion in UMN, LMN or both

A

LMN

116
Q

40 yo
progressive hearing loss
impaired balance
multiple, soft tissue nodules on her back
brain MRI shows bilateral masses at the cerebellopontine angle

what syndrome
what types of cells are effected
genetics?

A

NF2

can get schwanomas (bilateral - cause hearing and balance problems) (derivative from neural crest, function to myelinate peripheral nerves)

meningiomas

ependymomas

autosomal dominant, NF2 gene on chromosome 22 (type 2 = chromosome 22)

117
Q

sturge-weber syndrome

A

SSTURGE:

Sporadic (not genetic)
Stain (port wine)
Tram track Ca (opposing gyri)
Unilateral
Retardation
Glaucoma
GNAQ gene
Epilepsy
118
Q

tuberous sclerosis mneumonic

A

HAMARTOMASS

Hamartomas in CNS and skin
Angiofibromas
Mitral regurg
Ash-leaf spots
cardiac Rhabdomyoma
Tuberous sclerosis
autosomal dOminant
Mental retardation
renal Angiomyolipoma
Seizures
Shagreen patches
119
Q

biochemical defect in albinism

A

you have a normal melanocyte number with decreased melanin production due to decreased tyrosinase activity or defective tyrosine transport. can also be caused by failure of neural crest cell migration during development

120
Q

boy presents at 12 yo

intellectual disability, osteoporosis, tall stature, kyphosis, lens subluxation (down and in), thrombosis, atherosclerosis

A

homocystinuria

defective in either cystathionine synthase (give cystine, reduce methionine)

or

defective in homocysteine methyltransferase (aka methionine synthase) (give methionine)

OR

decreased affinity of cystathionine synthase for pyridoxal phosphate (give B6)

121
Q

things that cause stevens johnson syndrome

A

Steven Johnson has epileptic allergy to sulfa drugs and penicilin

(anti-epileptics, allopurinol, sulfa drugs, penicillin)

122
Q

what is the cell responsible for the output signals of the cerebellum

what neurotransmitter is used

A

purkinje cell is the only output of the cerebellum, all outputs from the cerebellum are inhibitory and use gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

123
Q

antiviral that is used to treat parkinsons

what is its mechs

A

amantadine

promotes the synthesis, release, or reuptake of dopamine

124
Q

dementia that gets hallucinations early on in its course

A

Lewy body dementia

125
Q

mech of dantrolene

A

prevents release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptors

126
Q

Albuminocytologic dissociation

A

means elevated protein, normal WBC count in the CSF

characteristic of guillain-barre syndrome

127
Q

protein 14-3-3

what disease

what do you see on EEG

A

cruetxfeldt-jacob disease - fatal prion disease characterized by rapidly progressive dementia

EEG may demonstrate periodic sharp-wave complexes

128
Q

first line treatment for acute status epilepticus

A

benzos, increase GABAa Action by increasing the frequency in which Cl channels open

129
Q

Tx for guillain-barre

A

plasmapheresis and immunoglobulin

130
Q

locked in syndrome

thrombosis to where?

A

basilar artery (ventral pons, bilateral corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts)

131
Q

yeast found in pigeon droppings

what is it
what does it look like

A

cryptococcus neoformans

5-10um with narrow budding, highly encasulated

highlighted with india ink and mucicarmine

132
Q

subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

where in the spine is affected

what is the underlying pathology

A

SCD - Spinocerebellar, lateral Corticospinal, Dorsal columns

b12 deficiency