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Flashcards in Bacte, USMLE Deck (283)
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1
Q

What does Candida albicans do that distinguishes it from other fungi?

A

It forms a germinal tube at 37°C.

2
Q

What protozoal parasite results in dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the stool, and forms liver abscesses and inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large intestine?

A

Entamoeba histolytica (treat with metronidazole)

3
Q

What is the most likely causative organism for a patient with folliculitis after spending time in a Hot Tub?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

4
Q

What two viruses get their envelope not from budding but from coding?

A

HIV and poxvirus

5
Q

Which type of hepatitis can cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B

6
Q

Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium species?

A

Clostridium perfringens

7
Q

Which dimorphic fungus is found as hyphae with nondescript conidia in rotting wood in the Upper Great Lakes, Ohio, MIssissippi, eastern seaboard of the United States, and southern Canada?

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

8
Q

Which parasitic organism, when it crosses the placenta, results in intracerebral calcifications, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, hydrocephaly, and convulsions?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

9
Q

What staphylococcal species is positive for b-hemolysis and coagulase?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

10
Q

What vector is associated with malaria?

A

Anopheles mosquito

11
Q

What is the term for hyphae with constrictions at each septum that are commonly seen in Candida albicans?

A

Pseudohyphae

12
Q

Which cestode infection results in alveolar hydatid cyst disease?

A

Echinococcus multilocularis

13
Q

Which hepatitis virus is in the Flaviviridae family?

A

Hepatitis C

14
Q

What nonmotile gram-netative, non-lactose-fermenting facultative anaerobic rod uses the human colon as its only reservior and is transmitted by fecal-oral spread?

A

Shigella

15
Q

What is the only Rickettsia that is stable in the environment?

A

Coxiella burnetii

16
Q

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the internal virus present before or after the eclipse period?

A

After the eclipse period

17
Q

What Ab is an indication of recurrent disease for hepatitis?

A

HBcAb

18
Q

What small gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod is a facultative intracellular parasite that grows in the cold and is associated with unpasteurized milk products?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

19
Q

What is the only DNA virus that is not icosahedral?

A

Poxvirus

20
Q

Which organism causes trench mouth?

A

Fusobacterium

21
Q

True or false? All of the following are inactivated vaccines available in the United States: influenza, Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A, rabies, and adenovirus.

A

False, Adnovirus vaccine is a live pathogenic virus in an enteric coated capsule. All of the others are inactivated vaccines.

22
Q

No persistent liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped gametes; irregular febrile pattern; associated with cerebral malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

23
Q

No persistent liver stage or replapse; blood smear shows rosette schizonts; 72-hour fever spike pattern

A

Plasmodium malariae

24
Q

Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites with oval, jagged infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike pattern

A

Plasmodium ovale

25
Q

Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with relapses; blood smear shows amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever spike pattern; the most prevalent form worldwide

A

Plasmodium vivax

26
Q

True or false? A positive PPD skin test indicates the patient has active pulmonary disease.

A

False. The PPD tests exposure to TB.

27
Q

What Viral infection is known to cause intracerebral calcifications?

A

CMV; Toxoplasma also causes intracerebral calcifications but it is a parasite.

28
Q

What viruses are associated with cervical carcinoma?

A

HPVs 16 and 18

29
Q

What motile, gram-negative spiral bacillus with flagella is oxidase positive, urease positive, and associated with gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and stomach cancer?

A

Helicobacter pylori

30
Q

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is used for fusion?

A

GP41

31
Q

What Ag is needed to diagnose an infectious patient with hepatitis B?

A

HBeAg

32
Q

Which organism causes multiple infections by antigen switching?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

33
Q

What is the first Ag seen in an individual with hepatitis?

A

HBsAg (incubation period)

34
Q

With which DNA virus are guanieri bodies associated?

A

Variola (smallpox)

35
Q

What nematode is known as Pinworms? What is the treatment?

A

Enterobius vernicularis; the treatment is albendazole.

36
Q

What protein allows Mycoplasma to attach to the respiratory epithelium?

A

P1 protein

37
Q

Day care-associated diarrhea in infants

A

Rotavirus

38
Q

Watery diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies

A

Clostridium perfringens

39
Q

Rice water stools

A

Vibrio cholera

40
Q

Diarrhea associated with raw or undercooked shellfish

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

41
Q

Bloody diarrhea associated with hamburger ingestion

A

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

42
Q

Which fungus is found worldwide on plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in tissue form, and results in rose gardner’s disease?

A

Sporothrix schenckii

43
Q

Which type of hepatitis is a picornavirus?

A

Hepatitis A (infectious)

44
Q

What gram-positive rod is distinguished by its tumbling motility?

A

Listeria

45
Q

What is the vector for Leishmania infections?

A

Sandfly

46
Q

What organism causes Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

47
Q

What are the three naked RNA viruses

A

1) Picornavirus
2) Calicivirus
3) Reovirus

48
Q

HIV’s capsid, core nucleocapsid, and matrix proteins are products of what structual gene?

A

gag gene

49
Q

What facultative intracellular fungus is associated with hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum infects the cells of the RES and can result in hepatosplenomegaly.

50
Q

What type of hepatitis has the highest mortality rate among pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E

51
Q

Which gram-netative diplococcus ferments maltose?

A

Meningoccus (Gonococcus does not)

52
Q

Are antibiotics helpful in treating a disease caused by a prion?

A

No. Prions are infectious proteins, so antibiotics are useless.

53
Q

What bacterium is associated with hand-foot-and-mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie A

54
Q

What is the only trematode that is not hermaphroditic?

A

Schistosoma have separate males and females.

55
Q

What water-associated organism is a weakly stained gram-negative rod that requires cysteine and iron for growth?

A

Legionella (think air conditioners)

56
Q

With what virus are Downey type II cells associated?

A

EBV

57
Q

True or false? Interferons are eukaryotic proteins that inhibit viral replication by being virus specific.

A

False. Interferons are produced by virally infected cells to Inhibit viral replication via RNA endonucleases. They Do Not act directly on the virus, nor are they virus specific.

58
Q

What is the vector for yellow fever?

A

Aedes mosquito

59
Q

What small, facultative gram-negative intracellular rod’s transmission is associated with unpasteurized dairy products and undulant fever?

A

Brucella

60
Q

True or false? All Proteus species are urease positive.

A

TRUE

61
Q

Nails and skin only

A

Epidermophyton

62
Q

Hair and skin only

A

Microsporum

63
Q

Skin, hair, and nails

A

Trichophyton

64
Q

What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA detect to determine whether a patient is HIV positive?

A

P24

65
Q

What genus of bacteria is described by catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in clusters?

A

Staphylococcus

66
Q

True or false? Vibrio parahaemolyticus require NaCl in its growth medium.

A

True. Staphylococcus aureus and group D enterococci also grow in high-salt media.

67
Q

What virus causes small pink benign wartlike tumors and is associated with HIV-positive patients?

A

Molluscum contagiosum

68
Q

What two bacteria are associated with drinking unpasteurized milk?

A

Brucella and Listeria (has tumbling motility)

69
Q

What cestode causes Cysticercosis?

A

Taenia solium

70
Q

What DNA virus is associated with exanthem subitum (roseola)?

A

HHV 6

71
Q

Which acid-fast rod is an obligate intracellular parasite?

A

Mycobacterium leprae

72
Q

What form of the Plasmodium species is ingested by mosquitoes?

A

Gametocytes

73
Q

What small gram-negative aerobic rod requires Regan-Lowe or Bordet-Gengou medium for growth?

A

Bordetella pertussis

74
Q

True or false? Streptococci have catalase.

A

False. Staphylococci have catalase; Streptococci do not.

75
Q

What 3 bacteria are positive to Quellung reactive test

A

1) Neisseria meningitidis
2) Hemophilus influenzae
3) Streptococcus pneumoniae

76
Q

A patient goes to the ER with abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating less than 24 hours after eating potato salad at a picnic; what is the most likely responsible organism?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

77
Q

True or false? All spore formers are gram positive.

A

TRUE

78
Q

What is the only DNA virus that has the reverse transcriptase enzyme?

A

Hepadnavirus

79
Q

What enzyme does HIV use to integrate the proviral dsDNA into the host?

A

Integrase

80
Q

What are the two hepatitis viruses that can be chronic and can lead eventually to hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C

81
Q

What gram-positive spore-forming anaerobic rod blocks the release of Ach at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

82
Q

Name at least two products of HIV’s pol gene.

A

Protease, integrase, and reverse transcriptase

83
Q

What form of Plasmodium species affects the liver?

A

Hypnozoite

84
Q

What small coagulase-positive, gram-negative rod with bipolar staining is a facultative intracellular parasite resulting in buboes?

A

Yersinia pestis

85
Q

What hemoflagellate species is the cause of Chagas disease?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

86
Q

To what host cell receptor does the rabies virus attach?

A

ACh receptor

87
Q

Which hepatitis virus is in the Picornaviridae family?

A

Hepatitis A

88
Q

Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide immunity?

A

Abs to HBsAg

89
Q

What type of spore is defined as an asexual budding daughter yeast cell?

A

Blastoconidia

90
Q

Eukaryotic cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes, no cell walls, replicates via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis

A

Parasites

91
Q

Small prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S ribosomes; no sterols in cell membrane; peptidoglycans in cell wall; replicate by binary fission

A

Bacteria

92
Q

Eukaryotic cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes; chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell membrane; replicate via cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis

A

Fungi

93
Q

Acellular; some are enveloped; replicate within the host cell; no cell walls

A

Viruses

94
Q

What mosquito is the vector for dengue fever?

A

Aedes (the same for yellow fever)

95
Q

True or false? Gonococcus is encapsulated.

A

False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; Gonococcus is not.

96
Q

What virus is associated with Guarnieri bodies?

A

Variola virus

97
Q

Regarding the viral growth curve, is the external virus present before or after the latent period?

A

After the Latent period

98
Q

What aerobic branching rod that is gram positive and partially acid-fast is associated with cavitary bronchopulmonary disease in immunosuppressed patients?

A

Nocardia asteroides

99
Q

What obligate extracellular fungus is silver stain-positive and is associated with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis carinii

100
Q

What Vi-encapsulated gram-negative motile anaerobic rod that produces H2S is associated with enteric fever, gastroenteritis, and septicemia?

A

Salmonella typhi

101
Q

What is the most likely organism causing cellulitis in a patient who was cut by an Oyster Shell?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

102
Q

What virus is associated with the Norwalk agent?

A

Calicivirus

103
Q

b-Hemolytic Streptococcus; positive cAMP test; hydrolyzes hippurate

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

104
Q

a-Hemolytis Streptococcus; lysed by bile; sensitive to Optochin

A

Pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae)

105
Q

a-Hemolytic Streptococcus; not lysed by bile; not sensitive to Optochin

A

Streptococcus viridans

106
Q

b-Hemolytic Streptococcus sensitive to bacitracin

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

107
Q

What is the only nonmotile pathogenic Clostridium species?

A

Clostridium perfringens

108
Q

If a virus has positive sense RNA, can it be used as mRNA or is a template needed?

A

Positive sense RNA Can be used as mRNA. Negative sense RNA CanNot be used as mRNA; it requires special RNA-dependent RNA polymerases.

109
Q

Where do adult tapeworms develop, in the intermediate or definitive host?

A

Adult tapeworms develop in the Definitive host, whereas Cysticerci or Larvae develop in the Intermediate host.

110
Q

Which streptococcal species is characterized by being catalase negative, turning bile esculin agar black, producing a positive PYR test, and resulting in biliary and urinary tract infections?

A

Enterococcus (Streptococcus faecalis)

111
Q

What 3 carcinomas are associated with EBV

A

1) Burkitt lymphoma
2) NPCA
3) Thymic carcinoma

112
Q

Which organism causes trench fever?

A

Rochalinaea quintana

113
Q

Based on the onset of the symptoms, how are bacterial conjunctivitis from Neisseria and Chlamydia differentiated?

A

The onset of symptoms for Neisseria gonorrhea conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, whereas onset of symptoms for Chlamydia trachomatis is 5 to 10 days.

114
Q

What toxin, produced by Clostridium tetani, binds to ganglioside receptor and blocks the release of glycine and GABA at the spinal synapse?

A

Tetanospasmin (also called tetanus toxin)

115
Q

True or false? All of the following are Live Attenuated Vaccines available in the United States: measles, mumps, varicella zoster, and Francisella tularensis.

A

True. So are rubeola, smallpox, yellow fever, and the Sabin polio vaccine.

116
Q

Ebola

A

Filovirus

117
Q

California encephalitis

A

Bunyavirus

118
Q

Hantavirus

A

Bunyavirus

119
Q

Rabies

A

Rhabdovirus

120
Q

RSV

A

Paramyxovirus

121
Q

Measles

A

Paramyxovirus

122
Q

What microaerophile is a motile gram-negative curved rod with polar flagella that causes infectious diarrhea at low doses (less than 500)

A

Campylobacter jejuni

123
Q

What bacterium is diagnosed using the Dieterle silver stain?

A

Legionella

124
Q

How many strains of Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides are present in the vaccine?

A

The vaccine contains 23 capsular polysaccharides.

125
Q

What nematode is known as whipworms? What is the treatment?

A

Trichuris trichiura is treated with albendazole.

126
Q

Which Streptococcus pyogenes toxin is immunogenic?

A

Streptolysin O

127
Q

A urethral swab of a patient shows gram-negative diplococci in PMNs; what organism do you diagnose?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

128
Q

A suspected dermatophyte infection is stained with KOH. What spore type do you expect to see?

A

Arthroconidia with hyphae

129
Q

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis with photophobia?

A

Measles (rubeola)

130
Q

Which M-protein strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with acute glomerulonephritis?

A

M12 strains

131
Q

What are the 3 C’s of measles

A

1) Cough
2) Coryza
3) Conjunctivitis

132
Q

What is the term given to Arthropod-borne viruses?

A

Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)

133
Q

Which organism causes Weil’s disease?

A

Leptospira

134
Q

What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?

A

Sporozoites

135
Q

What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?

A

Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)

136
Q

What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?

A

The tsetse fly

137
Q

What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?

A

Reverse transcriptase

138
Q

What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

139
Q

What organism is associated with megloblastic anemia?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

140
Q

What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?

A

Tinea favosa (favus)

141
Q

What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?

A

Snails

142
Q

What are the four capsular polysaccharides wuses in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?

A

Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides

143
Q

What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?

A

Cryptococcus

144
Q

What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?

A

Conidia

145
Q

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?

A

Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.

146
Q

Red pigmentation

A

Serratia

147
Q

Black-gray pigmentation

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

148
Q

Pyocyanin (blue-green)

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

149
Q

Yellow pigmentation

A

Staphylococcus aureus

150
Q

Which carcinoma - Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma - is NOT associated with EBV?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.

151
Q

What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli-induced meningitis?

A

K1 capsule

152
Q

What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?

A

HBsAg and HBeAg

153
Q

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?

A

HBcAb and HBeAb. You SEE the antibodies C and E.

154
Q

True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative.

A

TRUE

155
Q

In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?

A

The first trimester

156
Q

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

A

Vescular stomatitis virus

157
Q

Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate grows on chocolate agar? Thayer-Martin medium?

A

Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.

158
Q

Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)

159
Q

Linear dsDNA; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; replicates in the cytoplasm

A

Poxvirus

160
Q

Linear dsDNA; nuclear envelope; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

A

Herpes virus

161
Q

Linear dsDNA; naked; replicates in the nucleus

A

Adenovirus

162
Q

ssDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

A

Parvovirus

163
Q

Partially dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion-associated polymerases; has RNA intermediate; replicates in the nucelus

A

Hepadnarivus

164
Q

Circular dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; replicates in the nucleus

A

Papovavirus

165
Q

What fungus is urease positive?

A

Cryptococcus

166
Q

What bacterium is characterized by large boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is spore-forming, aerobic, and associated with cutaneous infections and woolsorter’s disease?

A

Bacillus anthracis

167
Q

Is the Salk polio vaccine inactivated?

A

Yes

168
Q

True or false? All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped.

A

True. They all have helical nucleocapsids and virion-associated polymerases too.

169
Q

What urease-positive non-lactose-fermenting gram-negative rod with swarming-type motility is associated with staghorn renal calculi?

A

Proteus

170
Q

With what two viruses are Reye’s syndrome associated?

A

Varicella virus and influenza virus

171
Q

Which organism releases endotoxins prior to cell death?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

172
Q

Cluce cells are associated with which organism that causes vaginal discharge?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

173
Q

What is the name of the bullet-shaped virus?

A

Rhabdovirus

174
Q

What fungus is characterized by India ink staining of the CSF that produces colorless cells with a halo on a black background?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

175
Q

What does hepatitis D virus need from hepatitis B virus to be infective?

A

HBsAg as its envelope

176
Q

Which type of hepatitis is a calicivirus?

A

Hepatitis E (enteric)

177
Q

What genus is known as the smallest free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell wall and has sterols in the membrane)

A

Mycoplasma

178
Q

What three organs can be affected by Trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Heart, esophagus, and colon. Remember, you get Megas: cardioMegaly, Megaesophagus, and Megacolon.

179
Q

Which serotypes of HPV are associated with plantar warts?

A

HPV serotypes 1 and 4

180
Q

What facultative gram-negative anaerobic rod is motile, ferments lactose, and is the MCC of UTIs?

A

Escherichia coli

181
Q

What is the only dsRNA virus?

A

Reovirus

182
Q

What are the 4 segmented RNA viruses

A

1) Bunyavirus
2) Orthomyxovirus
3) Reovirus
4) Arenavirus

183
Q

What is the term given to Arthropod-borne viruses?

A

Arboviruses (bunyavirus, flavivirus, and togavirus)

184
Q

Which organism causes Weil’s disease?

A

Leptospira

185
Q

What form of the Plasmodium species are injected into humans by mosquitoes?

A

Sporozoites

186
Q

What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA before it makes mRNA?

A

Parvovirus (it is the only ssDNA virus)

187
Q

What is the vector of African sleeping sickness?

A

The tsetse fly

188
Q

What HIV enzyme produces a dsDNA provirus?

A

Reverse transcriptase

189
Q

What non-spore-forming gram-positive aerobic rod produces bull neck, sore throat with pseudomembranes, myocarditis, and sometimes respiratory obstructions?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

190
Q

What organism is associated with megloblastic anemia?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

191
Q

What is the most serious form of tinea capitis, which results in permanent hair loss and is highly contagious?

A

Tinea favosa (favus)

192
Q

What are the first intermediate hosts for trematodes?

A

Snails

193
Q

What are the four capsular polysaccharides wuses in the Neisseria meningitides vaccine?

A

Y, W-135, and C and A capsular polysaccharides

194
Q

What is the only encapsulated fungal pathogen?

A

Cryptococcus

195
Q

What type of spore is asexual and formed of hyphae?

A

Conidia

196
Q

What is the only Plasmodium that is quartan?

A

Plasmodium malariae; the others are tertian.

197
Q

Red pigmentation

A

Serratia

198
Q

Black-gray pigmentation

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

199
Q

Pyocyanin (blue-green)

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

200
Q

Yellow pigmentation

A

Staphylococcus aureus

201
Q

Which carcinoma - Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma - is NOT associated with EBV?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with hepatitis B and C infections, not with EBV.

202
Q

What capsular serotype is associated with Escherichia coli-induced meningitis?

A

K1 capsule

203
Q

What two Ags must be positive for a patient to have chronic active hepatitis?

A

HBsAg and HBeAg

204
Q

In the window phase of a hepatitis B infection, which Abs do you see?

A

HBcAb and HBeAb. You SEE the antibodies C and E.

205
Q

True or false? All streptococci are catalase-negative.

A

TRUE

206
Q

In what trimester is the fetus most vulnerable to congenital rubella syndrome?

A

The first trimester

207
Q

What virus causes hoof-and-mouth disease?

A

Vescular stomatitis virus

208
Q

Which gram-negative diplococcus grows on chocolate grows on chocolate agar? Thayer-Martin medium?

A

Meningococcus grows on chocolate agar, and Gonococcus grows on Thayer-Martin medium.

209
Q

Which protozoal parasitic vaginal infection produces a positive whiff test with KOH staining?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis (treat with metronidazole)

210
Q

Only mature RBCs?

A

Plasmodium malariae

211
Q

Only reticulocytes?

A

Plasmodium vivax

212
Q

RBCs of all ages?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

213
Q

What is the major cell membrane sterol found in fungi?

A

Ergosterol

214
Q

What Ab is an indication of low transmissibility for hepatitis?

A

HBeAb

215
Q

What is the term for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?

A

Reverse transcriptase

216
Q

Which gram-positive bacteria infection of infancy is associated with ingestion of honey?

A

Clostridium botulinum

217
Q

Which trematode is associated with bladder carcinoma in Egypt and Africa?

A

Schistosoma heamatobium

218
Q

Which encapsulated fungus is found in soil enriched with pigeon droppings?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

219
Q

Trigeminal ganglia?

A

Herpes I

220
Q

Dorsal root ganglia?

A

Varicella

221
Q

Sensory ganglia of S2 and S3?

A

Herpes II

222
Q

What is the name of exotoxin Shigella dysenteriae produces, which interferes with the 60S ribosomal subunit and results in eukaryotic protein synthesis inhibition?

A

Shiga toxin (enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produces Vero toxin, which is quite similar to shiga toxin)

223
Q

What protozonal parasite forms flasked-shaped lesions in the duodenum, is transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is commonly seen in campers who drank stream water?

A

Giardia lamblia (treat with metronidazole)

224
Q

What color do fungi stain with PAS? Silver stain?

A

Hot pink with PAS and grey to black with silver stain

225
Q

A tropical fish enthusiast has granulomatous lesions and cellulitis; what is the most likely offending organism?

A

Mycobacterium marinum

226
Q

Which dimorphic fungus is found as Arthroconidia in desert sand of the southwestern United States (e.g., San Joaquin Valley)?

A

Coccidioides immitis

227
Q

Which mycoplasma sepecies is associated with urethritis, prostatis, and renal calculi?

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

228
Q

What tick is the vector for bagesiosis?

A

Ixodes (also the vector for Lyme disease)

229
Q

What is the only DNA virus that does not replicate its DNA in the nucleus of the host cell?

A

Poxvirus replicates its DNA in the cytoplasm.

230
Q

What organism would you suspect in a patient with diarrhea after eating rice?

A

Bacillus cereus

231
Q

What small gram-negative facultative intracellular rod is transmitted to human host by Dermacentor tick bite?

A

Francisella tularensis

232
Q

True or false? Cestodes have no GI tract.

A

True. They absorb nutrients from the host’s GI tract.

233
Q

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with parotitis, pancreatitis, and orchitis?

A

Mumps

234
Q

IV drug abuser

A

> 10 mm

235
Q

Patient with AIDS

A

> 5mm

236
Q

Recent immigrant from India

A

> 10 mm

237
Q

Healthy suburban male without any medical illnesses

A

> 15 mm

238
Q

Posttransplantation patient taking immunosuppressive agents

A

> 5 mm

239
Q

What are the only two picornaviruses that do NOT lead to aseptic meningitis?

A

Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus

240
Q

Which cestode is raw or rare beef containing cysticerci results in intestinal tapeworms?

A

Taenia saginata

241
Q

What DNA viral disease is associated with aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell anemia?

A

Parvovirus B-19

242
Q

What glycoprotein in the HIV virus attaches to CD4?

A

GP120

243
Q

What Enterobacteriaceae are prone to produce osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients?

A

Salmonella

244
Q

What organism is commonly associated with a cellulitis from an animal bite?

A

Pasteurella multocida

245
Q

What fungus is seen as colored cauliflower lesions?

A

Chromomycosis

246
Q

What is the reservoir for the togavirus?

A

Birds

247
Q

What are the two exceptions to the rule “all cocci are gram positive”?

A

Both Nesseria and Moraxella are gram-netative cocci.

248
Q

What nematode is known as hookworms? What is the treatment?

A

Necator americanus is treated with mebendazole and iron therapy.

249
Q

What HIV structural gene produces GP120 and GP41?

A

env structural protein

250
Q

Which hemoflagellate species causes Kala Azar?

A

Leishmania donovani (kala azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis)

251
Q

What DNA virus is associated with heterophile-negative mononucleosis?

A

CMV; remember, EBV is associated with heterophile-positive mononucleosis.

252
Q

What negative sense RNA virus is associated with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?

A

Rabies

253
Q

What large, spore-forming, gram-positive anaerobic rod is associated with infections due to puncture wounds and trauma?

A

Clostridium tetani

254
Q

What is the vector for Chagas disease?

A

The reduviid bug

255
Q

What is the polarity (i.e, 5’-3’ or 3’-5’) of a positive sense RNA?

A

Positive sense RNA means it can serve as mRNA and therefore has 5’-3’ Polarity.

256
Q

What viral infection is associated with black vomit?

A

Yellow fever (flavivirus)

257
Q

What encapsulated gram-negative, lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumonia in patients with alcoholism, diabetes, and chronic lung disease?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

258
Q

What is the essential reservoir host for Toxoplasma gondii?

A

The cat

259
Q

What gram-positive anaerobic rod with branching filaments is a component of the normal flora of the mouth and female genital tract and is responsible for draining abscesses with sulfur granules in the exudates?

A

Actinomyces israelii

260
Q

What is the term for Candida infection of the oral mucosa?

A

Thrush

261
Q

What is the term for fungi that can convert from hyphal to yeast forms?

A

Dimorphic

262
Q

To what viral family does the polio virus belong?

A

Picornaviridae

263
Q

Name at least three bacteria that use capsules to prevent immediate destruction from the host’s defense system.

A

Streptococcus penumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Neisseria meningitidis; also Cryptococcus neoformans, a fungus

264
Q

True or false? There are no persistent infections with naked viruses?

A

True. They lyse the host cell

265
Q

What virus is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

JC virus

266
Q

What bacterium is a gram-negative, oxidase-positive aerobic rod that produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin pigmentation?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

267
Q

Which three organisms cause heterophilic negative mononucleosis?

A

CMV, Toxoplasma gondii, and Listeria

268
Q

What bacterium found in poorly preserved canned food causes flaccid paralysis?

A

Clostridium botulinum

269
Q

Which two negative sense RNA viruses have neuraminidase enzymes?

A

Mumps and influenza virus

270
Q

What Staphylococcus aureus protein inhibits phagocytosis?

A

Protein A

271
Q

Which four bacteria require cysteine for growth?

A

Pasteurella, Brucella, Legionella, and Francisella (all of the -ellas)

272
Q

What fungus causes endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Candida albicans

273
Q

What viruses are associated with Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions?

A

Herpes virus I and II

274
Q

Which streptococcal species is associated with dental caries and infective endocarditis in patients with poor oral hygiene?

A

Streptococcus viridans

275
Q

What is the term for cestode-encysted larvae found in intermediate hosts?

A

Cysicerci

276
Q

What fungus is characterized by hypopigmented spots on the thorax, spaghetti-and-meatball KOH staining, and pityriasis or tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur (treat with selenium sulfide)

277
Q

What nematode is known as threadworms? What is the treatment?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis is treated with thiabendazole.

278
Q

What are known as jumping genes?

A

Transposons

279
Q

What virus produces koilocytic cells on a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear?

A

HPV

280
Q

Which dimorphic fungus is endemic in the Ohio, Mississippi, MIssouri, and Eastern Great Lakes, is found in soil with bird and bat feces, and is associated with infections in spelunkers and chicken coop cleaners?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

281
Q

Which of the following Enterobacteriaceae family members - Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Escherichia, Proteus, and Citrobacter - do not ferment lactose?

A

All are lactose fermenters except Yersinia and Proteus.

282
Q

What two HIV regulatory genes down-regulate MHC class I expression in the host?

A

nef and tat genes

283
Q

What size ribosomes do fungi have?

A

80S ribosomes (because they are eukaryotic)