Cell Physiology, Topnotch Flashcards

1
Q

Tumor suppressor genes that inhibit G1 to S progression

A

1) Rb

2) p53

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2
Q

Organelle for detoxification, lipid synthesis and conversion of lipid-soluble substances to water-soluble substances

A

SER

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3
Q

Organelle responsible for synthesis of proteins for cell membrane and lysosomes, and proteins destined outside the cell

A

RER ribosome

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4
Q

Organelle responsible for synthesis of hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate

A

Golgi apparatus

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5
Q

Organelle responsible for degradation of membrane-associated proteins

A

Proteosome

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6
Q

DNA charge

A

Negative

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7
Q

Histone charge

A

Positive

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8
Q

Basic amio acids found in histones

A

1) Arginine

2) Lysine

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9
Q

Location of the ETC in the mitochondria

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

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10
Q

Part of the mitochondria where proton gradient is established

A

Intermembranous space

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11
Q

Location of mDNA and biochemical pathways in mitochondria

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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12
Q

Site for transcription and processing of rRNA

A

Nucleolus

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13
Q

Biochemical pathways exclusive to the mitochondria

A

1) Krebs cycle
2) Beta-oxidation
3) Ketone body synthesis

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14
Q

Biochemical pathways that take place in 2 sites (cytoplasm and mitochondria)

A

HUGs Take 2

1) Heme synthesis
2) Urea cycle
3) Gluconeogenesis

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15
Q

Specialized RER in neuron

A

Nissl substance

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16
Q

The only substance modified in the RER (the rest are modified in the Golgi)

A

Collagen

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17
Q

Substance added to lysosome-bound proteins by the Golgi apparatus

A

MGP

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18
Q

Origin of lysosome

A

Golgi apparatus

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19
Q

Origin of pERoxisome

A

SER

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20
Q

Type of cell filament seen in microvilli, zonula adherens, zonula occludens, and responsible for locomotion of macrophages

A

Microfilament

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21
Q

Type of cell filament seen in desmosomes and hemidesmosomes

A

Intermediate filament

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22
Q

Cell filament that act as pathways for transport of substances

A

Microtubule

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23
Q

Examples of structures governed by microtubules (5)

A

1) Cilia
2) Flagella
3) Centrioles
4) Mitotic spindle
5) Intracellular vesicles

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24
Q

Microtubule missing in cilia and flagella of patients with Kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)

A

Dynein

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25
Q

Triad of Kartagener syndrome

A

1) Situs inversus
2) Bronchiectasis
3) Chronic sinusitis

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26
Q

4 junctional complexes

A

1) Macula adherens
2) Zonula adherens
3) Zonula occludens
4) Gap junctions

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27
Q

Junctional complex also known as “desmome”

A

Macula adherens

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28
Q

Junctional complex also known as “fascia adherens”

A

Zonula adherens

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29
Q

Junctional complex also known as “tight junction”

A

Zonula occludens

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30
Q

Disk-shaped junctional complex

A

Macula adherens

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31
Q

Ring-shaped junctional complex that increases surface area for contact

A

Zonula adherens

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32
Q

Junctional complex in a reticular pattern and divides cells into apical and basolateral side

A

Zonula occludens

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33
Q

Intercalated disks in cardiac muscle is this type of junctional complex

A

Zonula adherens

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34
Q

Junctional complex for intercellular communication

A

Gap junction

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35
Q

The BBB is what type of junctional complex

A

Tight zonula occludens

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36
Q

Cardiac and unitary smooth muscle is what type of junctional complex

A

Gap junction

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37
Q

Functional unit of gap junction

A

Connexon

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38
Q

Major component of cell membrane

A

Proteins

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39
Q

Phospholipids on outer leaflet

A

CES

1) Phosphatidylcholine
2) Phosphatidylethanolamine
3) Sphingomyelin

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40
Q

Phospholipids on inner leaflet

A

SI

1) Phosphatidylserine
2) Phosphatidylinositol

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41
Q

Component of cell membrane that determines membrane fluidity and permeability

A

Cholesterol

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42
Q

Glycolipid that anchors protein to the outer leaflet

A

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol

43
Q

Intercellular interaction used by integral proteins

A

Hydrophobic interaction

44
Q

Intercellular interaction used by peripheral proteins

A

Electrostatic interaction

45
Q

Chromosome mutated in CF

A

Chromosome 7

46
Q

Chromosome 7 in CF encodes for this transporter

A

ABC transporter CFTR

47
Q

Protein that mediates exocytosis

A

SNARE protein

48
Q

6 organs that exhibit insulin independent glucose uptake

A

BRICK L

1) Brain
2) RBC
3) small Intestine
4) Cornea
5) Kidney
6) Liver

49
Q

Insensible fluid loss from the skin

A

350cc

50
Q

Insensible fluid loss from the lungs

A

350cc

51
Q

Fluid gain from metabolism

A

200cc

52
Q

Indicator molecules for TBW

A

1) Deuterium oxide

2) Antipyrine

53
Q

Indicator molecules for ECF

A

1) Inulin

2) Mannitol

54
Q

Indicator molecule for plasma

A

124I- labeled albumin

55
Q

Amount of the following electrolytes in ECF respectively: Na, K, Ca, Cl, HCO3

A

140, 4, 2.5, 105, 24

56
Q

Normal osmolarity of ECF and ICF

A

290 mOsm/L

57
Q

Osmolarity vs osmolality: Varies with temperature

A

Osmolarity

58
Q

Estimate of plasma osmolarity

A

2Na + Gluc(mg/dL)/18 + BUN(mg/dL)/2.5

59
Q

Osmolar gap

A

Measured osmolarity - estimated osmolarity

60
Q

Conditions that increase osmolar gap

A

MUDPILES 1) Methanol 2) Uremia 3) DKA 4) Paraldehyde 5) Isoniazid, Iron 6) Lactic acidosis 7) Ethanol, Ethylene glycol 8) Salicylate intoxication

61
Q

Osmotic pressure is solely dependent on this property of a molecule

A

Number

62
Q

Cockroft-Gault formula

A

Gender * (140-age/serum crea in mg/dL) * (wt in kg/72)

63
Q

Estimated normal total blood volume in an adult

A

5L

64
Q

Estimated normal TLC

A

5800mL

65
Q

Estimate normal GFR

A

125mL/min or 180L/day

66
Q

Estimated normal TV in adult

A

500cc

67
Q

Intrinsic factors that affect TV

A

1) Gender
2) Age
3) Height

68
Q

Measure of effective osmolality

A

Tonicity

69
Q

Ease with which a solute permeates a membrane

A

Reflection coefficient or osmotic coefficient

70
Q

RC = 1

A

No solute penetration

71
Q

RC between 1 and 0

A

Some solute penetration

72
Q

RC = 0

A

Complete solute penetration

73
Q

Characteristics of active transport

A

1) Saturation
2) Stereospecificity
3) Competition

74
Q

Simple vs facilitated diffusion: Faster at lower solute conc

A

Facilitated

75
Q

Simple vs facilitated diffusion: Faster at higher solute conc

A

Simple

76
Q

Location of SGLT 1

A

Intestine

77
Q

Location of SGLT2

A

PCT of kidney

78
Q

Ca-ATPase location

A

Cell membrane and SR

79
Q

H-K ATPase pump location

A

Parietal cells

80
Q

H-ATPase pump location

A

Intercalated cells of 2nd part of DCT

81
Q

Na-H countertransport location (2)

A

1) Loop of Henle

2) Intercalated cells of 2nd part of DCT

82
Q

Location of Na-K-2Cl channels

A

Thick ascending loop of Henle

83
Q

Functional subunit of NaK-ATPase pump inhibited by cardiac glycosides

A

Alpha subunit

84
Q

Location of NaK-ATPase pump in almost all cells except choroid plexus

A

Basolateral side

85
Q

Cells that never go to G0 hence are rapidly dividing

A

Labile cells

86
Q

Cells that are capable of regeneration once stimulated

A

Quiescent/Stable cells

87
Q

Cells that remain in G0 and are not capable of regeneration

A

Permanent cells

88
Q

Process of endocytosis that is energy- and calcium-requiring

A

Pinocytosis

89
Q

Process of endocytosis that is usually receptor-mediated, not energy-requiring, and for larger substances

A

Phagocytosis

90
Q

Insulin independent glucose transporter

A

Glut 1

91
Q

Bidirectional glucose transporter

A

Glut 2

92
Q

Insulin dependent glucose transporter

A

Glut 4

93
Q

Glucose transporter that has a higher affinity for glucose and with 5-fold greater transport and is found in the brain

A

Glut 3

94
Q

Organs that use Glut 2 (4)

A

1) Beta cells of pancreas
2) Liver
3) Small intestine
4) Kidneys

95
Q

Organs that use Glut 4 (2)

A

1) Adipose

2) Skeletal muscle

96
Q

Total body water

A

60% of total body weight

97
Q

TBW: ICF

A

40%

98
Q

TBW: ECF

A

20%

99
Q

ECF: Intravascular

A

1/4

100
Q

ECF: Extravascular

A

3/4

101
Q

Type of transport that uses Na-K ATPase pump directly

A

Primary active

102
Q

Type of transport that uses Na-K ATPase pump indirectly

A

Secondary active

103
Q

Normal RMP

A

-70mV