Chapter 23-agents used to treat hyperacidity Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 23-agents used to treat hyperacidity Deck (35)
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1
Q

The reason the client’s abdominal pain is most severe just prior to mealtime is because:

A

stomach acid and pepsin are not being consumed by food.

2
Q

The client asks the office nurse if his smoking can cause the development of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse’s best response is:

A

“Smoking increases the secretion of stomach acid, as well as decreases the acid-neutralizing capacity within the first part of the small intestines

3
Q

The client asks the nurse what the difference is between antacids and proton pump inhibitors. The nurse’s best response is:

A

“Antacids neutralize gastric acid, and proton pump inhibitors prevent the secretion of gastric acid.”

4
Q

When teaching a client about antacids, which comment by the client indicates further teaching is needed:

A

“Taking antacids will not affect my heart medication (digoxin).”

Antacids decrease the absorption of digoxin, thus alter its effectiveness.

5
Q

Antacids decrease the absorption of digoxin, thus alter its effectiveness.

A

the antacid has a much longer duration of action.

When administered 1 hour after meals, antacids have a duration of 3 to 4 hours.

6
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about antacid therapy?

A

Gas released by effervescent antacid solutions may lead to distention and secretion of additional hydrochloric acid
. For this reason, effervescent antacids should not be ingested until the fizzing has stopped.

7
Q

The client asks the nurse how his ranitidine works to treat his heartburn. The nurse’s best response is:

A

“Ranitidine block the histamine-2 receptors in the stomach to decrease gastric acid.”

This is the action of ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist.

8
Q

An example of an antacid that releases carbon dioxide when it neutralizes acid in the stomach is:

A

calcium carbonate.

Calcium carbonate releases carbon dioxide in the stomach.

9
Q

The client says to the nurse that since he started taking an antacid “that distended feeling in my stomach is better.” In explaining this effect, the nurse understands that the antacid probably contained:

A

simethicone.- is an antiflatulent.

10
Q

For the client taking enteric-coated aspirin for a heart condition, the nurse should instruct the client to:

A

not to take his antacid within 1 to 2 hours of his EC (enteric-coated) aspirin.
Antacids will alter the absorption of EC aspirin in the duodenum.

11
Q

Prior to preparing to administer a liquid antacid, the nurse must:

A

shake well to mix the liquid prior to pouring.

12
Q

The nurse understands that antacids absorbed systemically:

A

have a rapid onset and a short duration of action.

13
Q

The ideal antacid does not cause acid rebound. Acid rebound is best described as:

A

overproduction of acid when the stomach pH is above the 4 to 5 range.
This describes acid rebound

14
Q

Clients sometimes prefer chewable forms of antacids because of their convenience. When this form of antacid is used, the nurse instructs the client to:

A

chew the tablet completely before swallowing and follow it with a glass of water.

15
Q

The client is prescribed cimetidine for treatment of hyperacidity. The nurse should tell the client:

A

“Your cigarette smoking may decrease the effectiveness of this drug.”

This is information that the client taking cimetidine should be given.

16
Q

Acid-neutralizing capacity (ANC) is an important consideration in choice of antacid. The nurse realizes that further client education is necessary when the client expresses which of the following ideas?

A

“Antacids with a high ANC can only be obtained by prescription.”

17
Q

Cimetidine is not as commonly used as often in adults as other drugs in its class. The nurse understands that this is because cimetidine:

A

has more drug-to-drug interactions.

18
Q

Which of the following statements by the client indicates that further teaching about proton pump inhibitor therapy is warranted?

A

“These are just more expensive versions of the histamine-2 antagonists.”

Proton pump inhibitors action differs from that of the histamine-2 antagonists.

19
Q

In addition to treating duodenal ulcer disease, lansoprazole and omeprazole also are approved in the treatment of:

A

H. pylori infections-In combination with amoxicillin or clarithromycin, these drugs are approved to treat H. pylori infections in clients with duodenal ulcer disease.

20
Q

The client asks the nurse why her health care provider prescribed esomeprazole for her. The nurse’s best response is:

A

“This drug is used to treat the inflammation in your esophagus caused by GERD.”

21
Q

A hospitalized client has been prescribed sucralfate. The nurse recruit exhibits understanding about this medication when he states, “Sucralfate is used because it:

A

forms a protective complex over duodenal ulcers.”

22
Q

What is the nurse recruit’s best response when asked, “Which of the following clients is most likely to experience pancreatic enzyme deficiency?”

A

a client with cystic fibrosis

Clients with cystic fibrosis require pancreatic enzyme replacement.

23
Q

The nurse recognizes that which of the following is NOT a histamine H2-receptor antagonist?

A

quinidine- is an antiarrhythmic.

24
Q

A client taking ranitidine tells the nurse that he frequently experiences headaches. The best response by the nurse is:

A

“Though headaches can occur, can you describe these headaches for me?”

25
Q

A client taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) for arthritis is experiencing gastric irritation. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe:

A

misoprostol-This is the agent used to treat gastric irritation caused by NSAIDs.

26
Q

A client is prescribed esomeprazole and metoclopramide for GERD. The client approaches the nurse saying, “I understand why he prescribed Nexium, but why the laxative?” The nurse’s best response is:

A

“Metoclopramide is a gastric stimulant, not a laxative.”

27
Q

The nurse admitting a client with GERD is planning the client’s care and determines that the priority nursing diagnosis for this client is:

A

risk for injury related to development of complications of GERD.
Complications of GERD include esophagitis, esophageal erosions, and esophageal cancer. This is the highest priority for this client.

28
Q

The nurse would question a prescription for metoclopramide for which of the following clients?

A

client with a seizure disorde-may increase the risk of seizures.

29
Q

A client is experiencing constipation secondary to the use of calcium carbonate. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this client is:

A

“Alternating the calcium carbonate with magnesium hydroxide will help prevent this.”

By alternating calcium carbonate with a magnesium-based antacid (adverse side effect is diarrhea), the client should be able to avoid both adverse effects.

30
Q

A client asks the nurse if drinking coffee might make her peptic ulcer disease worse. The nurse’s best response is:

A

“Both caffeinated and decaffeinated coffees are ulcerogenic and must be avoided.”

31
Q

The instructor asks the nurse recruit, “Which of these clients is the most appropriate candidate for metoclopramide therapy?” Considering the action of this agent, the nurse recruit would be correct when responding:

A

a client debilitated by a stroke.
Because this client is at high risk for Curling’s ulcer from prolonged contact between the gastric mucosa and gastric acid from immobility, this client is the most appropriate.

32
Q

A young child being treated with metoclopramide for gastroesophageal reflux develops an acute dystonic reaction. The nurse anticipates administering:

A

parenteral diphenhydramine.

Acute dystonic reaction in children receiving metoclopramide is reversed by parenteral diphenhydramine.

33
Q

The client receiving Prevacid would be monitored for which of the following?

A

a. diarrhea
b. constipation
c. nausea and vomiting
d. vertigo
e. skin rash
f. headache

34
Q

Which of the following statements are true of Aciphex?

A

a. Headache is an adverse effect.
b. The client should avoid OTC products.
c. The client’s CBC should be monitored.
e. Nervousness is an adverse effect.
f. The medication increases digoxin levels.

35
Q

The client has a prescription for the PPI Kapidex. Which of the following would be included in client teaching?

A

b. DVT may occur.
c. The medication can be taken without regard to food.
d. If unable to swallow the capsules, the client may mix the contents in the capsule with 1 tablespoon of applesauce or pudding.
e. Altered taste may occur.