Q: Biochemical testing of an unknown bacteria would be considered a ___ method of identification.
A: Phenotypic
Phenotypic
Q: The use of DNA probes to study an organism would be considered a ____ method of identification.
A: Genotypic
Genotypic
Q: Gram would be considered an important ____ method of microbial identification.
A: Phenotypic
Phenotypic
Q: For the isolation of the microbes from a patient specimen, a(an) _______ media would be chosen to make the target microbes more prominent by inhibiting microbes that are part of the normal microbiota.
A: Selective
Selective
Q: If a patient specimen contains such small numbers of the pathogen that it could easily be lost or overgrown, the specimen is often cultured in a(an) ___ media to amplify the pathogen.
A: Enrichment
Enrichment
Q: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method detects very small amounts of antibody in the patient to a specific pathogen.
A: False
False
Q: A probe is a(an):
A: Small fragment of single-strained nucleic acid
Small fragment of single-stranded nucleic acid
Q: __________ refers to the quantity of antibodies in the serum.
A: Titer
Titer
Q: In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a _________; in precipitation reactions, it is a _______.
A: Whole cell, soluble molecule
Whole cell, soluble molecule
Q: Which reaction requires complement?
A: Hemolysis
Hemolysis
Q: A patient with a ______ titer, to an infectious agent generally has greater protection than a patient with a _______ titer.
A: High, low
High, low
Q: Direct immunofluorescent tests use a labeled antibody to identify:
A: Unknown microbe
Unknown microbe
Q: In a complement fixation test, hemolysis of red blood cells is considered a (+) test result.
A: False
False
Q: Which of the following immunoassay techniques uses antibodies labeled with a radioactive isotope to detect very small amounts of a corresponding antigen?
A: RIA
RIA
Q: Indirect ELISA techniques use a known antigen in order to detect specific antibodies in the serum sample.
A: True
True
Q: The capture ELISA technique determines the antibody titer a patient has to a specific antigen.
A: False
False
Q: When performing ELISA techniques, the wells in a micro titer plate that develop color are considered (-), whereas the wells that remain colorless are considered (+).
A: False
False
Q: Broth or agar culture media can not be used to cultivate viruses in a laboratory.
A: True
True
Q: An example of an in vivo serological test is:
A: Tuberculin test
Tuberculin test
Q: ELISA methods can be used to diagnose viral infections
A: True
True
Q: What is the only species of Staphylococcus that produces the enzyme, coagulase?
A: aureus
aureus
Q: Which species of Staphylococcus is the second leading cause of urinary tract infections in sexually active young women?
A: saprophyticus
saprophyticus
Q: Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections as well as food poisoning.
A: True
True
Q: Lancefield group of Streptococcus species is based on the _______ component of the bacterial cell wall.
A: C carbohydrate
C carbohydrate
Q: Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus is:
A: Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes
Q: An analysis of the type of hemolysis produced on a 5% sheep blood agar is a very important factor in Streptococcus identification. Alpha hemolysis _______.
A: Produces green zones indicating partial lysis of red blood cells
Produces green zones indicating partial lysis of red blood cells
Q: Scarlet fever is a disease caused by pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are capable of producing fever/rash producing toxins.
A: False
False
Q: Group B beta Streptococcal infection can result in a very serious infection in the newborn. Group B beta Streptococcus is Streptococcus equisimilis.
A: False
False
Q: Enterococcus faecalis can be commonly isolated from the human respiratory tract.
A: False
False
Q: The most severe Streptococcal diseases are caused by:
A: Group A streptococci
Group A streptococci
Q: Rheumatic fever damages the ______, whereas glomerulonephritis damages the ______.
A: Heart valves, kidney
Heart valves, kidney
Q: Viridans streptococci can cause:
A: Subacute endocarditis
Subacute endocarditis
Q: Otitis media is a(an) _______ infection often caused by ________.
A: Middle ear, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Middle ear, Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q: Some people can carry Streptococcus pneumonia as part of their normal microbiota in the nasopharynx.
A: True
Treu
Q: The observation of Gram (-) diplococci inside white blood cells is an important factor for the identification of _______ infections.
A: Neisseria
Neisseria
Q: Which of the following is a leading cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)?
A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q: What virulence factor is associated with the development of skin hemorrhages in meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
A: Endotoxins in the blood
Endotoxins in the blood
Q: What is the Gram Stain result for Branhamella catarrhalis?
A: Gram (-) diplococci
Gram (-) diplococci
Q: Erysipelas is:
A: Invasive form of skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
Invasive form of skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
Q: Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus progenies can be implicated as a cause of impetigo
A: True
True
Q: Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an endospore-forming organism?
A: Listeriosis
Listeriosis
Q: The pulmonary form of anthrax is most common.
A: False
False
Q: Bacterial endospores are easily inactivated by antimicrobial chemicals such as disinfectants.
A: False
False
Q: Bacillus cereus is a common environmental organism that is involved in:
A: Food poisoning
Food poisoning
Q: Which species of Clostridium does NOT produce a toxin that acts in the central nervous system (CNS)?
A: difficile
difficile
Q: The surgical removal of dead or damaged tissue is called ______.
A: Debridement
Debridement
Q: What is the usual habitat of Bacillus species?
A: Dust and soil
Dust and soil
Q: Many diseases caused by Clostridium species require a(an) _____ environment for their development.
A: Anaerobic
Anaerobic
Q: Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene as well as food poisoning.
A: True
True
Q: The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the:
A: Spinal neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction
Spinal neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction
Q: The action of botulin is on the:
A: Neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles
Neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles
Q: Which species of Clostridium is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause intestinal tract disease and is associated with prolonged antibiotic therapy?
A: difficile
difficile
Q: Diphtherotoxin:
A: Stops protein synthesis in the host cell
Stops protein synthesis in the host cell
Q: Which of the following organisms can cause an especially dangerous infection in immunosuppressed patients and in pregnant women? This organism has a special affinity for the central nervous system and the placenta.
A: Listeria monocytogenes
Listeria monocytogenes
Q: The disease process of ________ involves an inflammation of the tonsils and pharynx and a characteristic greenish-gray film that develops in the back of the throat due to the solidification of fluids produced in the inflammatory process.
A: Diphtheria
Diphtheria
Q: TB is spread by:
A: Respiratory droplets
Respiratory droplets
Q: Which infectious agent is a strict parasite, meaning that it has not been grown in artificial media or human tissue cultures?
A: Mycobacterium leprae
Mycobacterium leprae
Q: The form of leprosy associated with a moderate to severe disfigurement of the face is:
A: Lepromatous
Lepromatous
Q: Which Genus of bacteria plays a major role in the development of the common skin condition known as acne.
A: Propionibacterium
Propionibacterium
Q: Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae are the only 2 species of Mycobacterium that are involved in human disease.
A: False
False
Q: Which of the following is a key biochemical test that differentiates Pseudomonas species from the Enterobacteriaceae family of bacteria?
A: Oxidase test
Oxidase tes
Q: Which of the following organisms is transmitted primarily by contaminated water droplets containing the Gram (-) rods, not by a person to person transmission?
A: Legionella pneumophila
Legionella pneumophila
Q: Which of the following would NOT be considered a zoonoses?
A: Whooping cough
Whooping cough
Q: A unique characteristic of many isolates of Pseudomonas that is useful in identification is:
A: Fluorescent green pigment
Fluorescent green pigment
Q: Human brucellosis is also known as:
A: Undulant fever
Undulant fever
Q: Which stage in the disease of ‘whooping cough’ is characterized by violent fits of coughing intermittent with deep inhalation to pull air through the congested larynx?
A: Paroxysmal stage
Paroxysmal stage
Q: The _______ immunization protects the patient against whooping cough?
A: DTaP
DTaP
Q: The main biochemical test that differentiates between coliforms and noncoliforms is the:
A: Lactose fermentation test
Lactose fermentation test
Q: The only species of Salmonella that is NOT zoonotic in origin is Salmonella typhi.
A: True
True
Q: ‘Enteric’ is a term indicating that the organism inhabits the ______ tract.
A: Intestinal
Intestinal
Q: Gram (-) rods can be differentiated into serotypes based on the HKO antigen. The ‘K’ antigen is the bacterial capsule.
A: True
True
Q: Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic enteric bacterium?
A: Shigella
Shigella
Q: Which organism is primarily transmitted from humans to humans through fecal contamination? This organism is not transmitted to humans through animal contact?
A: Shigella sonnei
Shigella sonnei
Q: Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?
A: Likelihood of septicemia
Likelihood of septicemia
Q: Shiga toxin is extremely similar to the toxin produced by invasive strains of _____.
A: E. coli
E. coli
Q: The number of cases of typhoid fever has dropped significantly over the past century, and currently this disease is not considered a serious health problem worldwide.
A: False
False
Q: The principle agents in the transmission of Yersinia pests to humans are ticks.
A: False
False
Q: The bubo in bubonic plague is a(an):
A: Enlarged lymph node
Enlarged lymph node
Q: Haemophilus influenzae causes the common disease known as ‘the flu’
A: False
False
Q: Which of the following bacteria is NOT implicated as a cause of bacterial meningitis?
A: Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes