Chapters 17-20 Flashcards Preview

MICROBIOLOGY > Chapters 17-20 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Chapters 17-20 Deck (80)
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1
Q

Q: Biochemical testing of an unknown bacteria would be considered a ___ method of identification.

A: Phenotypic

A

Phenotypic

2
Q

Q: The use of DNA probes to study an organism would be considered a ____ method of identification.

A: Genotypic

A

Genotypic

3
Q

Q: Gram would be considered an important ____ method of microbial identification.

A: Phenotypic

A

Phenotypic

4
Q

Q: For the isolation of the microbes from a patient specimen, a(an) _______ media would be chosen to make the target microbes more prominent by inhibiting microbes that are part of the normal microbiota.

A: Selective

A

Selective

5
Q

Q: If a patient specimen contains such small numbers of the pathogen that it could easily be lost or overgrown, the specimen is often cultured in a(an) ___ media to amplify the pathogen.

A: Enrichment

A

Enrichment

6
Q

Q: The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method detects very small amounts of antibody in the patient to a specific pathogen.

A: False

A

False

7
Q

Q: A probe is a(an):

A: Small fragment of single-strained nucleic acid

A

Small fragment of single-stranded nucleic acid

8
Q

Q: __________ refers to the quantity of antibodies in the serum.

A: Titer

A

Titer

9
Q

Q: In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a _________; in precipitation reactions, it is a _______.

A: Whole cell, soluble molecule

A

Whole cell, soluble molecule

10
Q

Q: Which reaction requires complement?

A: Hemolysis

A

Hemolysis

11
Q

Q: A patient with a ______ titer, to an infectious agent generally has greater protection than a patient with a _______ titer.

A: High, low

A

High, low

12
Q

Q: Direct immunofluorescent tests use a labeled antibody to identify:

A: Unknown microbe

A

Unknown microbe

13
Q

Q: In a complement fixation test, hemolysis of red blood cells is considered a (+) test result.

A: False

A

False

14
Q

Q: Which of the following immunoassay techniques uses antibodies labeled with a radioactive isotope to detect very small amounts of a corresponding antigen?

A: RIA

A

RIA

15
Q

Q: Indirect ELISA techniques use a known antigen in order to detect specific antibodies in the serum sample.

A: True

A

True

16
Q

Q: The capture ELISA technique determines the antibody titer a patient has to a specific antigen.

A: False

A

False

17
Q

Q: When performing ELISA techniques, the wells in a micro titer plate that develop color are considered (-), whereas the wells that remain colorless are considered (+).

A: False

A

False

18
Q

Q: Broth or agar culture media can not be used to cultivate viruses in a laboratory.

A: True

A

True

19
Q

Q: An example of an in vivo serological test is:

A: Tuberculin test

A

Tuberculin test

20
Q

Q: ELISA methods can be used to diagnose viral infections

A: True

A

True

21
Q

Q: What is the only species of Staphylococcus that produces the enzyme, coagulase?

A: aureus

A

aureus

22
Q

Q: Which species of Staphylococcus is the second leading cause of urinary tract infections in sexually active young women?

A: saprophyticus

A

saprophyticus

23
Q

Q: Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin infections as well as food poisoning.

A: True

A

True

24
Q

Q: Lancefield group of Streptococcus species is based on the _______ component of the bacterial cell wall.

A: C carbohydrate

A

C carbohydrate

25
Q

Q: Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus is:

A: Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

26
Q

Q: An analysis of the type of hemolysis produced on a 5% sheep blood agar is a very important factor in Streptococcus identification. Alpha hemolysis _______.

A: Produces green zones indicating partial lysis of red blood cells

A

Produces green zones indicating partial lysis of red blood cells

27
Q

Q: Scarlet fever is a disease caused by pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus aureus that are capable of producing fever/rash producing toxins.

A: False

A

False

28
Q

Q: Group B beta Streptococcal infection can result in a very serious infection in the newborn. Group B beta Streptococcus is Streptococcus equisimilis.

A: False

A

False

29
Q

Q: Enterococcus faecalis can be commonly isolated from the human respiratory tract.

A: False

A

False

30
Q

Q: The most severe Streptococcal diseases are caused by:

A: Group A streptococci

A

Group A streptococci

31
Q

Q: Rheumatic fever damages the ______, whereas glomerulonephritis damages the ______.

A: Heart valves, kidney

A

Heart valves, kidney

32
Q

Q: Viridans streptococci can cause:

A: Subacute endocarditis

A

Subacute endocarditis

33
Q

Q: Otitis media is a(an) _______ infection often caused by ________.

A: Middle ear, Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Middle ear, Streptococcus pneumoniae

34
Q

Q: Some people can carry Streptococcus pneumonia as part of their normal microbiota in the nasopharynx.

A: True

A

Treu

35
Q

Q: The observation of Gram (-) diplococci inside white blood cells is an important factor for the identification of _______ infections.

A: Neisseria

A

Neisseria

36
Q

Q: Which of the following is a leading cause of PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)?

A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

37
Q

Q: What virulence factor is associated with the development of skin hemorrhages in meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A: Endotoxins in the blood

A

Endotoxins in the blood

38
Q

Q: What is the Gram Stain result for Branhamella catarrhalis?

A: Gram (-) diplococci

A

Gram (-) diplococci

39
Q

Q: Erysipelas is:

A: Invasive form of skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Invasive form of skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes

40
Q

Q: Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus progenies can be implicated as a cause of impetigo

A: True

A

True

41
Q

Q: Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by an endospore-forming organism?

A: Listeriosis

A

Listeriosis

42
Q

Q: The pulmonary form of anthrax is most common.

A: False

A

False

43
Q

Q: Bacterial endospores are easily inactivated by antimicrobial chemicals such as disinfectants.

A: False

A

False

44
Q

Q: Bacillus cereus is a common environmental organism that is involved in:

A: Food poisoning

A

Food poisoning

45
Q

Q: Which species of Clostridium does NOT produce a toxin that acts in the central nervous system (CNS)?

A: difficile

A

difficile

46
Q

Q: The surgical removal of dead or damaged tissue is called ______.

A: Debridement

A

Debridement

47
Q

Q: What is the usual habitat of Bacillus species?

A: Dust and soil

A

Dust and soil

48
Q

Q: Many diseases caused by Clostridium species require a(an) _____ environment for their development.

A: Anaerobic

A

Anaerobic

49
Q

Q: Clostridium perfringens can cause gas gangrene as well as food poisoning.

A: True

A

True

50
Q

Q: The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the:

A: Spinal neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction

A

Spinal neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction

51
Q

Q: The action of botulin is on the:

A: Neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles

A

Neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscles

52
Q

Q: Which species of Clostridium is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause intestinal tract disease and is associated with prolonged antibiotic therapy?

A: difficile

A

difficile

53
Q

Q: Diphtherotoxin:

A: Stops protein synthesis in the host cell

A

Stops protein synthesis in the host cell

54
Q

Q: Which of the following organisms can cause an especially dangerous infection in immunosuppressed patients and in pregnant women? This organism has a special affinity for the central nervous system and the placenta.

A: Listeria monocytogenes

A

Listeria monocytogenes

55
Q

Q: The disease process of ________ involves an inflammation of the tonsils and pharynx and a characteristic greenish-gray film that develops in the back of the throat due to the solidification of fluids produced in the inflammatory process.

A: Diphtheria

A

Diphtheria

56
Q

Q: TB is spread by:

A: Respiratory droplets

A

Respiratory droplets

57
Q

Q: Which infectious agent is a strict parasite, meaning that it has not been grown in artificial media or human tissue cultures?

A: Mycobacterium leprae

A

Mycobacterium leprae

58
Q

Q: The form of leprosy associated with a moderate to severe disfigurement of the face is:

A: Lepromatous

A

Lepromatous

59
Q

Q: Which Genus of bacteria plays a major role in the development of the common skin condition known as acne.

A: Propionibacterium

A

Propionibacterium

60
Q

Q: Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae are the only 2 species of Mycobacterium that are involved in human disease.

A: False

A

False

61
Q

Q: Which of the following is a key biochemical test that differentiates Pseudomonas species from the Enterobacteriaceae family of bacteria?

A: Oxidase test

A

Oxidase tes

62
Q

Q: Which of the following organisms is transmitted primarily by contaminated water droplets containing the Gram (-) rods, not by a person to person transmission?

A: Legionella pneumophila

A

Legionella pneumophila

63
Q

Q: Which of the following would NOT be considered a zoonoses?

A: Whooping cough

A

Whooping cough

64
Q

Q: A unique characteristic of many isolates of Pseudomonas that is useful in identification is:

A: Fluorescent green pigment

A

Fluorescent green pigment

65
Q

Q: Human brucellosis is also known as:

A: Undulant fever

A

Undulant fever

66
Q

Q: Which stage in the disease of ‘whooping cough’ is characterized by violent fits of coughing intermittent with deep inhalation to pull air through the congested larynx?

A: Paroxysmal stage

A

Paroxysmal stage

67
Q

Q: The _______ immunization protects the patient against whooping cough?

A: DTaP

A

DTaP

68
Q

Q: The main biochemical test that differentiates between coliforms and noncoliforms is the:

A: Lactose fermentation test

A

Lactose fermentation test

69
Q

Q: The only species of Salmonella that is NOT zoonotic in origin is Salmonella typhi.

A: True

A

True

70
Q

Q: ‘Enteric’ is a term indicating that the organism inhabits the ______ tract.

A: Intestinal

A

Intestinal

71
Q

Q: Gram (-) rods can be differentiated into serotypes based on the HKO antigen. The ‘K’ antigen is the bacterial capsule.

A: True

A

True

72
Q

Q: Which of the following is NOT an opportunistic enteric bacterium?

A: Shigella

A

Shigella

73
Q

Q: Which organism is primarily transmitted from humans to humans through fecal contamination? This organism is not transmitted to humans through animal contact?

A: Shigella sonnei

A

Shigella sonnei

74
Q

Q: Which of the following represents a major difference between Salmonella and Shigella infections?

A: Likelihood of septicemia

A

Likelihood of septicemia

75
Q

Q: Shiga toxin is extremely similar to the toxin produced by invasive strains of _____.

A: E. coli

A

E. coli

76
Q

Q: The number of cases of typhoid fever has dropped significantly over the past century, and currently this disease is not considered a serious health problem worldwide.

A: False

A

False

77
Q

Q: The principle agents in the transmission of Yersinia pests to humans are ticks.

A: False

A

False

78
Q

Q: The bubo in bubonic plague is a(an):

A: Enlarged lymph node

A

Enlarged lymph node

79
Q

Q: Haemophilus influenzae causes the common disease known as ‘the flu’

A: False

A

False

80
Q

Q: Which of the following bacteria is NOT implicated as a cause of bacterial meningitis?

A: Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcus pyogenes