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Flashcards in Clinical Use of antimicrobial Agents Deck (37)
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1
Q

Principles in antimicrobial Chemoprophylaxis

A
  • Prophylaxis should always be directed toward a specififc apthogen
  • No resistance should develop during the period of drug use
  • Prophylactic drug use should be of limited duration
  • Conventional therapeutic doses should be used
  • Prophylaxis should be used only in situations of documented drug efficacy
2
Q

Empiric antimicrobial therapy

A

begun before a specific pathogen has been identified and is based on the presumption of an infection that requires immediate drug treatment

3
Q

Amikacin is used to treat sepsis on an AIDS patient. Monitoring of serum drug level may be advised because this drug

A

Has narrow therapeutic window

4
Q

Combiantion drug for Cryptococcal meningitis

A

Amphoteric B + Flucytosine

5
Q

Combination drugs for coliform infections

A

Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

6
Q

Combiantion therapy for enterococcal infections

A

Rifampin + vancomycin

7
Q

Combination therapy for pseudomonal infections

A

Carbenicllin and gentamicin

8
Q

Drugs that may not require dosage modification in renal problems

A
  • cefoperazone
  • erythromycin
  • clindamycin
  • doxycyline
  • INH
  • ketoconazole
  • nafcillin
9
Q

Patient will be undergoing ELECTIVE colonic surgery. what prophylactic antibiotics is ideal

A

Oral erythromycin and neomycin

10
Q

Drugs not removed by dialysis

A
  • Amphotericin B
  • cefonicid
  • ceforperazone
  • ceftriaxone
  • erythromycin
  • nafcillin
  • tetracycline
  • vancomycin
11
Q

Concentration dependent antibiotics

A

Aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones

12
Q

Time dependent Antibiotics

A

Beta lactams, vancomycin

13
Q

If ampicillin and piperacillin are used in combiantion in the treatment of psedomonas aeruginosa, anatagonism may occur because_________

A

Ampicillin induces beta lactamase production

14
Q

Erythromycin inhibits heaptic metabolism of ___________

A
  • cloazapine
  • lidocaine
  • loratidine
  • phenytoin
  • quinidine
  • sildenafil
  • theophylline
  • warfarin
15
Q

Ketoconazole inhibits the metabolism of

A
  • Caffeine
  • carbamazepine
  • cyclosporine
  • statins
  • methadone
  • oral contraceptives
  • phenytoin sildenafil
  • verapamil
  • zidovudine
16
Q

Rifampin, an inducer of hepatic-drug metabolizing enzymes, decreases the effects of

A
  • Digoxin
  • ketoconazole
  • oral contraceptives
  • propanolol
  • quinidine
  • several antiretroviral drugs
  • warfarin
17
Q

DOC of Enterococcus

A

Ampicillin +/- gentamicin

18
Q

DOC of S. aureus or epidemidis

A

Methicillin-susceptible = Nafcillin

Methicillin-resitant = vancomycin +/- gentamicin +/- rifampin

19
Q

DOC of strep pneumoniae

A

Penicillin-susceptible = Pen G, amoxicillin

Penicillin - resitant = Vancomycin + ceftriaxone or cefotaxime +/- rifampin

20
Q

DOC of N. gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone, cefixime

21
Q

DOC of N. meningitidis

A

Pen G

22
Q

DOC of M. catarrhalis

A

Cefuroxime, TMP-SMZ

23
Q

DOC of C. difficile

A

Metronidazole

24
Q

DOC of C, trachomatis

A

Azihromycin or tetracycline

25
Q

DOC of C. pneumoniae

A

Erythromycin or tetracycline

26
Q

DOC of C. pneumoniae

A

Eythromycin or tetracycline

27
Q

DOC of T. pallidum

A

Pen. G

28
Q

DOC of bacteroides

A

Metronidazole

29
Q

DOC of C. jejuni

A

Macrolide

30
Q

DOC of enterobacter spp

A

Carbapenem, TMP-SMZ

31
Q

DOC of E.coli

A

Cephalosporin (forst and 2nd generation), TMP-SMZ

32
Q

DOC of K. pneumoniae

A

Cephalosporin (1st or 2nd Generation), TMP-SMZ

33
Q

DOC of P. mirabilis

A

Ampicillin

34
Q

DOC of Proteus-indole posite

A

Cephalosporin (1st pr 2nd generation, TMP-SMZ

35
Q

DOC of S. typhi

A

Ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolone

36
Q

DOC of serratia

A

Carbapenem

37
Q

DOC of shigella

A

Fluoroquinolone