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Pathology 2 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q 
Which of the following is the common name for osteogenesis imperfecta? (p. 767)
A.  Fractures syndrome 
B.  Brittle bone disease 
C.  Thinned-bone disease 
D.  Osteopetrosis
A

B. Brittle bone disease

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1
Q 
Osteoblast and osteoclast activity is highly regulated by vitamin D and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 766)
A.  Parathyroid hormone 
B.  Vitamin C 
C.  Whey proteins 
D.  Osteometalerins
A

A. Parathyroid hormone

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2
Q 
Which of the following may manifest with the appearance of blue sclerae? (p. 767)
A.  Osteogenesis imperfecta 
B.  Achondroplasia 
C.  Osteopetrosis 
D.  Osteoporosis
A

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta

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3
Q

Type II osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal in utero due to severe instability of Type I collagen fibers. (p. 767)
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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4
Q 
Thanatophoric dwarfism is a lethal condition associated with an FGFR3 mutations and is present in 1 out of every \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ live births. (p. 767)
A.  5,000 
B.  20,000 
C.  100,000 
D.  400,000
A

B. 20,000

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5
Q

The most common pattern of inheritance for osteopetrosis is autosomal _________, which has mild clinical features. (p. 767)
A. Dominant
B. Recessive

A

A. Dominant

Recessive is lethal/severe

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6
Q 
Which of the following is a group of disorders that produces dense, solid, stone-like bone? (p. 767)
A.  Osteoporosis 
B.  Osteogenesis imperfecta 
C.  Osteodysplasia 
D.  Osteopetrosis
A

D. Osteopetrosis

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7
Q 
Bone mass begins to decline as soon as age \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 768)
A.  25 years 
B.  35 years 
C.  45 years 
D.  55 years
A

A. 25 years

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8
Q 
Which of the following is not commonly associated with the development of osteoporosis? (p. 769)
A.  Corticosteroids 
B.  Alcohol 
C.  Animal fats 
D.  Malabsorption
A

C. Animal fats

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9
Q 
Plain radiographs (x-rays) require a \_\_\_\_\_ loss of bone mass before osteopenia becomes evident. (p. 770)
A.  5% 
B.  25% 
C.  40% 
D.  55%
A

C. 40%

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10
Q 
The axial skeleton or the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is involved in approximately 80% of all cases of Paget disease. (p. 771)
A.  Humerus 
B.  Femur 
C.  Pelvis 
D.  Knee
A

B. Femur

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11
Q 
Which of the following is the “adult counterpart” of rickets? (p. 771)
A.  Paget disease 
B.  Osteomalacia 
C.  Chalkstick syndrome 
D.  Osteomyelitis
A

B. Osteomalacia

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12
Q 
This image best demonstrates a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fracture. (p. 772) 
A.  Osteonecrotic 
B.  Closed 
C.  Comminuted 
D.  Osteoporotic
A

C. Comminuted

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13
Q 
Which of the following manifests with pronounced subperiosteal resorption on the radial aspect of the middle phalange? (p. 772)
A.  Paget disease 
B.  Hyperparathyroidism 
C.  Osteomalacia 
D.  Pyogenic osteomyelitis
A

B. Hyperparathyroidism

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14
Q 
Which of the following is the microbial agent associated with most cases of osteomyelitis in adults? (p. 773)
A.  Escherichia coli 
B.  Salmonella spp. 
C.  Cytomegalovirus 
D.  Staphylococcus aureus
A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

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15
Q 
Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly spreads from the lungs to the bone via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ system to causes tuberculous osteomyelitis. (p. 774)
A.  Respiratory 
B.  Hematogenous 
C.  Lymphatic 
D.  Ventricular
A

B. Hematogenous

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16
Q 
Hematogenous spread of tuberculous osteomyelitis is most likely to cause infection of the long bones or the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 774)
A.  Spleen 
B.  Calvaria 
C.  Vertebral column 
D.  Femur
A

C. Vertebral column

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17
Q

The majority of bone tumors develop ______ in life and are asymptomatic. (p. 775)
A. Early
B. Late

A

A. Early

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18
Q 
A benign, solitary, exophytic tumor on the skull of a 44-year-old male is most likely to be a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 775)
A.  Chondrosarcoma 
B.  Osteosarcoma  
C.  Osteoma 
D.  Osteoblastoma
A

C. Osteoma

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19
Q 
Which of the following bone tumors appears as a round-to-oval mass with a rim of sclerotic bone? (p. 776)
A.  Osteoid osteoma 
B.  Osteosarcoma 
C.  Osteoma 
D.  Ewing sarcoma
A

A. Osteoid osteoma

Also osteoblastoma

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20
Q 
Which of the following commonly involves the bones of the spinal column and may manifest poorly-localized pain? (p. 776)
A.  Osteoma
B.  Osteoid osteoma
C.  Osteosarcoma
D.  Osteoblastoma
A

D. Osteoblastoma

Does NOT respond to aspirin

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21
Q 
Which of the following is a malignant bony neoplasm that is commonly diagnosed near the knee among individuals age 10-20 years? (p. 776)
A.  Chondrosarcoma
B.  Osteoblastoma
C.  Osteosarcoma
D.  Giant cell tumor
A

C. Osteosarcoma

22
Q

Cartilage-forming bone tumors are most frequently malignant neoplasms. (p. 777)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False - benign

23
Q 
The lesion shown in the image to the right is most likely a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  (p. 777) 
A.  Osteoid osteoma 
B.  Osteochondroma 
C.  Giant cell tumor 
D.  Osteosarcoma
A

B. Osteochondroma

24
Q 
When a chondroma arises within the medulla of the bone it is termed a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 778)
A.  Medullary chondroma 
B.  Juxtacortical chondroma 
C.  Enchondroma 
D.  Chondromasaurus
A

C. Enchondroma

25
Q

Which is larger, a fibrous cortical defect or a nonossifying fibroma? (p. 779)
A. Fibrous cortical defect
B. Nonossifying fibroma

A

B. Non-ossifying fibroma

5-6cm vs 0.5cm

26
Q 
Fibrous dysplasia is monostotic in \_\_\_\_\_ of all cases. (p. 779) 
A.  3% 
B.  30% 
C.  70% 
D.  90%
A

C. 70%

27
Q 
Which form of fibrous dysplasia is most likely to be a progressive disease with severe skeletal complications? (p. 780) 
A.  Monostotic 
B.  Giant cell tumor of bone 
C.  Polyostotic 
D.  McCune-Albright syndrome
A

C. Polyostotic

28
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with distortion of the facial bones? (p. 780) 
A.  Osteosarcoma 
B.  Fibrous cortical defect  
C.  Osteochondroma  
D.  Fibrous dysplasia
A

D. Fibrous dysplasia

29
Q 
Which of the following does not have well-established malignant potential? (p. 781) 
A.  Chondrosarcoma 
B.  Ewing sarcoma 
C.  Giant-cell tumor of bone 
D.  Osteosarcoma
A

C. Giant cell tumor of bone

30
Q 
Most giant-cell tumors of bone are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  (p. 781) 
A.  Solitary, osteolytic 
B.  Multiple, osteolytic 
C.  Solitary, osteoblastic  
D.  Multiple, osteoblastic
A

A. Solitary, osteolytic

31
Q 
A small percent of giant-cell tumor of bone cases metastasize to the \_\_\_\_\_. (p. 781) 
A.  Liver 
B.  Spleen 
C.  Heart 
D.  Lungs
A

D. Lungs

32
Q 
Early osteoarthritis is associated with changes to the articular cartilage that include reduced \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and increased water content. (p. 783) 
A.  Eburnation 
B.  Heberden nodes 
C.  Inflammation 
D.  Proteoglycans
A

D. Proteoglycans

33
Q 
Rheumatoid arthritis is up to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ more common among females. (p. 784) 
A.  2 times 
B.  5 times 
C.  20 times 
D.  100 times
A

B. 5 times

34
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to result in synovitis? (p. 784) 
A.  Vertebral compression fracture 
B.  Osteoarthritis 
C.  Rheumatoid arthritis 
D.  Fibrous cortical defect
A

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

35
Q 
Pannus formation  is associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  (p. 785) 
A.  Osteoarthritis  
B.  Rheumatoid arthritis 
C.  Gout 
D.  Chondrosarcoma
A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

36
Q 
Rheumatoid arthritis is most likely to involve which of the following joints? (p. 785) 
A.  Sacroiliac 
B.  Ankles 
C.  Hips 
D.  Temporomandibular joints
A

B. Ankles

37
Q 
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is categorized as arthritis that onsets prior to age \_\_\_\_\_ and lasts for atleast \_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 786) 
A.  12, 4 weeks 
B.  16, 6 weeks 
C.  18, 2 weeks 
D.  12, 6 weeks
A

B. 16, 6 weeks

38
Q 
Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy? (p. 786) 
A.  Rheumatoid arthritis
B.  Osteoarthritis
C.  Psoriatic arthritis
D.  Acute gouty arthritis
A

C. Psoriatic arthritis

39
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are negative for Rheumatoid Factor and HLA-B27. (p. 786)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

40
Q 
Gout is associated with and accumulation of monosodium urate crystals, which develop secondary abnormal \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ metabolism. (p. 786) 
A.  Pyrimidine 
B.  Ethyl alcohol 
C.  Lipid 
D.  Purine
A

D. Purine

41
Q 
Which of the following conditions may result in secondary gout? (p. 787, Table 20-3) 
A.  Anemia 
B.  Osteoarthritis 
C.  Leukemia 
D.  Osteomyelitis
A

C. Leukemia

42
Q

Your 59-year-old patient has recurrent knee pain and you take this x-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis? (p. 789) (bilateral calcification of knee menisci)
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Secondary gout
C. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease
D. Hydroxyapatite deposition disease

A

C. Calcium pyro phosphate deposition disease

43
Q 
Your 35-year-old patient has suppurative arthritis. Which microbe is most likely to be contained within the joint aspiration? (p. 789) 
A.  Borrelia burgdorferi 
B.  Haemophilus influenzae 
C.  Salmonella typhi 
D.  Staphylococcus aureus
A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

44
Q 
Following an untreated Borrelia burgdorferi infection, chronic polyarthritis and encephalitis may develop within \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  (p. 789) 
A.  1 month 
B.  6 months 
C.  1 year 
D.  3 years
A

D. 3 years

45
Q

A ganglion is commonly located near the tendinous sheaths of the wrist and communicates with the joint space. (p. 790)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Ganglions do not communicate with the joint space, cysts do

46
Q 
The most common location for soft tissue tumor development is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 791) 
A.  Thorax 
B.  Upper extremity 
C.  Lower extremity 
D.  Hand
A

C. Lower extremity

47
Q

Liposarcomas are malignant neoplasms of adipocytes that commonly affect adults in their 50s. (p. 792)
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

48
Q

If a soft tissue tumor is located in a ________ structure, it has a more favorable prognosis. (p. 792)
A. Deep
B. Superficial

A

B. Superficial

49
Q 
Metaplastic bone that commonly develops in the proximal muscles of the extremities following localized trauma is most likely to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 793) 
A.  Osteoma 
B.  Osteosarcoma 
C.  Muscular dystrophy 
D.  Myositis ossificans
A

D. Myosotis ossificans

50
Q 
Deformities resulting from fibroblastic proliferations, such as Peyronie disease, are considered \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 793) 
A.  Fasciitis 
B.  Myositis fobrossificans 
C.  Fibromatoses 
D.  Nodular fasciitis
A

C. Fibromatoses

51
Q 
Rhabdomyosarcoma is most commonly diagnosed during \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 794) 
A.  Infancy  
B.  Adolescence 
C.  Young adulthood 
D.  Older adulthood
A

B. Adolescence

52
Q 
A painless abdominal neoplasm with cigar-shaped nuclei is most likely to be a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 795) 
A.  Rhabdomyosarcoma 
B.  Nodular fasciitis 
C.  Leiomyosarcoma 
D.  Leiomyoma
A

C. Leiomyosarcoma

53
Q 
Synovial sarcomas commonly involve an (X;18) translocation and tend to develop \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 795) 
A.  Near the knee 
B.  In the retroperitoneal space 
C.  Near the inferior vena cava 
D.  Within the proximal thigh
A

A. Near the knee

Pathology 2 (4 decks)

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