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Cell Physiology > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F the codon UGA, in some cases may act as a stop codon in mRNA

A

True

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2
Q

T/F anticodon CGI in tRNA may pair with GCU codon of an mRNA molecule

A

True

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3
Q

T/F mRNA is translated in the 3’ to 5’ direction

A

False

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4
Q

T/F Binding of RNA polymerase II to DNA requires the presence of translation factor

A

False

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5
Q

T/F During translation, the mRNA codon AUG is recognized by the amino acid methionine attached to the tRNA containing UAC anticodon

A

True

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6
Q

5’ capping, addition of 3’ poly A tail, and removal of introns to generate a final mRNA from the primary RNA transcript that serves as its precursor

A

modification and processing

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7
Q

portion of a gene containing TATA box, CAAT box, GC box and Enhancer base sequences

A

Promoter

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8
Q

it assembles at editsomes and corrects the mRNA transcript if it is different from the corresponding gene

A

guide RNA

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9
Q

A portion of DNA, the first codon of which is TAC at the 3’ end, and the last codon of which could be ATC at its 5’end

A

Gene

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10
Q

A core promoter, proximal control elements and a transcription unit in DNA

A

activation

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11
Q

The process of copying the DNA to make two identical DNA’s

A

replication

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12
Q

The transmission of genetic cod from a gene to an mRNA

A

transcription

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13
Q

The process of decoding the genetic message in mRNA

A

translation

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14
Q

the linear sequence of bases in the DNA molecule that determines the linear sequence in an mRNA, which determines the amino acid sequence in a protein

A

genetic code

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15
Q

Binding of tRNA and some other components to the ribosomes, transpeptidation and translocation of the empty tRNA

A

elongation

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16
Q

If a GAA codon from glutamine mutated to GUA, which now codes for valine, this will be considered ____ type of point mutation

A

missense

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17
Q

If a UUA codon for leucine mutated to UAA, which now becomes a stop codon, this will be considered ___ type of point mutation

A

nonsense

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18
Q

T/F cancer cells prevent the shortening of their chromosomal telomeres by self-destructing their telomerase enzyme, which stabilizes the telomere length

A

False

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19
Q

T/F Elongation of protein synthesis occurs at the A site of the ribosome

A

True

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20
Q

Decodes the message during translation

A

tRNA

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21
Q

codes for protein

A

mRNA

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22
Q

components of ribosome and acts as ribozyme

A

rRNA

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23
Q

synthesizes leading and lagging sttrands

A

DNA polymerase III

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24
Q

joins together adjacent Okazaki pieces after the removal of RNA protein

A

DNA ligase

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25
Q

removes RNA primers and fills the gap

A

DNA polymerase I

26
Q

promotes separation of the 2 DNA strands by inducing negative supercoiling

A

topoisomerase (gyrase)

27
Q

What can occur in the development of cancer?

A

angiogenesis occurs, cells are immortal, and cell metastasize (no benign cell growth)

28
Q

T/F oncogenesis caused by a retrovirus is by radiation, loss of tumor-suppressing gene, or a carcinogen activates the latent provirus gene which causes the transformation of a normal cell into a cancer cell

A

True

29
Q

in regulation of protein synthesis, if the enzyme is not synthesized it is called___ whereas if the enzyme is synthesized, but its activity suppressed it is called___

A

enzyme repression, end-product inhibition

30
Q

T/F Xeroderma pigmentosum have reverse transcriptase activity

A

False (retroviruse)
-are sensitive to sunlight, their skin cells are unable to repair thymine dimers, develop freckling, and may develop melanoma

31
Q

CTC codon in hemoglobin gene changed to CAC

A

sickle cell anemia

32
Q

an abnormal growth of new tissue forming a lump that stays within the original tissue

A

neoplasm

33
Q

the development of blood supply by the cancerous cells

A

angiogenesis

34
Q

Several cell cycle checkpoints regulate progression through the cell cycle. These include ____ checkpoint

A

G1, G2, S phase

35
Q

T/F formation of chiasma occurs in mitosis

A

false

-disappearance of the nuclear membrane and nucleoli, formation of spindle apparatus, and separation of sister chromatids

36
Q

the nucleus has the following functions

A

cell’s command center, contains genes, and is thus involved in heredity

37
Q

Which enzyme is NOT involved in DNA repair process

A

DNA polymerase III

38
Q

Assume that you have an mRNA, which is 27-base long (including the initiator codon AUG and the sop codon UAA). During or after protein synthesis, the 5’ end methionine was cleaved off. In addition, one codon was removed due to mutation, but that did not affect protein synthesis, and it went on as usual. The completed polypeptide chain would have how many amino acid in it?

A

6

39
Q

growth due to excess multiplication of cells

A

neoplasm

40
Q

noncancerous growth

A

benign tumor

41
Q

cancer arising form connective tissue

A

sarcoma

42
Q

proliferation of leukocytes

A

leukemia

43
Q

tumor of epithelial cells

A

carcinoma

44
Q

If mutation occurs in the DNA and DNA repair is unsuccessful for some reason, P53 prevent proliferation of the genetically damaged cell by triggering cell suicide, a process commonly known as

A

apoptosis

45
Q

Transcription in eukaryotic cells is directly involved with what flow of genetic information

A

DNA to RNA

46
Q

Processing the primary mRNA transcript is necessary because:

A

introns have to be cut out since they don’t make genetic sense

47
Q

Which one is not part of the “promoter” in DNA

A

operator

-TATA sequence, enhancer, CAAT sequence

48
Q

as the ribosome moves along each mRNA codon, additional amino acids are transferred into place by ___-RNA_____ bonds from bw adjacent AA with the help of an enzyme provided by the

A

tRNA; Peptide; ribosome

49
Q

UV radiation to DNA causes mutation by replacing a purine by pyrimidine. This is known as..

A

Transversion

50
Q

High fat consumption is the dietary factor associated with high risk of the development of all but which type of cancer

A

colon cancer

51
Q

The genetic code is degenerate. This means that

A

a. the codons AUG, and sometimes GUG act as a start codons
B. most codons differ only in their third base in the nucleotide
C. The genetic code is universal
D. Several codons specify the same amino acid
E. The genetic cold degenerates after each replication

52
Q

An enhancer in the promoter is crucial for the following functions except:

A

enhances transcription of the gene upstream

  • is the “entry point” of DNA for RNA polymerase II enzyme
  • May alter DNA’s topography
  • May mediate selective gene expression
53
Q

Introns contain the information for making a polypeptide

A

False

54
Q

In telophase I of meiosis, each chromosome in each cell has only one DNA

A

false

55
Q

Alfotoxin B1 is potent antioxidant which prevents the development of cancer

A

False

56
Q

Most protein synthesis occurs in the

A

cytoplasm

57
Q

The difference bw DNA and RNA are in

A
  • number of strands in a molecule
  • base composition
  • sugar composition
  • Rate of synthesis and degradation of the average molecule
58
Q

The following are true of messenger RNA exept

A

DNA codons. GCA becomes mRNA condon CGT

  • When DNA unwinds in the synthesis of mRNA, only one of the two DNA chains is used to form a single mirror-image chain of mRNA
  • the formation of mRNA does not involve making a mirror -image of the entire DNA molecule
  • DNA codon CGT becomes mRNA codon GCA
59
Q

What is the name of the bond which is formed bw two amino acids during protein synthesis?

A

peptide bond

60
Q

An operon is

A

a group of structural genes

61
Q

Activation of the repressor substance will

A

A stop biological synthesis

62
Q

When E.coli is grown in a medium to which histidine is added all the enzymes required for the synthesis of histidine are simultaneously inhibited. What is the process called?

A

enzyme repression

Cell Physiology (1 decks)

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