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Flashcards in Exam II Deck (115)
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1
Q

What is the function of the skeletal system?

A

Structure, support, protection, locomotion, it is a site for blood formation, storehouse for inorganic minerals (Ca!), and it is an indicator of sex, height, weight, racial background, and medical history

2
Q

What are the types of bones when classified by shape?

A

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, pneumatic bones, and sesamoid bones

3
Q

What are long bones?

A

They are bones that are longer than wide, cylindrical with a medullary cavity, and are the main components of limbs

4
Q

What are short bones?

A

They are roughly cubical (carpals and tarsals) and are found where mobility is needed, but space is limited

5
Q

What are flat bones?

A

Relatively thin bones that provide a broad surface for muscle attachment and/ or protection of underlying organs

6
Q

What are irregular bones?

A

They are bones with an irregular shape and numerous projections (vertebrae)

7
Q

What are pneumatic bones?

A

They contain sizable air spaces; only found in some bones of the skull. They help to reduce the weight of the skull

8
Q

What are sesamoid bones?

A

They are small round bones embedded within a tendon. They alter the angle of muscle attachment to increase leverage

9
Q

What are accessory bones?

A

Abnormal bone growth from an existing normal bone (bone spurs)

10
Q

What are heterotopic bones?

A

Abnormal bone, formed entirely within soft tissue (kidney and gall stones)

11
Q

What composes the axial skeleton?

A

Bones of the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage

12
Q

What composes the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones of the limbs and their attachment onto the axial skeleton

13
Q

What composes the cranial skeleton?

A

Bones of the skull

14
Q

What composes the post-cranial skeleton?

A

Bones of the vertebral column, hyoid, rib cage, limbs, pectoral girdle, and pelvic girdle

15
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

The bone shaft and the primary center for ossification

16
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

Secondary site of ossification and is generally associated with the area of articulation with another bone

17
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate?

A

It is a disk of hyaline cartilage that separates the diaphysis and epiphysis

18
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

A layer of dense irregular connective tissue covering outer bone surface.

19
Q

What anchors the periosteum to the outer surface of the bone?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

20
Q

What are the two layers of periosteum?

A

Outer fibrous layer, which contains type I collagen and fibroblasts, blood vessels, and nerve fibers.
Inner cellular layer, which contains bone cells (osteoprogenitor and osteoblasts)

21
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

A very thin connective tissue layer covering inner bone surfaces
Primarily consists of a single layer of osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts

22
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

Cavity at the center of a long bone

23
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

A covering of articular surfaces; composed of hyaline cartilage

24
Q

What two components is bone tissue made of?

A

Fibers and ground substance

25
Q

What fibers primarily compose bone tissue?

A

Type I collagen, but does have some type V

26
Q

What does collagen do for the bone?

A

It provides the strength to resist tensile forces

27
Q

What two components is the ground substance of bones made of?

A

An organic component (proteoglycans: chondroitin sulfate, keretan sulfate, and hyaluronic acid and glycoproteins: osteonectin and osteocalcin)
An inorganic component (hydorxyapatite:calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate)

28
Q

What does hydroxyapatite do for the bone?

A

Ir provides the strength to resist compressive forces

29
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells

A

They are cells located in the cellular layer of the periosteum and in the endosteum. They give rise to osteoblasts

30
Q

What are ostseoblast?

A

They give rise to new bone tissue and are located within the central and perforating canals within the periosteum and endosteum

31
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Former osteoblasts that maintain surrounding bone tissue and regulate mineral content. They are located in the lacunae

32
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Bone destroying cells. They are large and multinucleated, originating from the fusion of several monocytes

33
Q

What are the two types of bone tissue?

A

Primary (woven) and Secondary (mature/lamellar) bone

34
Q

What is primary (woven) bone tissue?

A

It develops first during fetal development and collagen fibers are randomly arranged. Mineral content is lower and it contains more osteocytes than mature bone tissue

35
Q

What is secondary (mature/lamellar) bone tissue?

A

Compact bone, spongy bone, and subchondral bone

36
Q

What are osteons?

A

They are a system within bone tissue that is composed of lamellae, central canals, lacunae, canaliculi, and perforating canals

37
Q

What is lamellae?

A

Concentric layers of bony connective tissue; within each layer, the collagen fibers are orientated at right angles to the fibers in adjacent layers

38
Q

What are central canals?

A

Contains vascular structures and nerves

39
Q

What are lacunae?

A

Holes found between lamellae

40
Q

What are canaliculi?

A

Passageways connecting lacunae to each other and to the central canal

41
Q

What are perforating canals?

A

Canals connecting central canals to each other

42
Q

What is circumferential lamellae? What types are there?

A

Multiple layers of mineralized matrix. There is external circumferential lamella and inner circumferential lamella

43
Q

What is external circumferential lamella?

A

It is lamella that is located immedicately deep to the periosteum

44
Q

What is internal circumferential lamella?

A

It is lamella that is located at the perimeter of the medullary cavity

45
Q

What is interstitial lamella?

A

Layers of mineralized matrix, lying between and around osteons. The remains of partially destroyed osteons

46
Q

What is spongy bone?

A

It is a lattice/network of bony bars and struts (trabeculae) each consisting of a few concentric layers of bony connective tissue. It is found in the interior of a bone

47
Q

What is subchondral bone?

A

A very thin layer of modified compact bone, lacking extensive vascular channels. It is found underlying articular cartilage

48
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

A bone remodels its shape according to the way force is transmitted through it

49
Q

What types of developmental bone is there?

A

Intramembranous (bones at the top of the skull and clavicle) and endochondrous (bones of the skull base and all postcranial bones, including parts of the clavicle

50
Q

What is the process of endochondral bone formation?

A

Cartilaginous model forms, cartilage disintegrates and excavates the interior of the bone, blood vessels invade the cavity bringing mesenchymal cells, which differentiate into osteoblasts and start forming spongy bone. Periosteum then forms with the osteoblasts beneath forming compact bone. Further growth occurs in two directions: between the diaphysis and epiphysis (interstitial growth) and an increase in overall size (appositional growth)

51
Q

What is interstital growth?

A

It is characterized by an epiphysial plate, which is the site of active growth between the epiphysis and diaphysis. Growth stops when the plate ossifies

52
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

It is an increase in overall size of the bone. New bone is deposited by osteoblasts just below the periosteum. Osteoclasts at the inner bone surface enlarge the medullary cavity and remodel compact bone/spongy bone interface

53
Q

What is the process of intramembranous bone formation?

A

Membranes form around blood vessels, undifferentiated connective tissue cells around blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts that form spongy bone. The periosteum forms with osteoblasts forming compact bone beneath. The remaining growth takes place via a mechanism similar to appositional growth of endochondral bone

54
Q

Where does bone deposition take place?

A

On the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate

55
Q

This vitamin is necessary for proper collagen formation and a deficiency leads to scurvy.

A

Vitamin C

56
Q

This vitamin is synthesized within the skin or ingested as part of the diet. It facilitates proper bone mineralization by increasing absorption of calcium within the small intestine and reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys.

A

Vitamin D

57
Q

A deficiency in vitamin D leads to what in children and what in adults?

A

Rickets (bones getting soft; bowing) in children and osteomalacia (chronic fatigue and joint pain) in adults

58
Q

This hormone increases the amount of calcium in the blood by stimulating osteoclast activity. Also decreases the amount of phosphate in the blood

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

59
Q

How does PTH increase the amount of calcium in the blood?

A

It binds to receptors on the osteoblasts, which release osteoprotegerin ligand (OPGL), which activates receptors on preosteoclasts, which causes them to mature and then start breaking down bone tissue

60
Q

What does an excess in PTH lead to?

A

Bone thinning

61
Q

An excess in this hormone leads to gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults.

A

Pituitary growth hormone (GH)

62
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

It is an incomplete fracture, and the break occurs on the convex surface of the bend in the bone. Typically occurs in children

63
Q

What is a compression fracture?

A

Some kind of compressive force acting on the bone to the extent of fracture. Can occur in long bones

64
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

It is a complete fracture and fragments the bone

65
Q

What is the process of healing a fracture?

A

Fracture hematoma is formed from the ruptured blood vessels, soft callus forms (mixture of spongy bones and fibrocartilage), hard callus forms by mineralization of the soft callus, and remodeling of the hard callus to mature bone

66
Q

What is osteitis?

A

An inflammation of bone tissue caused by injury or infection

67
Q

What is periosteitis?

A

Inflammation of periosteum caused by trauma or infection

68
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Inflammation of bone interior caused by bacteria

69
Q

What is tuberculosis in terms of bone tissue?

A

It is a bacterial infection than can spread to the spongy bone (particulary of the vertebral bodies), resulting in bone and joint destruction

70
Q

During aging there is an ____ in osteoclast activity and ____ decrease in osteoblast activity.

A

Increase, Decrease

71
Q

Women lose bone mass ____ and _____ than men.

A

Sooner and faster

72
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

It is a reduction in bone mass and is most prevalent in middle-aged and elderly women

73
Q

What type of joint is immovable?

A

Synarthosis

74
Q

What type of joint is slightly moveable?

A

Amphiarthrosis

75
Q

What type of joint is freely moveable?

A

Diarthrosis

76
Q

What types of fibrous joints are there?

A

Syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis

77
Q

What is a syndesmosis?

A

Bones joined by a fibrous band which forms an interosseous ligament. They are amphiarthrosis

78
Q

What is a suture?

A

Bones joined by a very short fibrous band, which forms a sutural ligament. They are synarthrosis

79
Q

What is a gomphosis?

A

They are the articulations between tooth roots and bony socket. Consists of a very short fibrous band which forms a periodontal ligament and is classified as synarthrosis

80
Q

What types of cartilaginous joints are there?

A

Synchondrosis and symphsis

81
Q

What is a synchondrosis?

A

Bones that are united by a plate of hyaline cartilage. They are synarthrosis

82
Q

What is a symphysis?

A

Articular surfaces are covered by a thin layer of hyaline cartilage, which in turn is attached to a pad of fibrocartilage. They are amphiarthrosis

83
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

It is a space between articulating bones that is filled with synovial fluid. It is classified as a diarthrosis

84
Q

What are the two components of a synovial joint?

A

Articular cartilage and a joint capsule surrounding the joint

85
Q

What are the components of the joint cavity of a synovial joint?

A

A fibrous layer (capsular ligament) and a synovial membrane (covers all non-cartilaginous surfaces)

86
Q

What are the two layers of the synovial membrane?

A

A deep fibrous layer composed of collagen fibers and fibroblasts and a superficial cellular layer composed of synoviocytes, blood vessels, and collagen fibers

87
Q

What are the two types of synoviocytes?

A

Macrophage-like and fibroblast like cells

88
Q

What is the function of the macrophage-like synoviocytes?

A

They are in direct contact with the synovial fluid and phagocytize any debris that may be floating the fluid

89
Q

What is the function of the fibroblast-like synoviocytes?

A

They are farther away from the synovial fluid and produce hyaluronic acid which is a component of the fluid

90
Q

What are the two components of synovial fluid?

A

Hyaluronic acid and blood plasma

91
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

It acts as a lubricant, cushion, and nourishes articular cartilage

92
Q

What is the articular disk/meniscus?

A

It is fibrocartilage pad located between articular surfaces and acts as a shock absorber, limiter of motion within the joint, and it stabilizes the joint

93
Q

What is a bursa?

A

It is a closed synovial fluid-filled sac

94
Q

What is a ball and socket joint (spheroidal)?

A

The globular surface of one bone articulates with a cup-shaped surface of another bone. It is multiaxial

95
Q

What is a condyloid (ellipsoidal) joint?

A

The convex oval shaped surface of one bone articulates with a concave elliptical surface of another bone. It is biaxial

96
Q

What is a saddle (sellar) joint?

A

The articulating surfaces have both concave and convex regions; surface of one bone fits the complementary surface of another. It is biaxial

97
Q

What is a gliding (arthrodial) joint?

A

Articulating surfaces are nearly flat. It is nonaxial

98
Q

What is a hinge (ginglymoidal) joint?

A

The convex cylindrical surface of one bone articulates with concave cylindrical surface of another. It is uniaxial

99
Q

What is a pivot (trochoidal) joint?

A

The cylindrical pin of one bone rotates within a ring formed of bone and ligament. It is uniaxial

100
Q

What is angular movement?

A

Movements within a sagittal or coronal plane of the body

101
Q

What are some examples of angular movements?

A

Sagittal plane: Flexion, extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion (at the talo-crunal/ankle joint)

Coronal Plane: Abduction, and adduction

102
Q

What is circular movement?

A

Rotation: movement of a body part around its own long axis

Circumduction: Movement in which the distal end of the segment moves in a circle while the proximal end remains fixed

103
Q

What are some examples of circular movement?

A

Supination and pronation at the proximal radioulnar joint

104
Q

What is inversion and eversion?

A

Movements of the sole of the foot medially or laterally, respectively

105
Q

What is elevation and depression?

A

Movement of a body part upwards or downwards, respectively

106
Q

What is protraction and retraction?

A

Movement of a body part forward or backward, respectively, parallel to the horizontal surface

107
Q

Give an example of these joints: ball and socket, condyloid, saddle, gliding, hinge, and pivot.

A
Ball and socket: shoulder and hip joints
Condyloid: MP joint of the hand
Saddle: the joint of the CP joint of digit 1
Gliding: the carpals of the hand
Hinge: elbow joint
Pivot: atlas and axis
108
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

A displacement of a bone within a joint; partial (subluxation) or total (luxation)

109
Q

What is a sprain and how is it difficult from a strain?

A

A sprain is an overstretching or tearing of ligamentous tissue whereas as a strain is an overstretching of muscle

110
Q

What is bursitis?

A

An inflammation of a bursa

111
Q

An autoimmune disease involving synovial joints. It is characterized by inflammation of the synovial membrane, resulting in the production of abnormal secetions

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

112
Q

What are the two types of secretions in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Granular secretions: destruction of the articular cartilage

Fibrous secretions: they fill up the joint cavity to the point that the joint can ossify and fuse together

113
Q

It is a progressive degeneration of the synovial joints through wear and tear.

A

Osteoarthritis

114
Q

What is osteoarthritis typically associated with?

A

The development of accessory bone at the periphery of joint surfaces and degradation of articular cartilage

115
Q

What types of joints are typically affected by osteoarthritis?

A

High use joints, traumatized joints, and large weight bearing joints