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Pathology > Exam2 > Flashcards

Exam2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is considered a passive process: Hyperemia or Congestion?

A

Congestion

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2
Q

What is the most common result of congestive heart failure?

A

Chronic Passive Liver Congestion

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3
Q

What is another term for fibrosis of the liver?

A

Cirrhosis

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4
Q

What two pressures maintain fluid balance?

A

Osmotic pulling water in and Hydrostatic pushing water out.

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5
Q

Where in the circulatory system does hydrostatic pressure occur? Osmotic pressure?

A

Hydrostatic in arterials before capillary bed, Osmotic in venules after a capillary bed.

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6
Q

What is peau d’orange associated with?

A

A lymphatic obstruction leading to edema and dimpling around sweat glands (orange peel appearance)

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7
Q

Where is edema likely to collect if standing? Or laying?

A

Standing=legs

Laying=sacrum

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8
Q

Transudate is associated with which type of edema?

A

Pitting

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9
Q

Is exudate protein-rich or protein-poor edema?

A

Protein-rich

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10
Q

What three pigment proteins are associated with ecchymosis?

A

Hemoglobin, bilirubin, hemosiderin

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11
Q

T/F: Eccymosis usually occurs with trauma?

A

False usually non-traumatic

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12
Q

What is a thrombosis?

A

clot formation within a vessel

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13
Q

Three factors of Virchow’s Triangle?

A

Endothelial injury, Hypercoagulability, Abnormal blood flow

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14
Q

Mutations in these two factors can lead to hypercoagulability?

A

Factor V (five) and Prothrombin

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15
Q

How does a thrombosis grow in the arteries? Veins?

A

Arteries: grows against the flow
Veins: grow in direction of flow
(think that they both want to head back to heart)

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16
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

Highly traumatic, crushing injury..almost always lethal

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17
Q

What are the two outcomes of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?

A
  1. Tiny clots form everywhere and die

2. Use up all clotting ability and bleed to death

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18
Q

T/F: When a blood clot detaches and travels it is called a thromboembolism?

A

True

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of infarction?

A

An arterial emboli

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20
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Shock resulting from a pump failure, most likely caused by MI

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21
Q

Burn victims have to cautious of which type of shock: cardiogenic, septal, hypovolemic, or neurogenic?

A

Hypovolemic b/c loss of blood/plasma

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22
Q

What is septal shock?

A

An infection leading to a systemic immune rxn-> vasodilation

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23
Q

T/F: Anaphylactic shock is caused by severe vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction?

A

False, severe vasoDILATION and bronchoconstriction

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24
Q

What are the three stages of shock?

A

Nonprogressive, Progressive, Irreversible

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25
Q

What are the three causes of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Autoimmunity, Microbial, Environmental

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26
Q

T/F: The hygiene hypothesis states that a lack of exposure in a childs youth can lead to an increase in allergies later in life.

A

True

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27
Q

Type 1 Hypersensitivity results from what?

A

Allergy rxn from harmless environmental antigen

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28
Q

Which Ab(s) is/are associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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29
Q

T/F: Type 2 Hypersensitivity involves mast cell degranulation releasing histamine?

A

False: Mast cells involved in Type 1

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30
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is considered “cytotoxic”?

A

Type 2

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31
Q

Which Ab(s) is/are associated with Type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

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32
Q

Opsonization is associated with which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 2

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33
Q

T/F: Type 3 Hypersensitivity can be associated with “immune complex” and IgG formation.

A

True

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34
Q

Where is the immune complex from Type 3 Hypersensitivity most likely to get stuck?

A

Vessel Walls

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35
Q

What mediated Type 4 Hypersensitivity?

A

T-Cells and NO ANTIBODIES

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36
Q

What are the two subsets of Type 4 Hypersensitivity?

A

Cytokine-Mediated with T-helper cells (CD4+)

Direct Cytotoxicity with T-killer cells (CD8+)

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37
Q

Granuloma formation is associated with which type of Hypersensitivity?

A

Type 4: Direct Cytotoxicity

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38
Q

What population is most likely to have an autoimmune disorder?

A

Females of childbearing age

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39
Q

What is the full name of ‘lupus’?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

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40
Q

T/F: A malar rash is associated with Sjogren Syndrome.

A

False: malar rash=SLE (lupus)

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41
Q

What population is most likely to have Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A

African American females of childbearing age

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42
Q

What is Jaccoud’s Arthropathy?

A

Ligaments around joints are damaged, joint subluxations reduced upon pressure. (Associated with SLE)

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43
Q

What symptoms are highly indicative of Sjorgen Syndrome?

A

Dry mouth, dry eyes, and salivary gland enlargement

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44
Q

What is the cause of Sjorgen Syndrome?

A

Exocrine gland destruction and enlargement due to Type 4 (T-helper) hypersensitivity

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45
Q

T/F: The two glands most likely affected by Sjorgen Syndrome are the salivary and ciliary glands.

A

False: Salivary and Lacrimal Glands affected

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46
Q

What population is most likely affected by Sjorgen Syndrome?

A

Middle Aged (35-45 y.o) Females

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47
Q

What cancer has a 40x increased risk with Sjorgen Syndrome patients?

A

B Cell Lymphoma

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48
Q

T/F: Scleroderma is another term for systemic sclerosis

A

True

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49
Q

What is systemic sclerosis?

A

Extensive fibrosis in multiple tissues and destroyed vasculature (particularly arteries)?

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50
Q

What is Raynaud phenomenon?

A

Extreme discoloration of the hands/peripheral tissue associated with systemic sclerosis

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51
Q

CREST Syndrome associated with Limited Systemic Sclerosis

A 
C-Calcinosis
R-Raynaud phenomenon
E- Esophageal dysmotility
S- Sclerodactyly
T-Telangiectasia (spider veins)
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52
Q

What is sclerodactyly?

A

Hard, eroded skin associated with scleroderma

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53
Q

Who is most likely to have scleroderma?

A

40-60 y.o. females

54
Q

What is X-Linked Agammaglobulinemia?

A

Failure of B cell maturation leading to lack of Ab in the blood

55
Q

When is the typical onset for X-linked Agammaglobulinemia?

A

6 month old males

56
Q

What’s another name for X Linked Agammaglobulinemia?

A

Bruton Disease

57
Q

T/F: Common variable immunodeficiency is sex-linked?

A

False occurs in both sexes

58
Q

What is the most common of the primary immune deficiency disorders?

A

Isolated IgA deficiency

59
Q

What is Isolated IgA Deficiency?

A

IgA deficiency particularly of the mucosa resulting in increased # infections otherwise asymptomatic

60
Q

What is Hyper-IgM Syndrome?

A

Body makes too much IgM, too little IgA, IgG, IgE –> infections from pyogenic bacteria

61
Q

What is the immune deficiency disorder that has no B or T Cells produced?

A

Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID) “bubble boy”

62
Q

What are the two types of secondary or acquired immune deficiency disorders?

A

Suppression of Marrow and Lymphocyte Dysfunction

63
Q

What is the common cause of lymphocyte dysfunction?

A

Acquired Immundodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

64
Q

Four fluids HIV can be transmitted in?

A

Blood, semen, breast milk, vaginal fluid

65
Q

What cells are destroyed in an HIV infections?

A

CD4+ (T helper) and Macrophages

66
Q

What is the most common cause of AIDS in the world?

A

Male-Female unprotected sex

67
Q

What is the most common cause of AIDS in the US?

A

Male-Male unprotected sex

68
Q

What two tests are used for diagnosis of HIV?

A

Western Blot and ELISA test

69
Q

T/F: Acute, Chronic, and Crisis are the three stages of AIDS?

A

True

70
Q

T/F: All cases of AIDS have the Acute phase?

A

False: initial infections may not present in all cases

71
Q

What stage of AIDS is asymptomatic?

A

Chronic

72
Q

What is the organism responsible for fungal infection of the lungs characteristic in AIDS patients?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii (NBCE Q)

73
Q

80% of all AIDS patients die as a result of?

A

Opportunistic infections

74
Q

What are the two oncogenic viruses?

A

EBV and HPV

75
Q

The use of congo red dye and apple-green birefringence is characteristic of what disease?

A

Amyloidosis

76
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

Failed phagocytosis leading to the accumulation of fibrillar (nonbranching) proteins

77
Q

What three proteins are associated with amyloidosis?

A

Amyloid Light (AL), Amyloid Associated (AA), Beta-Amyloid (AB)

78
Q

What are the three types of amyloidosis?

A

Systemic, Localized, Hereditary

79
Q

Primary Systemic Amyloidosis involves which proteins? Secondary Systemic?

A

Primary=AL

Secondary=AA

80
Q

T/F: Hereditary Amyloidosis involves AL proteins?

A

False: Hereditary amyloidosis=AA proteins

81
Q

Senile Cardiac Amyloidosis is a category of which disease?

A

Systemic Amyloidosis associated with aging

82
Q

Which common disease is due to buildup of AB proteins in the brain?

A

Alzheimer Dz

83
Q

T/F: Cancer is the number one cause of death in the US

A

False: Cancer is 2nd, Heart Disease is 1st

84
Q

What are the top three cancers by incidence?

A

Prostate/Breast (sex respective), Lung and Bronchus, Colon and Rectum

85
Q

Which cancer has the most deaths?

A

Lung and Bronchus

86
Q

T/F: All neoplastic cells are clonal

A

True (1 altered cell that affects all copies made in future)

87
Q

What’s the diff between parenchyma and stroma?

A

Parenchyma are the altered cells (cancerous cells) and stroma is what supports these altered cells (vessels supplying cancerous cells)

88
Q

What is an adenoma?

A

Benign neoplasm formed by OR producing glandular tissue

89
Q

What is a papilloma?

A

Benign epithelial neoplasm (finger-like projection)

90
Q

T/F: Stroma determines the aggressiveness of a cancer?

A

False: Stroma is needed but it’s the parenchyma that determines aggressiveness

91
Q

What are the tumor types derived from: sarcoma? Carcinoma? Teratoma?

A

Sarcoma-mesoderm (CT)
Carcinoma-ectoderm and endoderm (epithelia)
Teratoma-multiple germ layers

92
Q

What is the most common benign tumor of the female breast called?

A

fibroadenoma

93
Q

What are the three steps of carcinoma progression?

A
  1. Dysplasia (irregular but non cancerous)
  2. Carcinoma in situ (cancerous but hasn’t penetrated basement membrane to metastasize yet)
  3. Invasive Carcinoma (cancer and possible mets due to penetrated basement membrane)
94
Q

Four ways of distinguishing benign from malignant?

A

Differentiation and anaplasia, rate of growth, local invasion, metastasis

95
Q

What is the most reliable marker for being malignant?

A

Metastasis

96
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Loss of differentiation-> decr function

97
Q

Which is more likely to be encapsulated: benign or malignant?

A

Benign

98
Q

What are the three ways tumors metastasize?

A
  1. Spread w/in body cavities
  2. Lymphatic Spread
  3. Hematogenous Spread
99
Q

T/F: Carcinomas more likely to spread via lymph

A

True

100
Q

What is the sentinel lymph node?

A

First node cancer has spread to

101
Q

Sarcomas prefer which means of dissemination?

A

Hematogenous Spread

102
Q

What is the ultimate cause of cancer?

A

Genetic alterations

103
Q

T/F: ROS exposure and decreased immune function are two ways mutations accumulate

A

True

104
Q

What are the 3 categories of hereditary cancer?

A

1-Autosomal Dominant
2-Autosomal Recessive
3-Familial

105
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosa is associated with which type of hereditary cancer?

A

Autosomal Recessive

106
Q

What are pre-cancer lesions?

A

Lesions that incr cancer risk but MC doesn’t develop into cancer

107
Q

T/F: Acquired and Environmental are the two types of carcinogenesis

A

False: Acquired (environmental) and Inherited (genetic)

108
Q

What is an oncogene?

A

An over-expressed proto-oncogene resulting in a “gain of function”

109
Q

Balanced translocations on a chromosome can result in ?

A

Over expression of proto-oncogenes

110
Q

Deletions from a chromosome usually result in?

A

Deactivation of Tumor Suppressor Genes

111
Q

T/F: Micro RNA’s usually amplify gene expression

A

False: MicroRNA’s inhibit gene expression

112
Q

What are the two methods of silencing genes?

A 
DNA Methylation (on/off switch)
Histone modification (volume adjustor)
113
Q

T/F: A ‘stepwise accumulation’ of genetic alterations will cause cancer.

A

True

114
Q

What are the six hallmarks of cancer?

A
  1. Evade apoptosis
  2. Self sufficiency in growth signals
  3. Insensitive to anti-growth signals
  4. Tissue invasion/Metastasis
  5. Limitless replicative potential
  6. Sustained Angiogenesis
115
Q

T/F: Cancer cells can produce their own growth factors and produce growth factors for stroma involved

A

True

116
Q

What part of the cell cycle can cancer evade?

A

Restriction point between G1 and S Phase

117
Q

T/F: The retinoblastoma gene is only present in cancer cells

A

False: present in all cells

118
Q

Which gene is the “guardian of the genome”?

A

TP53 Gene

119
Q

Which gene is the “governor of the cell cycle”?

A

RB gene

120
Q

Which virus is known to inactivate the Rb protein?

A

HPV

121
Q

T/F: Over 70% of cancer has the TP53 gene altered

A

True

122
Q

3 Phases of DNA damage TP53 monitors?

A

Minor-“quiescence” timeout from cell cycle to fix issue
Major-“senescence” major damage will prevent cell from entering cell cycle again
Irreversible-“apoptosis” DNA damage too great to risk letting it go alive

123
Q

Which caspases are involved with extrinsic apoptosis? Intrinsic apoptosis?

A

Extrinsic- Caspase 8 and Caspase 3

Intrinsic- Caspase 9 and Caspase 3

124
Q

What is the “hayflick limit”?

A

How many cell divisions a cell is normally limited to

125
Q

T/F: Cancer reactivates telomerase

A

True: this allows limitless replication

126
Q

Which type of cell is telomerase typically NOT active in: germ cells, stem cells, somatic cells, cancer cells?

A

Somatic cells

127
Q

What is the invasion-metastasis cascade?

A

Process of tumor cells loosening, crossing basement membrane, intravasating into blood stream, and extravasating back out to become a metastatic tumor

128
Q

What molecule must be inactivated in order to loosen tumor cell to squeeze into ECM?

A

E-cadherin

129
Q

T/F: chronic inflammation has been linked to increase cancer risk

A

True

130
Q

What is mismatch repair?

A

Base pair coding errors (AT GC), multiple errors lead to mutation

131
Q

What is nucleotide excision repair?

A

“Cut and paste”; remove damaged DNA (ex: UV light damage) and repair gap with DNA polymerase

132
Q

What is homologous recombination?

A

DNA exchanged between two chromosomes to repair breaks in DNA

Pathology (2 decks)

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