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1
Q
Tower Ladder 105 is responding to a 3rd Alarm fire in a warehouse. While enroute they are directed to report to the Staging Area. The Officer would be correct to report in to the BC designated on the response ticket by which suffix?
Select one:
a. S
b. P 
c. L
d. A
A

B
(Chapt.2 Page 37) P= “Parked”
The correct answer is: P

2
Q
Engine 275, Ladder 133 and Battalion 50 have been assigned to an active shooter incident as a Division Task Force. These units would be identified on the response ticket by which one of the following suffixes?
Select one:
a. A
b. S
c. K 
d. D
A

C
(Chap.2 Page 37) K= Division Task Force for Engines, Ladders and Battalions, D= Technical Decon Task Force.
The correct answer is: K

3
Q
The Officer of a unit designated by the suffix “L” on a response ticket should operate on which HT channel during the operation?
Select one:
a. Tactical Channel 
b. Secondary Tactical Channel
c. Command Channel
d. Tac-U Channel
A

A
(Chap.2 Page 37, ICS Chap.2 Add. 4) L= Lobby Control Unit which uses the Tactical Channel
The correct answer is: Tactical Channel

4
Q

While operating on the scene of an EMS run in a private dwelling the Officer of Engine 38 notices imminently hazardous conditions within the premise that he wants to enter into CIDS immediately. The Officer would be correct to take which action?
Select one:
a. Fax a completed copy of the Form CD-201 directly to FDOC
b. Fax a completed copy of the Form CD-201 to the Admin BC
c. Enter the immediate CIDS into eCIDS and telephone FDOC
d. Enter the immediate CIDS into eCIDS and telephone the Admin BC

A

D
(Chap. 4 4.3.3) Select “Immediate” from the drop down in eCIDS, enter the message and notify the BC by telephone
The correct answer is: Enter the immediate CIDS into eCIDS and telephone the Admin BC

5
Q

Captain Lisani is preparing a CIDS entry for a mixed occupancy building that has one address posted on the front of the building. While conducting a building search via the FDNY BIS application, he notices the building has two additional official addresses that are not posted on the building itself. How should the Captain enter this building into eCIDS?
Select one:
a. Enter a CIDS for the posted address and in the AKA section list the addresses that are not posted
b. Enter a CIDS for the posted address only
c. Enter a CIDS for the first and last official addresses for the building. Include the combined number range in the Transmitted Data portion of the CIDS entry.
d. Complete a separate CIDS entry for all addresses associated with the building.

A

B
(Chap.4 4.4.2) The intent of CIDS is to only have CIDS entries for the address or addresses that would be used when a caller or alarm company reports a fire or emergency at that location.
The correct answer is: Enter a CIDS for the posted address only

6
Q
Captain Burke is preparing a CIDS entry for a building that is constructed of Heavy Timber Construction. The Captain would be correct to enter this building as what type of Construction Class?
Select one:
a. Class 3
b. Class 4
c. Class 5
d. Class 6
A

D
(Chap.4 Page 7) “Timber”- 6 letters, “Metal”- 5 letters, “Wood”- 4 letters.
The correct answer is: Class 6

7
Q
Ladder 35 is entering a CIDs entry for a Fire-Protected structure that has steel bar joist construction. This building should be entered as?
Select one:
a. CL2LW 
b. CL2
c. CL3LW
d. CL3
A

A
(Chap.4 Page 7) NFP structures (OLT, Brownstones, etc.) renovated or repaired with any type of lightweight construction are entered as CL3LW, Wood Frame structures using any type of LW construction are classified as CL4LW, This section was asked on the Last Captain’s Test.
The correct answer is: CL2LW

8
Q

Choose an incorrect statement regarding CIDS entries.
Select one:
a. Grammatically correct sentences are not required. Use dashes to separate information or thoughts
b. Do not split a word at the end of a line
c. If deemed necessary and space allows, the date the building was altered or constructed can be included with the “Transmitted Data”
d. A unit that enters a CIDS entry for a building within another unit’s admin area must immediately notify the admin unit that an entry was made.

A

D
Chap.4 4.4 and Pages 8-9) Only the admin unit shall submit or revise CIDS entries for buildings within their admin district. Other units that find potential CIDS must notify the admin unit of the particulars, Do not confuse with marking Vacant buildings which any unit may do.
The correct answer is: A unit that enters a CIDS entry for a building within another unit’s admin area must immediately notify the admin unit that an entry was made.

9
Q

Ladder Company 11 is responding 1st due to a phone alarm reporting a fire in an OLT. The Officer notifies the dispatcher that Ladder 11 is responding “Understaffed”. Based on the Officer’s transmission?
Select one:
a. An additional ladder company will be assigned to the response.
b. An additional ladder company will be assigned to the response only if the 2nd ladder company is also responding “understaffed”.
c. An additional ladder company will only be assigned to the response if both the 1st and 2nd ladder companies are responding “understaffed” and a 10-75 is transmitted.
d. No additional units will be assigned unless requested by the responding BC.

A

A
(Chap.6 6.9) When a unit is responding “understaffed” (less than 4 FFs) the dispatcher will special call another unit to respond in addition to the understaffed unit, An additional ladder company will be assigned if both the 1st and 2nd ladder companies are “Responding with 4 FFs” AND a 10-75 is transmitted, The 3rd ladder will be assigned for firefighting and the 4th will be the FAST Unit.
The correct answer is: An additional ladder company will be assigned to the response.

10
Q

Units responding to all but which one of the following Call Types shall respond in the 10-20 mode?
Select one:
a. Tree down, no buildings, wires or vehicles affected
b. Salvage Truck to an All-Hands fire
c. ERS No Contact at 0300 hrs.
d. 1st due Engine to a BARS Alarm

A

D
(Chap.6 Add.1 2.1, 2.2) Group 1 “WELTS” - Water Leaks, ERS No contact, Lock-Ins, Tree Down (no wires, buildings or vehicles involved), Salvage Truck - All respond in 10-20 mode. There was a Question on the last Captains test about Modified Response
The correct answer is: 1st due Engine to a BARS Alarm

11
Q

Engine 8 arrives at the scene of a Class E Alarm in a high-rise office building. Engine 8 would be correct to take all but which one action listed?
Select one:
a. The officer entered the building with all members except the ECC. Each member carried one length of rolled hose.
b. The officer made contact with the building personnel and directed them to reset the alarm.
c. When the panel did not reset, the officer verified the floor from which the alarm was transmitted. One member was left in the building lobby.
d. Upon investigation, if a smoke condition is found, the officer will contact the member in the lobby or the ECC to request additional help and return to the lobby with the investigating members.
e. If it was a ladder company, they would already have their tools and would not need to return to the lobby.

A

A
(Chap.6 Add.2 3.2, 3.3, 3.4, 3.6) Engine members do not bring roll ups initially. They should carry forcible entry tools. Ladder members would bring their normal compliment of tools, 3.7 states “Engine waits in the lobby for the ladder company unless there will be an undue delay”
The correct answer is: The officer entered the building with all members except the ECC. Each member carried one length of rolled hose.

12
Q

Regulations Chapter 19 states different notifications that must be made by the company officer regarding company quarters. Which notification procedure is listed correctly?
Select one:
a. No unauthorized changes, additions or alterations in quarters, or to any equipment thereof shall be permitted without the written approval of the Chief of Operations.
b. Company Commanders shall, upon notice being received of proposed demolition work adjacent to adjoining quarters, forward a report to the Fire Commissioner with full particulars.
c. Privately owned vehicles or automobiles shall not be stored in quarters without approval of the Borough Commander.
d. Officers on duty shall not permit photographs to be taken in department buildings under their jurisdiction without the approval of the Chief of Operations

A

B
(19.1.2, 19.1.3, 19.2.3, 19.2.7) No unauthorized changes, additions or alterations in quarters - Chief of Department, Privately owned vehicles or automobiles - Fire Commissioner, photographs to be taken in department buildings - Fire Commissioner.
The correct answer is: Company Commanders shall, upon notice being received of proposed demolition work adjacent to adjoining quarters, forward a report to the Fire Commissioner with full particulars.

13
Q
Company Commanders shall, once \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, thoroughly examine the apparatus entrance doors to determine their condition and, when necessary, lubricate with a light oil. (19.1.6)
Select one:
a. Each year
b. Semi-annually
c. Each month 
d. Each week
A

C

The correct answer is: Each month

14
Q
Company Officers are to ensure that materials prohibited by the Department’s EEO or Anti-Hazing/ Bullying policies are not displayed or viewed in any FDNY facility. Officers unsure as to whether any material violates the Department’s policies or regulations shall promptly consult with whom?
Select one:
a. Bureau of Operations
b. BITS
c. EEO 
d. Administrative Division
A

C
(19.2.2)
The correct answer is: EEO

15
Q

Choose an incorrect choice in regards to the use of company quarters.
Select one:
a. Company Commanders shall maintain a current list of locker assignments and ensure that lockers assigned to members shall have their name, assigned locker number and Department issued sticker affixed.
b. Visitors shall not be permitted to remain in quarters after 2200 hours. Social assemblages shall be prohibited at all times. Any type of sales promotions or private business shall be prohibited at all times unless permitted by the Chief of Department.
c. Designated female facilities (locker rooms and bathrooms) are for the exclusive use of female members. Other than for maintenance and cleaning, male members and all visitors shall not enter or use female-only facilities unless directed by the Company Commander.
d. Doors, guards, and lights at pole hole openings shall be inspected daily and defects promptly reported.

A

C
(19.1.15, 19.2.1, 19.2.2, 19.3.8) Designated female facilities (locker rooms and bathrooms) are for the exclusive use of female members and female visitors., Other than for maintenance and cleaning, male members and male visitors shall not enter or use female-only facilities unless directed by the Company Commander.
The correct answer is: Designated female facilities (locker rooms and bathrooms) are for the exclusive use of female members. Other than for maintenance and cleaning, male members and all visitors shall not enter or use female-only facilities unless directed by the Company Commander.

16
Q
Charges must be prepared and forwarded with endorsements to BITS within how many days after occurrence, unless delayed due to unusual circumstances.
Select one:
a. 7 
b. 10
c. 15
d. 30
A

B
(26.1.3)
The correct answer is: 10

17
Q

FF Jones is assigned to Engine 99. On a 6x9 tour, FF Jones is detailed to Ladder 100 who shares quarters with Engine 101. During the tour FF Jones is insubordinate to the officer of Engine 101 and charges are to be preferred against him. Which officer shall prepare and sign the charges for the alleged violation?
Select one:
a. The officer, a Lieutenant, on duty in Engine 99
b. The officer on duty in Engine 101
c. The officer on duty in Ladder 100
d. The Captain of Engine 99

A

C
(26.1.4) Charges must be prepared and signed by the officer on duty where the respondent is working at the time of the alleged incident., The officer must forward the charges via the chain of command, and send a copy of the charges to the respondents assigned unit., Also, the officer preparing the charges must immediately notify the respondent’s assigned unit by phone., The officer preparing the charges must also telephone the BC
The correct answer is: The officer on duty in Ladder 100

18
Q
In the event a Commanding Officer believes his/her unit’s hydrant inspection goals will not be met by the end of the inspection period, he/she shall submit a letterhead report, through the chain of command, requesting assistance to whom?
Select one:
a. Borough Commander 
b. Division Commander
c. Battalion Commander
d. Chief of Operations
A

A
(28.1.4)
The correct answer is: Borough Commander

19
Q
Hydrants found unserviceable at fire operations shall immediately be the cause for the proper placement of discs. The officer who orders the disc placed shall forward a report to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in whose administrative district the hydrant or system is located.
Select one:
a. Company Commander
b. Battalion Chief 
c. Deputy Chief
d. Borough Commander
A

C
(28.3.3)
The correct answer is: Deputy Chief

20
Q

Semi-Annual hydrant inspections in a company’s administrative district shall be guided by all but which one of the following points?
Select one:
a. Inspection of hydrants by members with apparatus shall be performed between the hours of 0930 and 1700 hours.
b. An officer, or an acting officer, and not less than 3 firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform inspectional duty with properly radio-equipped apparatus.
c. In the event a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty in accordance with their schedule, the officer on duty must notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and Dispatcher.
d. All units, at all times, shall shut down illegally opened hydrants when observed.

A

D
(28.1.8, 28.2.2, 28.2.9) A little tight but they shall be shut down UNLESS the officer in command determines that shutting the hydrants will precipitate an incident.
The correct answer is: All units, at all times, shall shut down illegally opened hydrants when observed.

21
Q

A Captain discussing joint living/ work quarters for artists within loft, commercial or manufacturing buildings would be correct to state?
Select one:
a. The NYS Multiple Dwelling Law does not permit the conversion of a loft building to a multiple dwelling. Therefore, the occupancy shall not exceed one individual unit for living purpose.
b. The building must not have any type of occupancy listed as a medium or high fire hazard.
c. A metal readily visible sign, indicating that there is an Artist in Residence, must be on the outside of the building. The sign is to be 8 inches by 10 inches and located seven feet above sidewalk level.
d. The sign shall consist of 2 inch red letters on a white background.

A

C
(Add 1 - Page 1) the occupancy shall not exceed two separate individual units used for living purposes, The building must not have any type of occupancy listed as a high fire hazard, Consist of 2 inch BLACK letters on a white background.
The correct answer is: A metal readily visible sign, indicating that there is an Artist in Residence, must be on the outside of the building. The sign is to be 8 inches by 10 inches and located seven feet above sidewalk level.

22
Q
When during the course of the construction of a new building the working deck reaches a height of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet or greater above the ground in a building for which a standpipe system will be required, a permanent or temporary standpipe system shall be kept in a state of readiness at all times for use by fire-fighting personnel.
Select one:
a. 25
b. 45
c. 50
d. 75
A

D
(Add 2 - Page 1 1st Bullet)
The correct answer is: 75

23
Q

Standpipe systems found in buildings under construction, alteration or demolition shall comply with how many of the following statements?
1) The standpipe system shall serve all floors where permanent stairs are required.
2) No standpipe shall be considered to be in a state of readiness unless it is painted red.
3) When freezing conditions may be encountered, the system in whole, or the part of the system subject to freezing conditions, shall be maintained as a dry system.
4) Existing systems in structures undergoing a full demolition shall be maintained as dry standpipes.
5) When demolition begins, standpipe risers shall be capped above the outlet on the floor currently being demolished so as to maintain the system on all lower floors for Fire Department use.
6) Standpipe hoses, nozzles and spanners are not required to be maintained and may be removed at any time in buildings undergoing a full demolition.
Select one:
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3

A

B
(Add 2 - Pages 1 and 2) (#1,2,3,4,6) 5- When demolition begins, standpipe risers shall be capped above the outlet on the floor immediately below the floor being demolished so as to maintain the system on all lower floors for Fire Department use, Use these points as a small breakdown of standpipe requirements in buildings under construction, demolition or alterations. Try to read it over the day or two before the test so it stays fresh in your mind.
The correct answer is: 5

24
Q
During the course of construction of a new building, or in spaces being added to an existing building, at least one permanent stair shall be brought to within a distance of \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet below the working deck at all times.
Select one:
a. 15
b. 30
c. 40 
d. 60
A

C
(Add 2 - Page 4) 40 feet OR 4 floors below the working deck at all times
The correct answer is: 40

25
Q

Captain Webster and her engine company are performing BISP in a building under construction. They would be correct to know all of the following points with the exception of which choice?
Select one:
a. All exposed standpipes and sprinkler piping, without exception, must be painted red.
b. A metal sign must be present at the Siamese connection for the sprinkler system reading “SPRINKLER SIAMESE CONNECTION” with a red light over the sign.
c. When existing sprinkler systems with fire department hose connections are present in buildings undergoing full or partial demolition, they shall be maintained as a non-automatic sprinkler system.
d. When demolition starts, the sprinkler risers shall be capped immediately below the floor being demolished.

A

A
(Add 2 - Page 3) There are specific exceptions such as BRANCH PIPING. This was asked on a recent BC Test
The correct answer is: All exposed standpipes and sprinkler piping, without exception, must be painted red.

26
Q
Whenever construction or demolition work reaches a height greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet, at least one elevator shall be kept in readiness at all times for Fire Department use.
Select one:
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 75
A

D
(Add 2 - Page 4)
The correct answer is: 75

27
Q
While performing an inspection at multiple dwelling you find that the building’s standpipe system is out of service. There was no previous notification made to the Fire Department. In this instance what enforcement action should you serve for “Failure To Notify”?
Select one:
a. Immediate Summons 
b. FDNY Summons
c. Forthwith VO
d. A-500
A

A
(ADD 4 - 4.5.6)
The correct answer is: Immediate Summons

28
Q
On a cold winter night your ladder company responds to a water leak in a multiple dwelling. Upon arrival you find the water condition is due to a frozen sprinkler pipe that burst. After shutting the sprinkler system, you realize there is no owner or responsible person present to notify. In this instance whom should you contact to attempt to notify the owner?
Select one:
a. Bureau of Fire Investigation
b. Bureau of Fire Prevention
c. Office of Emergency Management 
d. NYPD
A

C
(Add 4 - 4.6) For a Residential building (other than Private Dwellings), if a fire service system is found OOS, and there is no one to notify at the scene, have the Dispatcher notify OEM. They can contact HPD who can hire fireguards until a responsible person can be found, for commercial buildings with no fire alarm company, notify the Fire Marshals to find the owner.
The correct answer is: Office of Emergency Management

29
Q
Notification that a sprinkler system is or will be out of service must be made to the FDNY if the work or repairs cannot be completed, and the system restored to service within \_\_\_\_\_\_ hours of the time the system was placed or went of service.
Select one:
a. 4
b. 8 
c. 12
d. 24
A

B
(AUC 5 Chap.2 Add. 4 - 3.3) Also if: the sprinkler system will be out of service on more than one floors or if more than one other system will be OOS in the area in which the OOS Sprinkler is located.
The correct answer is: 8

30
Q

Company officers discussing mutual exchange guidelines were incorrect when they stated?
Select one:
a. Mutual applications shall be submitted at least 3 days in advance of the first date involved
b. Mutuals shall be completed within 30 days of the first date involved
c. Approved mutual shall be voided if either member will be on any type of leave or detail for which the member has been notified more than 3 days prior to the first date of the mutual
d. Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours. This excludes self-mutuals.

A

C
(PA/ID 6-72, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.9) More than 5 days prior
The correct answer is: Approved mutual shall be voided if either member will be on any type of leave or detail for which the member has been notified more than 3 days prior to the first date of the mutual

31
Q
Voluntary donation of mutual exchanges, with no payback, may be allowed under extenuating circumstances, with the permission of whom?
Select one:
a. Company Commander
b. Battalion Commander
c. Division Commander
d. Borough Commander
A

D
(PA/ID 6-72, 3.1) Examples would include: Volunteering to work in a unit that incurred a LODD, Member in need of critical time off for a serious illness of a family member.
The correct answer is: Borough Commander

32
Q
Incomplete mutuals not repaid with \_\_\_\_\_\_ days will be charged to Vacation Leave. If there is no remaining Vacation Leave for the present year, the deduction will be made from the following year’s leave.
Select one:
a. 14
b. 30 
c. 45
d. 60
A

B
(PA/ID 6-72 4.1D)
The correct answer is: 30

33
Q
Captain Walsh and his engine company are picking up the meal at the local supermarket when a civilian asks them for assistance because another person is harassing them. Captain Walsh requests the response of the NYPD and they await their arrival. Captain Walsh must now forward a letterhead report with the details of the incident to whom?
Select one:
a. The Borough Commander
b. The Bureau of Fire Investigation
c. The Chief of Operations 
d. The Chief of Department
A

C
(AUC 3 1.5) This report must include: The civilian’s name, And the Police Officer’s identity. Also, the officer must take a mark in the Company Journal including the same information
The correct answer is: The Chief of Operations

34
Q

Your company responds to a CFR-D response for a child with a major injury. While treating the child you believe the child has suffered from abuse by his parents. As the officer in charge you should take all but which one of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Request the response of the NYPD, an FDNY EMS Supervisor and ambulance.
b. Take the child into protective custody until the arrival of the NYPD.
c. Complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required by the NY State Social Service’s Law.
d. Record the incident in the company Journal

A

C
(AUC 3 1.6, 1.7) EMS crew is responsible for completing this report
The correct answer is: Complete the mandated report of suspected child abuse as required by the NY State Social Service’s Law.

35
Q

Captain who receives a request from a local school teacher to have the company visit their school would be correct to take which one of the following?
Select one:
a. Schedule the visit on a day the unit is not scheduled for BISP or hydrant inspection.
b. Have the teacher contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or telephone.
c. Have the teacher contact the Bureau of Operations by telephone.
d. Attend the scheduled visit even if a 10-51 signal is ordered.

A

B
(AUC 4) For visits other than to the firehouse, the officer will have the requester contact Fire Safety Education. If the request was for a firehouse the officer could schedule the visit. The officer would note the event in the daybook then enter the info into the Fire Safety Education Tracking System
The correct answer is: Have the teacher contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or telephone.

36
Q

A Captain assigned as the Investigating Officer in a situation where three members may have been drinking alcohol while on duty is responsible for all but which one of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Conduct a roll call of all on-duty and off-duty members present in the firehouse.
b. Advise all officers and firefighters present at the time of the investigation of their right to representation before being questioned.
c. Conduct an investigation to ascertain which member(s) may have engaged in the drinking.
d. Forward a report to the Chief of Department, via the Chain of Command, documenting the reasons that the Investigating Officer either ordered or did not order testing of members for alcohol.

A

B
(AUC 202 5.7) Advise all Officers and FFs whom you reasonably believe may be subject to charges of their right to representation. NOTE: PA/ID 2-73 states “ The warning and the right to representation does not extend to members who are witnesses. Any refusal to answer questions will result in disciplinary charges for refusal to answer”
The correct answer is: Advise all officers and firefighters present at the time of the investigation of their right to representation before being questioned.

37
Q
As you walk into the rear yard of your firehouse you find 2 on duty members drinking alcohol. You immediately prohibit all members from leaving the firehouse, except for one member who needs to take Emergency leave. The member requesting to leave is not suspected of participating in the alcohol drinking. After consulting with the Investigating Officer, the member is given permission to leave. The Investigating Officer must forward a report, through the chain of command, documenting the reason for the release to whom?
Select one:
a. Fire Commissioner
b. Chief of Operations
c. BITS
d. Chief of Department
A

D
(AUC 202 5.5)
The correct answer is: Chief of Department

38
Q

Every Officer who reasonably suspects or knows that any member violates the FDNY Substance Policy (AUC 202), shall immediately take how many of the following?
1) Prohibit all on-duty and off-duty members present at the time of any violation form leaving without permission of the Investigating Officer.
2) Relieve on-duty members from emergency response duty
3) Have the affected unit(s) placed out of service
4) Notify the administrative Battalion Chief
5) Notify the Inspector General
6) Conduct a Roll Call
7) Document the incident in the Company Journal
Select one:
a. 7
b. 6
c. 5
d. 4

A

C
(AUC 202 5.5) (#1, 2, 3, 4, 7) 5- Notify BITS, 6- The Investigating Officer will conduct a Roll Call.
The correct answer is: 5

39
Q

Every officer who observes a member exhibiting possible signs of alcohol or drug abuse shall consult with?
Select one:
a. Bureau of Operations
b. Bureau of Health Services
c. Counseling Service Unit (CSU)
d. Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)

A

C
(AUC 202 5.4)
The correct answer is: Counseling Service Unit (CSU)

40
Q

Of the following out of service hydrants found during inspection, which one should not be entered as requiring a “Priority Repair”?
Select one:
a. One of two hydrants on a dead end block
b. A hydrant considered vital to the protection of the Lincoln Tunnel
c. Two adjacent hydrants found on a block that has one additional working hydrant
d. The only hydrant on a small one way street

A

A
(AUC 205 3.2) Priority Repair: Only hydrant on a block, 2 adjacent hydrants on a block that are both OOS, Hydrants vital to the protection of high profile infrastructure.
The correct answer is: One of two hydrants on a dead end block

41
Q

An officer who is approached by a civilian requesting a hydrant spray cap would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Advise that spray caps may only be used between 9:00 am and 6:00 pm
b. Ensure the requesting party is at least 16 years old
c. Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants on two-way streets
d. Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants located on mains larger than 16 inches.

A

C
(AUC 205 5.3, Add. 1) 10:00 am and 9:00 pm, 18 years old, 20 inches, NOTE: Do not install on 2-way streets, near intersections, on bus routes or access routes to main traffic arteries.
The correct answer is: Ensure caps are not installed on hydrants on two-way streets

42
Q

Choose the correct choice in regards to FDNY Chauffeur guidelines.
Select one:
a. ECCs transferred to ladder companies, and LCCs transferred to engine companies shall retain their chauffeur status for one year from the transfer date.
b. “Company Trained” members may be used as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy.
c. Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least 3 hours of driver training, not including emergency responses.
d. Members must have 5 years experience in the FDNY to be considered for Chauffeur Training School.

A

B
(AUC 254 1.3, 2.4, 2.7, 2.9) Shall have their prior unit chauffeur designation immediately revoked upon transfer. Exceptions will be granted with approval of the Chief of Ops, 5 hours, 3 years. Exceptions granted with the approval of the Chief of Operations.
The correct answer is: “Company Trained” members may be used as a chauffeur to fill a short term and temporary vacancy.

43
Q
How many of the following units shall start each tour with at least 2 school-trained chauffeurs?
1) Foam Units
2) Satellite Units
3) Planning Vehicles
4) Airport Hose Wagons
5) Collapse Rescue Units
6) Decon Units (other than tractor trailer apparatus)
Select one:
a. 6 
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
A

C
(AUC 254 4.2) (#2,3,5,6) Pay attention to this if you are required to pick a member to detail out for a tour. They can try to lure you into detailing out a member on RSOT or MSOT but they may be needed in your unit as a second chauffeur or 2nd CFR member.
The correct answer is: 4

44
Q

Which one of the following situations would require a written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITS)?
Select one:
a. Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time
b. On-duty incident involving alcohol
c. Confrontation between Department members and members of the Police Department
d. An allegation concerning false claims by an FDNY employee that an off-duty injury occurred while on-duty

A

A
(AUC 268A 4.1) On-duty incident & confrontation between Dept members - Immediate telephone notification to BITS, allegation concerning false claims by an FDNY employee - Direct notification to the IG.
The correct answer is: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time

45
Q

Of the following notifications made by FDNY officers, which one was performed correctly?
Select one:
a. An officer immediately called BITS directly at 0330 hours after notification that a member was arrested for assault.
b. An officer called FDOC at 1300 hours on Tuesday to contact the IG’s on-call supervisor for an allegation concerning the falsification of CityTime entries.
c. At 1000 hours on a Tuesday, an officer notified the IG directly regarding an allegation that a member accepted a bribe from a business owner during BISP.
d. An officer notified BITS directly by telephone at 1500 hours on a Friday when the officer decided to prefer charges against the member for insubordination.

A

C
(AUC 268A 2.1, 3.1) During business hours notify BITS directly. During non-business hours notify FDOC, During business hours notify the IG directly. During non-business hours notify FDOC to contact the IGs on call supervisor, Preference of Charges- written notification to BITS
The correct answer is: At 1000 hours on a Tuesday, an officer notified the IG directly regarding an allegation that a member accepted a bribe from a business owner during BISP.

46
Q

Units are operating on the Belt Parkway in Queens for a motor vehicle accident with injuries. The posted speed limit is 50 mph but due to traffic, the highest speed expected is 40 mph. At this accident the members would be correct to?
Select one:
a. Use at least 2 to 4 flares and/or cones to build a lane closure.
b. Place the furthest flare or cone about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway.
c. Place the furthest flare at least 160 feet from the incident.
d. After the first flare or cone is placed, place the next flare about 5 feet further into the roadway at each point.

A

B
(TB Fires 8 8.1E) At least 4 to6 flares, 220 feet (40x4 +60), place next flare about 2 feet further into the roadway at each point.
The correct answer is: Place the furthest flare or cone about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway.

47
Q

A unit drilling on hybrid vehicles was incorrect in which statement made?
Select one:
a. Hybrid vehicles may appear as if they are shut down but may actually be in “Ready Mode”. Never assume the vehicle is off simply because it is silent.
b. Never cut any high voltage cables. Most are colored orange, but some are colored red.
c. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.
d. Always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

A

B
(TB Fires 8 11.6C) Most are Orange, but some are colored BLUE
The correct answer is: Never cut any high voltage cables. Most are colored orange, but some are colored red.

48
Q

Normally, operating across a highway center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, all but which one of the following shall be adhered to?
Select one:
a. Traffic must be stopped in the direction of the fire/emergency. The IC will determine if traffic is to be stopped on the opposite side.
b. The IC shall select an area for access to the incident. This shall be the only means of access and egress utilized unless otherwise directed by the IC.
c. The safe crossing area shall be clearly marked to identify the designated area.
d. If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation.

A

A
(TB Fires 8 9.1) Traffic must be stopped in BOTH directions and safety devices set up. Also, at night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.
The correct answer is: Traffic must be stopped in the direction of the fire/emergency. The IC will determine if traffic is to be stopped on the opposite side.

49
Q
When a hazardous highway separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to?
Select one:
a. FDOC
b. BISP Unit
c. Chief of Safety
d. Chief of Operations
A

D
(TB Fires 8 9.1C) Must be endorsed by the Battalion, Division and Borough levels
The correct answer is: Chief of Operations

50
Q
Of the following, which one may be classified as a Minor Injury?
Select one:
a. Sprained ankle with minor swelling
b. First degree burn 
c. Shortness of breath
d. A member who briefly fainted
A

B
(SB 7 2.1.3) Not classified as Minor Injuries: Burns, other than 1st degree, Chest pains, Sprains or strains with swelling or discoloration, Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory, Shortness of breath.
The correct answer is: First degree burn

51
Q

Choose the correct statement made about the preparation of Injury/ Exposure Reports.
Select one:
a. The Medical Officer must be notified of all injuries and/ or exposures to members.
b. The FDID number must be included when Supervisors initiate an injury/exposure report. If the injury/exposure occurred at a non-response, the Supervisor shall enter all 0’s in the 16-digit space.
c. Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty, such as food poisoning, do not need to be recorded in CIRS, however the Medical Officer must be notified.
d. An Injury Report shall not be prepared if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related to an exposure. A notation shall be made in the narrative of the Exposure Report that an injury has occurred.

A

C
(SB 7 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 3.4, 3.5) Medical Officer notification is NOT required for NON-BIOLOGICAL Exposures that have no symptoms, enter all 9’s in the 16-digit space, Injury Report SHALL be prepared if symptoms of an injury, or illness are related t an exposure. Both Injury and Exposure Reports will be completed.
The correct answer is: Illnesses not related to an exposure that prevent a member from continuing on duty, such as food poisoning, do not need to be recorded in CIRS, however the Medical Officer must be notified.

52
Q

Two officers discussing the processing of Injury/Exposure Reports were incorrect in which statement made?
Select one:
a. All available injury/ exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
b. Two copies of the Injury/ Exposure Report shall be printed. One copy is filed in the member’s PERSONNEL folder, and the other in the UFS in the unit where the member was working.
c. All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief.
d. Officers may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms as long as all members had the same non-biological exposure and are working in the same unit.

A

D
(SB 7 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.6) as long as all members are ASSIGNED to the same unit. If a detailed member is affected, a separate report must be filed.
The correct answer is: Officers may submit Group Reporting for identical non-biological exposure of members who do not exhibit symptoms as long as all members had the same non-biological exposure and are working in the same unit.

53
Q

A “Multiple Member Injury Report” must be completed when?
Select one:
a. 2 or more members of the same unit incur any injuries at the same incident.
b. 3 or more members of the same unit incur any injuries at the same incident.
c. 2 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour at the same incident.
d. 3 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour.

A

D
(SB 7 Add.2 1.3) The officer working that tour is responsible for completing the report, unless on leave for more than 30 days then another regularly assigned member will complete it. The Captain must review and add suggestions then forward thru the Chain of Command.
The correct answer is: 3 or more members of the same unit incur injuries resulting in Medical Leave that tour.

54
Q

A newly promoted Captain is discussing the difference between Apparatus collisions and incidents with a Lieutenant. The Captain would be correct to say which one of the following is considered a Collision?
Select one:
a. Damage to an apparatus due to a fire in the radiator.
b. An apparatus properly parked on BISP, which is struck by a motorcycle.
c. Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by the tormentor of an aerial ladder operating at a 10-75.
d. Damage to an apparatus caused by vandalism.

A

B
(SB 56 4.2, 4.4) Collision- when an apparatus strikes or is struck by a vehicle, pedestrian or bicyclist, or strikes a fixed object. All of the other choices are listed as Incidents.
The correct answer is: An apparatus properly parked on BISP, which is struck by a motorcycle.

55
Q

Your company has just been involved in a collision while responding to an alarm. You must realize that your primary initial obligation is to?
Select one:
a. Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.
b. Provide pre-hospital care to any injured members or civilians.
c. Provide a preliminary report to the dispatcher.
d. Request addition units to the scene.

A

A
(SB 56 5.2.1)
The correct answer is: Prevent the collision from increasing in magnitude.

56
Q

Of the following collisions, how many would require the completion of an MV-104?
1. A collision in which a dollar amount of damage cannot be estimated.
2. A collision resulting in one minor injury to a civilian.
3. A collision involving approximately $550 worth of property damage to a civilian.
4. A collision resulting in the death of a civilian
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

C
(SB 56 12.1) (#1,2,4) MV-104: Death, Personal Injury, Damage over $1000 to the property of any one person, Dollar amount cannot be estimated.
The correct answer is: 3

57
Q

A Captain should know that which one of the following would not automatically be considered a preventable collision?
Select one:
a. A ladder company on hydrant inspection strikes a parked car opposite a double-parked car.
b. An engine responding 2nd due to a manhole emergency, in 10-20 mode, strikes a double-parked car.
c. A ladder company strikes quarters when pulling out for a phone alarm.
d. An engine strikes a double-parked vehicle when responding to an EMS response.

A

D
(SB 56 Add. 4 2.1) Addendum lists the difference between preventable and non-preventable collisions. Preventable collisions can lead to Supervisory Conferences.
The correct answer is: An engine strikes a double-parked vehicle when responding to an EMS response.

58
Q

A 10-75 has been transmitted for a fire on the first floor of a 2 story private dwelling with window bars found on both floors. All but which one of the following should occur at this fire?
Select one:
a. An additional engine and ladder should be special called. The additional ladder must be a Tower Ladder.
b. The 2nd line stretched should back up the 1st line. If not needed, it shall then go to the floor above.
c. At least one window in the 1st floor and one window on the 2nd floor should be cleared of bars, with a portable, aerial or tower ladder placed to the window.
d. The location of windows that have been cleared shall be communicated to all units.

A

A
(SB 84) Shall be TL if one is not assigned on the initial assignment. If possible leave room at the front of the fire building for a TL. An engine can provide an exterior hoseline to protect civilians or members trapped behind window bars.
The correct answer is: An additional engine and ladder should be special called. The additional ladder must be a Tower Ladder.

59
Q

While drilling on roof operations at a commercial building, you discuss gypsum roofing with your members. In which statement made were you incorrect?
Select one:
a. The main drawback from a firefighting operational standpoint is the extreme vulnerability to moisture causing a deterioration of the gypsum.
b. The presence of this type of roof will be indicated by a white powdery residue during saw operations.
c. Upon the discovery of a gypsum roof, members shall make an immediate notification to the IC and evacuate the roof.
d. No interior or roof operations shall be permitted in buildings with a gypsum roof system.

A

D
(SB 85 3.1, 3.2, 3.3,3.4) Interior operations shall be conducted from areas of safety and hose streams shall be operated well in advance of members.
The correct answer is: No interior or roof operations shall be permitted in buildings with a gypsum roof system.

60
Q
Your engine company is operating at fire on the 32nd floor of a high-rise office building. When attempting to hook up to the standpipe outlet on the 31st floor your Control FF notifies you that the outlet is out of service and she must connect to the outlet on the 30th floor. In this instance you should order your ECC to supply the system at which pump pressure?
Select one:
a. 200 psi
b. 250 psi
c. 300 psi 
d. 350 psi
A

C
(HR Office 4.1.7) The pump pressure is based on the FIRE FLOOR, not the location of the standpipe outlet. 1-10 150 psi, 11-20 200 psi, 21-30 250 psi, 31-40 300 psi
The correct answer is: 300 psi

61
Q

Captain Breeze is supervising the placement of positive pressure fans (PPF) for positive pressure ventilation of the attack staircase in a high-rise MD fire. For optimal placement, the Captain would be correct to have the fans placed on the ground floor, directly facing the stairwell door at which position?
Select one:
a. 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 60 degrees
b. 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees
c. 3 to 5 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 60 degrees
d. 3 to 5 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees

A

B
(AUC 349 7.2) Do not place the fan inside the stairwell. Position it to blow air into the stair
The correct answer is: 4 to 6 feet from the stairway at an angle tilt of 80 degrees

62
Q

On your last 6x9 tour you transmitted the following codes. In which one were you incorrect?
Select one:
a. 10-34 Code 2 for a valve alarm activation due to a surge in water pressure
b. 10-35 Code 4 for an alarm activation due to people smoking in an elevator lobby
c. 10-38 Code 4 for a CO emergency with Co readings of 34 PPM in a building with no CO Detector present
d. 10-35 No Code for an alarm activation caused by an electric power fluctuation

A

D
(Communications Chap. 8) Utility Power Fluctuation is a 10-40-2, would be a Code 3 if there was a working detector available
The correct answer is: 10-35 No Code for an alarm activation caused by an electric power fluctuation

63
Q

Units operating at a complete collapse of a multiple dwelling would be correct to take which action below?
Select one:
a. Engines should extinguish fire in the exposures prior to extinguishing fire in the collapsed building.
b. The 3rd and 4th arriving engine companies should seal off the ends of the block. The ECCs must remain with the apparatus in case they need to be moved.
c. The 1st arriving ladder immediately began the process of controlling the utilities.
d. The 2nd engine ensured a 3 ½” supply line was stretched to the 1st arriving Tower Ladder

A

A
(Collapse 5.3, 7.1, 7.3, 7.6) Extinguish the Building and debris first, then exposures then vehicles, Two of the 2nd alarm engine companies, Utilities are the responsibility of the 2nd ladder.
The correct answer is: The 2nd engine ensured a 3 ½” supply line was stretched to the 1st arriving Tower Ladder

64
Q
As a Captain working on the west side of Manhattan you hold a drill with your members regarding the construction features of Class 2 high-rise multiple dwellings. You would be correct to state that in most cases a FF can traverse from one wing to another via all but which one method listed?
Select one:
a. The top floor 
b. The roof
c. The cellar
d. A shared fire stair
A

A
(MD 8.5.1, 8.5.3) Lobby, Cellar, Roof , Shared fire stair
The correct answer is: The top floor

65
Q
Units operating at a possible chemical attack in an underground subway station notice an odor of geraniums throughout the station. They should suspect which one of the following agents to be released?
Select one:
a. Lewisite 
b. VX
c. Hydrogen Cyanide
d. Phosgene
A

A
(ERP Add. 2 Page 18) Lewisite- Blister Agent, VX- Nerve Agent with No odor, Hydrogen Cyanide- Blood Agent with Burnt Almonds odor, Phosgene- Choking Agent with an odor of musky hay.
The correct answer is: Lewisite

66
Q
Your unit is the 2nd arriving engine company at an explosion in the street with numerous civilians injured. As the officer of this unit you should report to and remain at which location?
Select one:
a. The Staging Area
b. The Triage Transfer Point 
c. The Transportation Group
d. The Treatment Areas
A

B
(ERP Add.3 5.3.2)
The correct answer is: The Triage Transfer Point

67
Q

The Transport Index of package being transported indicates the maximum level of radiation at?
Select one:
a. 1 foot from the package and applies to beta and gamma radiation only.
b. 1 foot meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.
c. 1 meter from the package and applies to beta and gamma radiation only.
d. 1 meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.

A

D
(ERP Add.4 2.5.1, 2.5.4) Transport Index of a package should not exceed 10 mR/hr. Total Transportation Index of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed 50 mR/hr.
The correct answer is: 1 meter from the package and applies to gamma radiation only.

68
Q
An engine and ladder operate a car fire in which the vehicle has one out of state license plate, no tires, doors or windows and is located in a vacant lot. After extinguishing the fire a severely burned deceased body is found in the trunk. The officers would be correct to transmit which codes?
Select one:
a. 10-23, 10-45 Code 1, 10-41 Code 1 
b. 10-24, 10-45 Code 1, 10-41 Code 1
c. 10-23, 10-37 Code 1, 10-41 Code 3
d. 10-24, 10-45 Code 1, 10-41 Code 3
A

B
(Comm. 8) The vehicle had a license plate which makes it a 10-24. The body was found in a fire which makes it a 10-45 Code 1 (not 10-37). Suspicious fire in an occupied vehicle or structure is a 10-41 Code 1
The correct answer is: 10-24, 10-45 Code 1, 10-41 Code 1

69
Q

At the scene of a major collapse the IC has ordered you to conduct an “Emergency Roll Call” of all units at the scene. In order to obtain an updated list of all companies that have responded to the scene you should go to an apparatus MDT and take which of the following steps?
Select one:
a. Press “Send, Incident History, Next, Print”
b. Press “Incident History, Send, Next, Print”
c. Press “Incident Summary, Send, Next, Print”
d. Press “Print, Incident Summary, Send, Next”

A

C
(Comm. Cha.9 Add.2 4.1)
The correct answer is: Press “Incident Summary, Send, Next, Print”

70
Q

Captain Philips is discussing In-Line Pumping with his engine company. Which point made by the Captain was correct?
Select one:
a. The hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 10” or larger main.
b. Not more than 8 lengths of 3 ½” hose shall be used in the initial supply line.
c. When intake pressure drops below 20 psi, the pump operator shall have their intake supply augmented.
d. After hearing two buzzer tones, the ECC should know the hose firefighter is in position and the pumper is ready to proceed.

A

D
(Evolution 1A Notes) must be on a 6-inch or larger main, Not more than 6 lengths, below 15 psi, One buzzer- Emergency stop, Two buzzer tones- Proceed, Three buzzer tones- Area to the rear s clear for backing up.
The correct answer is: After hearing two buzzer tones, the ECC should know the hose firefighter is in position and the pumper is ready to proceed.