Green Study Guide Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What channels are the first to affect the action potential?

A

Na+

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2
Q

What causes Na+ channels to become activated with little increases in membrane potential?

A

Calcium deficit

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3
Q

What does calcium deficit lead to?

A

Very excitable nerve

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4
Q

Where do local anesthetics act?

A

Blocks Na+ channel

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5
Q

What is the most common neurotransmitter?

A

ACh

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6
Q

Where do action potentials begin?

A

Initial segment

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7
Q

Release of what molecule causes muscle contraction?

A

Ca++

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8
Q

How are smooth muscle action potentials generated?

A

By stretch

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9
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

A single alpha nerve fiber excites 3-several hundred muscle fibers

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10
Q

What produces the CSF?

A

choroid plexus

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11
Q

Most proprioceptive pathways consist of what type of fibers?

A

Large myelinated fibers with very fast transmission time

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12
Q

Where is gait controlled from?

A

Midbrain and brainstem

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13
Q

What does plegia mean?

A

No voluntary movement at all

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14
Q

How does cerebellar ataxia present?

A

Dysmetria, movements that are too long or too short, goose stepping

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15
Q

How does vestibular ataxia present?

A

Leaning and listing to one side, crossing over of feet when walking

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16
Q

How does proprioceptive ataxia present?

A

Scuffing, hypometria

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17
Q

What controls the level of alterness?

A

Ascending reticular activating system

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18
Q

How would a lesion in cerebrum affect posture?

A

Rigid extension in all limbs, altered mentation

Compared to Schiff-sherrington (front legs work, back legs affected)

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19
Q

What is CN I?

A

Olfactory

Hard to test

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20
Q

What is CN II?

A

Optic (sensory only)

21
Q

What is CN V?

A

Trigeminal (Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular)

22
Q

What branch of CN V is motor?

A

Mandibular - muscles of mastication

23
Q

What is CN VII?

A

facial - mainly motor

24
Q

What is CN VIII?

A

Vestibulocochlear (sensory)

25
Q

What cranial nerves does a menace response test?

A

Afferent CN II

Efferent CN VII

26
Q

What treatments are there for primary epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital, KBr, Levetiracetam, Zonisamide

Emergency anticonvulsants (phenobarb, diazepam, levetiracetam)

27
Q

How is equine infectious encephalitidies transmitted?

A

Mosquitoes

28
Q

What will a spinal cord myelopathy NOT cause?

A

head tilt (vestibular signs)

29
Q

What is an extradural mass?

A

Mass that makes disc push on spinal cord

30
Q

What is the electrodiagnostic test for hearing?

A

Brainstem auditory evoked response (BAER)

31
Q

What side will CP deficits be on with a forebrain lesion?

A

Contralateral side

32
Q

What cranial nerves are in forebrain?

A
CN I (cerebrum)
CN II (diencephalon)
33
Q

How is Schiff-Sherrington distinguished from decerebrate?

A

Mentation

Pelvic limb involvement

34
Q

Do LMN lesions show ataxia?

A

No

35
Q

Which could be associated with a multifocal lesion?

A

seizures (forebrain), horizontal nystagmus (midbrain)

36
Q

Congenital sensorineural deficit linked with what characteristic?

A

white dog with blue eyes

37
Q

What is not metabolic?

A

Primary epilepsy

38
Q

Which of these is not a contraindication to CSF tap?
A. herniation of cerebellum through foramen magnum
B. increased intracranial pressure
C. proficiency in tap
D. Seizures

A

seizures (can do lumbar puncture)

39
Q

Which is not true of primary epilepsy?

A

that it is untreatable- can tx with phenobarb

40
Q

Which way will an animal circle with forebrain lesion?

A

Towards the lesion

41
Q

What are the signs of horners?

A

Miosis
Enophthalmos
Ptosis

Not head tilt!

42
Q

What is not easy to test in animals?

A

Smell

43
Q

What is true of msticatory myositis?

A

Immune mediated

44
Q

Where are lesions if gait deficits are seen?

A

Midbrain and brainstem

45
Q

Polyradiculoneuritis

A

Acute, ascending flaccid paralysis

46
Q

Does paretic ataxia exist?

A

No

47
Q

What does MLF connect?

A

CN III, IV, and VI to VIII

48
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Antibodies against ACh receptors