Hema, Topnotch Flashcards

1
Q

Plasma minus clotting factors

A

Serum

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2
Q

% plasma in whole blood

A

55%

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3
Q

% formed elements in whole blood

A

45%

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4
Q

Components of plasma in decreasing order

A

1) Water (90%)
2) Proteins
3) Inorganic ions
4) Lipids
5) Sugar

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5
Q

Alpha globulins (3)

A

1) Proteases
2) Antiproteases
3) Transport porteins

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6
Q

Beta globulins

A

Transport proteins

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7
Q

Gamma globulins

A

Immunoglobulins

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8
Q

Site of blood cell formation at 3 weeks AOG

A

Yolk sac

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9
Q

Site of blood cell formation: 3 mos AOG to birth

A

Liver

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10
Q

BM starts blood cell formation at what month

A

4 mos AOG

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11
Q

Age at which only bone marrow of flat bones and proximal epiphyseal region are actively participating in hematopoiesis

A

20 y/o

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12
Q

T/F Extramedullary hematopoiesis in full-term infant is always abnormal

A

T

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13
Q

Most abundant blood cell

A

RBC

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14
Q

Mechanism by which RBC acts as an acid-base buffer

A

Carbonic anhydrase: H2O + CO2 = H2CO3

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15
Q

RBC: Normal resting shape

A

Biconcave disc

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16
Q

RBC: Normal resting shape is maintained by

A

Spectrin

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17
Q

RBC: Normal space taken up by central pallor

A

1/3

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18
Q

RBC: Normal diameter

A

6-8 um

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19
Q

Hgb: Normal value in females

A

12-18 g/dL

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20
Q

Hgb: Normal value in males

A

14-18 g/dL

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21
Q

Hct: Normal value in females

A

37-47%

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22
Q

Hct: Normal value in males

A

40-54%

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23
Q

Hgb: Subunits

A

4 polypeptide subunits

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24
Q

% of oxygen from lungs transported by Hgb

A

97%

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25
Q

Blood is ___ times thicker than water

A

3

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26
Q

Steps in haemoglobin synthesis (5)

A

1) 2 succinyl CoA + 2 glycine = 1 pyrrole
2) 4 pyrroles = protoporphyrin IX
3) Protoporphyrin IX + ferrous iron = heme
4) Heme + polypeptide = Hemoglobin chain (alpha or beta)
5) 2 alpha chains + 2 beta chains = HgbA

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27
Q

How many O2 molecules can 1 Hgb molecule bind

A

4

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28
Q

Fetal Hgb chains

A

2 alpha, 2 gamma

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29
Q

Fetal vs adult Hgb: Higher affinity to O2

A

Fetal

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30
Q

Total iron in the body

A

4-5 g

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31
Q

Total iron in the body consists of

A

1) Hgb (65%)
2) Myoglobin
3) Heme compounds that promote intracellular oxidation

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32
Q

Hemoglobin with ferric iron attached

A

Methemoglobin

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33
Q

Iron loss in menses

A

0.7 mg/day

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34
Q

Iron excreted in the stool

A

0.6 mg/day

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35
Q

Last stage of RBC with nucleus

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast

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36
Q

Earliest stage of RBC normally found in circulation

A

Reticulocytes

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37
Q

of days reticulocytes mature in the circulation

A

1-2

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38
Q

T/F Reticulocytes does not contain remnant organelles

A

F, contains

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39
Q

Stages of erythrocyte maturation

A

1) Proerythroblast (Pronormoblast)
2) Basophilic erythroblast
3) Polychromatic erythroblast
4) Orthochromatic erythroblast (normoblast)
5) Reticulocyte (polychromatic erythrocyte)
6) Erythrocyte

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40
Q

Iron transporter

A

Transferrin

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41
Q

Primary storage form of iron

A

Ferritin

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42
Q

Supplemental storage of iron

A

Hemosiderin

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43
Q

Effect of EPO will manifest after how many days

A

5

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44
Q

Energy system used by RBCs

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

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45
Q

of ATPs generated from anaerobic glycolysis

A

2

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46
Q

3 major reaction pathways of aerobic respiration

A

1) Aerobic glycolysis
2) Krebs cycle
3) ETC

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47
Q

Net ATP from aerobic glycolysis

A

2

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48
Q

Net ATP from Krebs cycle

A

2

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49
Q

Net ATP from ETC

A

32

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50
Q

Net energy production from aerobic respiration

A

36 ATP

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51
Q

Net energy produced from anaerobic glycosis/respiration

A

2 ATP

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52
Q

Lifespan of adult RBC

A

120 days

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53
Q

Lifespan of fetal RBC

A

90 days

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54
Q

Cell responsible for extravascular destruction of RBC

A

Macrophage

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55
Q

Nutrients essential for DNA synthesis (2)

A

1) Vitamin B12

2) Folic acid

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56
Q

Nutrient deficiency: Megaloblastic anemia + neural deficits

A

Vitamin B12

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57
Q

Nutrient deficiency: Megaloblastic anemia + NTD

A

Folic acid

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58
Q

Substance needed for Vit B12 absoprtion

A

IF

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59
Q

Sources of Vit B12

A

Meat products

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60
Q

Sources of folic acid

A

Green leafy vegetables

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61
Q

Innate vs adaptive immunity: Complement system

A

Both

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62
Q

IgG vs IgM: Acute response

A

IgM

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63
Q

IgG vs IgM: Long-term response/protection

A

IgG

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64
Q

Lifespan of GRANULOCYTES in blood

A

4-8 hrs

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65
Q

Lifespan of GRANULOCYTES in tissues

A

4-5 days

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66
Q

Lifespan of Monocytes in blood

A

10-20 hrs

67
Q

Lifespan of Lymphocytes

A

Weeks to months

68
Q

2nd most abundant WBC

A

Lymphocyte

69
Q

Weak phagocytes

A

Eosinophils

70
Q

Released by mast cells and basophils for eosinophil chemotaxis

A

Eosinophil chemotactic factor

71
Q

Basophils: Share functional similarities with what cell

A

Mast cell

72
Q

Largest WBC

A

Monocyte

73
Q

Smallest WBC

A

Lymphocyte

74
Q

Prominent features of monocytes (2)

A

1) Eccentrically placed nucleus

2) Ground glass cytoplasm

75
Q

Lifespan of platelets

A

7-10 days

76
Q

Cell with pale, basophilic, non-granular cytoplasm

A

Lymphocyte

77
Q

Least numerous WBC

A

Basophil

78
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Released as mature cells

A

Neutrophils

79
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Released as immature cells

A

Macrophages

80
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Can phagocytize 3-20 bacteria before dying

A

Neutrophils

81
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Can phagocytise up to 100 bacteria or larger particles before dying

A

Macrophages

82
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Lipases

A

Macrophages

83
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Proteases

A

Both

84
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Hypochlorite

A

Both

85
Q

Neutrophils vs macrophages: Free radicals

A

Both

86
Q

Conversion of monocytes to tissue macrophages takes how long

A

At least 8 hours

87
Q

Monocyte and granulocyte production from BM in times of inflammation takes how long

A

3-4 days

88
Q

Empyema vs abscess: Occur in normal spaces

A

Empyema

89
Q

Empyema vs abscess: Occur in abnormal spaces

A

Abscess

90
Q

Antibodies constitute ___% of plasma proteins

A

20%

91
Q

IgA in mucosa

A

IgA2

92
Q

IgA in serum

A

IgA1

93
Q

Dimer vs monomer: IgA in serum

A

Monomer

94
Q

Dimer vs monomer: IgA in secretions

A

Dimer

95
Q

Divalent antibody

A

IgG

96
Q

Most abundant antibody

A

IgG

97
Q

Antibody: Smallest

A

IgG

98
Q

Antibody: Primary immune response

A

IgM

99
Q

Antibody: Largest

A

IgM

100
Q

Antibody: Crosses placenta

A

IgG

101
Q

Antibody: Secondary immune response

A

IgG

102
Q

Antibody: Main Ab in secretions

A

IgA

103
Q

Antibody: Allergies and hypersensitivity

A

IgE

104
Q

Antibody: Surface of B lymphocytes

A

IgD

105
Q

Antibody: Surface of mast cells

A

IgE

106
Q

Antibody: Direct mechanisms (4)

A

1) Agglutination
2) Precipitation
3) Neutralization
4) Lysis

107
Q

Antibody: Indirect mechanism

A

Complement activation

108
Q

Antibody: Mechanism whereby ICs are formed

A

Precipitation

109
Q

Complement: Mechanisms (3)

A

1) Opsonizarion
2) MAC
3) Stimulation of inflammation

110
Q

Complement: Opsonin

A

C3b

111
Q

Complement: Anaphylatoxin

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

112
Q

Complement: Chemotaxin

A

C5a

113
Q

Complement: MAC

A

C5b-C9

114
Q

Complement: Stimulus of the classic pathway

A

Immune complex

115
Q

T helper cells: CD and MHC

A

CD 4+, MHC II

116
Q

T cytotoxic cells: CD and MHC

A

CD 8+, MHC I

117
Q

T cells: Most numerous

A

T helper

118
Q

T cytotoxic cells create holes via what substance

A

Perforin

119
Q

T cytotoxic cells: Targets

A

1) Virally-infected cells
2) Tumor cells
3) Transplanted cells

120
Q

T helper cell promotes B cell formation and proliferation via what cytokines

A

IL 4,5,6

121
Q

T helper cells promotes proliferation and activation of cytotoxic, suppressor, and memory cells via what cytokine

A

Il-1

122
Q

T cell: Makes sure normal cells are not killed

A

T suppressor

123
Q

T cell: Assures better and quicker response for APC

A

T memory

124
Q

Surface antigen: Type A

A

N-acetyl-galactosamine

125
Q

Ig Type: Anti-A and Anti-B

A

MOSTLY IgM

126
Q

Precursor to the ABO antigens

A

H antigen

127
Q

Phenotype that does not present H antigen

A

Bombay

128
Q

Phenotype that cannot receive Type O blood

A

Bombay

129
Q

Bombay phenotyp cannot receive Type O blood because

A

Presence of anti-H

130
Q

ABO locus is located on which chromosome

A

9

131
Q

End of H antigen to which ABO antigens bind

A

D-galactose

132
Q

Surface antigen: Type B

A

D-galactose

133
Q

Surface antigen: AB

A

N-acetylgalactosamine and D-galactose

134
Q

Surface antigen: O

A

H antigen

135
Q

Surface antigen: Rh

A

CDEcde

136
Q

Rh vs ABO antibody: Spontaneously acquired

A

ABO

137
Q

Rh vs ABO antibody: Acquired from exposure to the specific RBC antigen

A

Rh

138
Q

ABO antibodies: Start production at

A

2-8 months

139
Q

ABO antibodies: Maximum tiger achieved at

A

8-10 y/o

140
Q

Widely prevalent Rh antigen

A

D

141
Q

Events in hemostasis (4)

A

1) Vasoconstriction
2) Platelet plug formation
3) Coagulation
4) Resolution

142
Q

Type of thrombus formed in platelet plug formation

A

Primary

143
Q

Type of thrombus formed in coagulation

A

Secondary

144
Q

Substance secreted by endothelial cells for vasoconstriction

A

Endothelin-1

145
Q

Platelet adhesion is mediated by: substance on platelet

A

Gp1b

146
Q

Platelet adhesion is mediated by: substance on subendothelium

A

vWF

147
Q

Platelet aggregation is mediated by: substance in the circulation

A

Fibrinogen

148
Q

Platelet aggregation is mediated by: substance on platelet

A

GpIIbIIIa

149
Q

Activates fibrinogen to fibrin

A

Thrombin

150
Q

Cofactor in activation of fibrinogen to fibrin

A

Calcium

151
Q

Activates prothrombin to thrombin

A

Prothrombin activator

152
Q

Cofactor in activation of prothrombin to thrombin

A

Calcium

153
Q

Initiating event of the EXTRINSIC pathway of the coagulation cascade

A

Vascular wall trauma

154
Q

Initiating event of the INTRINSIC pathway of the coagulation cascade

A

Exposure of subendothelial collagen

155
Q

Coagulation: Extrinsic coagulation cascade

A

III-VII-II-I

156
Q

Coagulation: Intrinsic coagulation cascade

A

XII-XI-IX-VIII-X-V-II-I

157
Q

Factor # absent/does not exist

A

Factor VI

158
Q

Coagulation factors

A
I Fibrinogen
IIProthrombin
III Tissue factor
IV Calcium
V Proaccelerin (labile factor)
VII Proconvertin (stable factor)
VIII Antihemophilic factor (Factor A)
IX Christmas factor (Factor B)
X Stuart-Prower factor
XI Factor C (plasma thromboplastin antecedent)
XII Hageman factor
XIII Fibrin-stabilizing factor
159
Q

Prekallikrein is aka

A

Fletcher factor

160
Q

HMWK is aka

A

Fitzgerald factor

161
Q

Dissolution of clot is initiated by

A

tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

162
Q

4 phases of wound healing

A

1) Hemostasis
2) Inflammation
3) Proliferation (granulation tissue formation)
4) Maturation

163
Q

Most crucial event in wound healing

A

Hemostasis