Infectious Disease I Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Infectious Disease I Deck (36)
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1
Q

List six resistant pathogens (Kill Each and Every Strong Pathogens, KEAESP)

A
  1. Klebsiella pneumoniae (ESBL, CRE)
  2. Escherichia coli (ESBL, CRE)
  3. Acinetobacter baumannii
  4. Enterococcus faecalis, Enterococcus faecium (VRE)
  5. Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
  6. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2
Q

List five characteristics of hydrophilic ABX

A
  1. small volume of distribution (poor tissue penetration)
  2. renal elimination (nephrotoxicity/accumulation)
  3. low intracellular concentrations (not active against atypical/intracellular pathogens)
  4. increased clearance and/or distribution in sepsis (loading doses/aggressive dosing in sepsis)
  5. poor-moderate bioavailability (not used PO or IV:PO ratio is not 1:1)
3
Q

List five hydrophilic ABX

A
  1. Beta-lactams
  2. aminoglycosides
  3. glycopeptides
  4. daptomycin
  5. polymyxins
4
Q

List five characteristics of lipophilic ABX

A
  1. large volume of distribution (excellent tissue penetration)
  2. hepatic metabolism (hepatotoxicity and DDI)
  3. achieve intracellular concentrations (active against atypical/intracellular organisms)
  4. clearance distribution minimally changed in sepsis
  5. excellent bioavailability (IV:PO ratio is often 1:1)
5
Q

List six lipophilic ABX

A
  1. quinolones
  2. macrolides
  3. rifampin
  4. linezolid
  5. tetracyclines
  6. chloramphenicol
6
Q

List four drugs that are active for community-associated MRSA skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs)

A
  1. SMX/TMP
  2. Doxycycline, minocycline
  3. clindamycin
  4. Linezolid
7
Q

List nine drugs that are active for SSTIs requiring IV treatment or hospitalization (cover MRSA and streptococci)

A
  1. Vancomycin
  2. Linezolid, tedizolid
  3. Daptomycin
  4. Ceftaroline
  5. Telavancin
  6. Oritavancin
  7. Dalbavancin
  8. Quinupristin/dalfopristin
  9. Tigecycline
8
Q

List five drugs that are used for nosocomial MRSA infections

A
  1. Vancomycin (consider using alternative if MIC >2)
  2. Linezolid
  3. Daptomycin (not in pneumonia)
  4. Rifampin (select infections, never used alone)
  5. Telavancin
9
Q

List five drugs/drug classes used for E. Faecalis VRE

A
  1. Pen G or ampicillin
  2. Linezolid
  3. Daptomycin
  4. Tigecycline
  5. Cystitis only: nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, doxycycline

**Pen G or ampicillin active for E. Faecalis but not E. Faecium

10
Q

List five drugs/drug classes for E. Faecium VRE

A
  1. Daptomycin
  2. Linezolid
  3. Quinupristin/dalfopristin
  4. Tigecycline
  5. Cystitis only: nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, doxycycline

**. Quinupristin/dalfopristin active for E. Faecium but not E. Faecalis

11
Q

List ten drugs that are active against pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  1. Piperacillin/tazobactam
  2. Cefepime
  3. Ceftazidime
  4. Ceftazidime/avibactam
  5. Ceftolozane/Tazobactam
  6. Carbapenems (except ertapenem)
  7. Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
  8. Aztreonam
  9. Aminoglycosides
  10. Colistimethate, polymixin B
12
Q

List seven drugs that are active against acinetobacter baumannii

A
  1. carbapenems (except ertapenem)
  2. ampicillin/sulbactam
  3. minocycline
  4. tigecycline
  5. quinolones
  6. bactrim
  7. colistimethate, polymyxin B
13
Q

List six drugs that are active against ESBL-producing gram-negative rods [E. Coli, K. Pneumonieae, P. mirabilis)

A
  1. Carbapenems
  2. ceftolozane/tazobactam
  3. ceftazidime/avibactam
  4. cefepime (high-dose)
  5. aminoglycosides
  6. cystitis only: fosfomycin
14
Q

List two drugs that are active against carbapenem-resistant gram-negative rods

A
  1. ceftazidime/avibactam

2. colistimethate, polymyxin B

15
Q

List six drugs/drug classes that are active against bacteroides fragilis

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitors
  3. cefotetan, cefoxitin
  4. carbapenems
  5. tigecycline
  6. others (reduced activity): clindamycin, moxifloxacin
16
Q

List three drugs that are active against c. Defficile infection

A
  1. vancomycin (oral)
  2. fidaxomicin
  3. metronidazole
17
Q

List three drugs/drug classes that are active against atypical organisms

A
  1. azithromycin, clarithromycin
  2. doxycycline, minocycline
  3. quinolones
18
Q

HNPEK (H. influenzae. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Proteus. E. coli. Klebsiella)

A
  1. beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor
  2. amoxicillin (if beta-lactamase negative)
  3. cephalosporins (except 1st generation)
  4. carbapenems
  5. SMX/TMP
  6. aminoglycosides
  7. quinolones
19
Q

List 14 oral liquid antibiotics that are DO NOT REFRIGERATE

A
  1. cefdinir
  2. azithromycin
  3. clarithromycin
  4. doxycycline
  5. ciprofloxacin
  6. levofloxacin
  7. clindamycin
  8. linezolid
  9. bactrim
  10. acyclovir
  11. fluconazole
  12. posaconazole
  13. voriconazole
  14. nystatin
20
Q

List twelve oral liquid antibiotics that require refrigeration after reconstitution

A
  1. penicillin VK
  2. ampicillin
  3. amoxicillin/clavulanate
  4. cephalexin
  5. cefadroxil
  6. cefpodoxime
  7. cefprozil
  8. cefuroxime
  9. cefaclor
  10. ceftibuten
  11. vancomycin oral (Firvanq)
  12. Valgancyclovir (Valcyte)
21
Q

List four IV antibiotics that require refrigeration

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Moxifloxacin
  3. Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
  4. acyclovir
22
Q

List eighteen ABX that do not require renal dose adjustment

A
  1. antistaphylococcal penicillins (dicloxacillin, nafcillin, oxacillin)
  2. ceftriaxone
  3. clindamycin
  4. doxycycline
  5. azithromycin and erythromycin
  6. metronidazole
  7. moxifloxacin
  8. linezolid
  9. chloramphenicol
  10. fidaxomicin
  11. minocycline
  12. quinupristin/dalfopristin
  13. rifaximin
  14. rifampin
  15. tedizolid
  16. tigecycline
  17. tinidazole
  18. vancomycin (PO only)
23
Q

List six ABX that can cause hemolytic anemia with G6PD deficiency

A
  1. chloroquine
  2. dapsone
  3. nitrofurantoin
  4. primaquine
  5. probenecid (used synergistically)
  6. SMX
24
Q

List seven ABX that can cause hemolytic anemia with Coombs test

A
  1. Beta-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanate, tazobactam)
  2. cephalosporins
  3. isoniazid
  4. nitrofurantoin
  5. penicillins
  6. quinine
  7. rifampin
  8. SMX
25
Q

List three ABX that can cause drug-induced lupud erythrmatosus (positive rheumatoid factor, elevated antinuclear body antigen, elevated ESR, elevated CRP)

A
  1. Isoniazid
  2. Minocycline
  3. Terbinafine
26
Q

List four ABX that can cause false-positive urine glucose tests (with copper reduction tests)

A
  1. penicillins
  2. cephalosporins
  3. imipenem
  4. isoniazid
27
Q

List two ABX that can cause false elevation for aPTT

A
  1. oritavancin

2. telavancin

28
Q

List three ABX that can cause false elevation of INR

A
  1. daptomycin
  2. oritavancin
  3. telavancin
29
Q

List ABX that can cause elevated CPK

A
  1. Daptomycin
30
Q

List ABX that should be taken within 1 hour of finishing a meal

A

Amoxicillin (Moxatag)

31
Q

List eight ABX that should be taken on an empty stomach

A
  1. ampicililn oral capsules and suspension
  2. ceftibuten suspension
  3. levofloxacin oral solution
  4. penicillin VK
  5. Riafmpin
  6. Isoniazid
  7. itraconazole solution
  8. voriconazole solution
32
Q

List six ABX/ABX drug classes that have a 1:1 IV to oral dosing

A
  1. levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
  2. doxycycline, minocycline
  3. Bactrim
  4. Linezolid, tedizolid
  5. metronidazole
  6. fluconazole, isavuconazonium, posaconazole (oral tablets and IV), voriconazole
33
Q

List three ABX that require light protection during administration

A
  1. doxycycline
  2. micafungin
  3. pentamidine
34
Q

List five ABX that require DEXTROSE ONLY (no saline)

A
  1. dalbavancin, oritavancin
  2. pentamidine
  3. quinupristin/dalfopristin
  4. Bactrim
  5. amphotericin B
35
Q

List four ABX that require SALINE ONLY (no dextrose)

A
  1. ampicillin
  2. ampicililn/sulbactam
  3. ertapenem
  4. daptomycin (cubicin RF)
36
Q

List two ABX that are compatible with LR only

A
  1. caspofungin

2. daptomycin (cubicin)