Living anatomy and dissection Flashcards

1
Q

Up until which vertebral level are nerves above the vertebrae?

A

C1-C7. At C8, nerves are below vertebrae.

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2
Q

What is the pattern of primary/secondary curvatures as you move along the spine?

A

CTLS: 2121

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3
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

‘hunchback’ Excessive thoracic curvature of spine

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4
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Excessive lumbar curvature of spine

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5
Q

What are the erector spinae muscles?

A

Iliocostalis
Longissimus
Spinalis

= group of muscles which help in movement of vertebral column.

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6
Q

What is the name of the ligament which lines the anterior and posterior portions of the vertebral column?

A

The longitudinal ligaments

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7
Q

What is the name of the ligament which connects the spinous processes?

A

Supraspinous ligaments

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8
Q

What are the ligaments in between adjacent spinous procceses?

A

Interspinous ligaments

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9
Q

Which ligament is most likely to be damaged in whiplash?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

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10
Q

What head movements occur at atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints?

A
Atlanto-occipital = flexion and extension
Atlanto-axial = rotation
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11
Q

What head movements occur at atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints?

A
Atlanto-occipital = flexion and extension
Atlanto-axial = rotation
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12
Q

How many spinal arteries are there?

A

x1 anterior and x2 posterior

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13
Q

Which is the only cervical vertebrae with a prominent spinous process?

A

C7

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14
Q

How would you test for a vertebral compression fracture.

A

Find spinous process and tap. Patient will feel pain if fractured.

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15
Q

Name x3 complications of central line insertion

A

Pneumothorax, nerve injury, artery puncture, arrhrythmias.

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16
Q

What are the components of the carotid sheath?

A

Vagus nerve, internal jugular vein, common carotid artery.

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17
Q

What is the difference between a vein and an artery?

A
Vein = Collapsible
Artery = Pulsatile
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18
Q

What does the suffix -spondy mean?

A

Vertebrae

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19
Q

At which level does the spinal cord end?

A

L2

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20
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

A bundle of nerves where a lumbar puncture is taken.

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21
Q

What is in the dorsal root ganglion?

A

Contains cell bodies of sensory neurons

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22
Q

Name two differences between the anterior and posterior ramus?

A

The anterior ramus is larger than the posterior ramus.

The anterior ramus innervates limbs and arms whereas posterior ramus innervates only the back of the spine.

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23
Q

What is the difference between a spinal and epidural anaesthetic?

A

Spinal anaesthetic: taken from inside the subarachnoid space.
Epidural anaesthetic: Taken from the epidural space.

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24
Q

Which anaesthetic is easier to perform?

A

The epidural anaesthetic; more convenient for a larger volume of fluid.

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25
Q

What does more weight on the lower spine mean?

A

More chance of prolapsed disc.

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26
Q

What are the borders of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A

Inferior border of the mandible, midline of the neck, anterior part of sternocleidomastoid.

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27
Q

Which nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

A

The accessory nerve.

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28
Q

What are the infrahyoid muscles?

A

Omohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid and thyrohyoid muscles.

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29
Q

Which cranial nerve number is the hypoglossal nerve?

A

12

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30
Q

What are the borders of the posterior triangle of the neck?

A

Anterior part of trapezius, posterior part of sternocleidomastoid, superior part of clavicle.

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31
Q

What are the two branches of the carotid arteries and what do they supply?

A

The internal carotid artery supplies the brain

The external carotid artery supplies the face and neck

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32
Q

Which muscle does the parotid gland innervate?

A

The buccinator muscle. This muscle pushes food to the middle of the mouth.

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33
Q

The buccinator muscle gets its innervation from where?

A

The facial nerve

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34
Q

All muscles of mastication (apart from buccinator) receive innervation from which facial nerve?

A

The trigeminal nerve. The buccinator muscle receives innervation from the facial nerve.

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35
Q

Name two superficial muscles of mastication

A

Masseter and Temporalis

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36
Q

Name two deeper muscles of mastication

A

Pterygoid muscles

  • Lateral pterygoid depresses mandible to open mouth
  • Medial pterygoid elevates mandible for chewing
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37
Q

Which is the carotid artery with numerous branches - internal or external?

A

The external carotid artery: SALFOPMS

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38
Q

The mandibular nerve is a division of which cranial nerve?

A

The trigeminal nerve - CX 5.

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39
Q

Is the trigeminal nerve sensory or motor?

A

Sensory

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40
Q

How many divisions of the trigeminal nerve are there?

A

3 - Opthalmic, maxillary, mandibular. (V1, V2, V3).

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41
Q

Through which structure does the facial nerve enter the skull?

A

The stylomastoid foramen.

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42
Q

Through which structure does the facial nerve exit the skull?

A

The internal acoustic meatus.

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43
Q

What are the branches of the facial nerve?

A

Mandibular, buccal, cervical, zygomatic and temporal.

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44
Q

Which nerve innervates the posterior portion of the tongue?

A

Sensation and taste comes from the glossopharyngeal.

Motor function comes from the hypoglossal nerve.

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45
Q

From which branch does the middle meningeal artery arise?

A

The maxillary artery.

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46
Q

How does the middle meningeal artery enter the skull?

A

Through the foramen spinosum.

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47
Q

Which nerve supples the parotid gland?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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48
Q

Which nerve supplies the submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

Facial nerve

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49
Q

Which are the four muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter, temporalis, lateral pterygoid, medial pterygoid.

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50
Q

What is the role of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

Depresses mandible to open mouth

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51
Q

What is the role of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

Elevates mandible for chewing

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52
Q

What is the chorda tympani?

A

A branch of the lingual nerve which is a branch of the mandibular nerve which is a divison of the facial nerve.

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53
Q

What is the chorda tympani?

A

A branch of the lingual nerve which is a branch of the mandibular nerve which is a division of the facial nerve. It facilitates taste for anterior portion of tongue.

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54
Q

What is the nerve innervation to the larynx?

A

The superior laryngeal nerve - branching into the internal and external nerves

The recurrent (inferior) laryngeal nerve - branching into the left and right nerves

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55
Q

What will a lesion on the vagus nerve cause for the larynx?

A

Complete paralysis

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56
Q

What will a lesion on the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve cause?

A

Loss of sensation above the vocal cords

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57
Q

What will a lesion on the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve cause?

A

Paralysis of the cricothyroid muscle.

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58
Q

What will a lesion on the recurrent laryngeal nerve cause?

A

Paralysis of all other larynx muscles (except cricothyroid and vocal cord sensation).

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59
Q

What is the laryngeal prominence?

A

The adam’s apple/ thyroid cartilage.

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60
Q

Which parts of the ear are most superficially viewed by an otoscope?

A

The auricle, external auditory meatus leading to the tympanic membrane.

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61
Q

Which structure is most seen most superficially by an otoscope?

A

The external auditory meatus

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62
Q

The eardrum refers specifically to which part of the ear?

A

The tympanic membrane

63
Q

Which parts of the ear are most superficially viewed by an otoscope?

A

External auditory meatus leading to the tympanic membrane.

64
Q

What is the eustachian tube?

A

From the nasopharynx to the cavity of the middle ear

65
Q

What are ‘deciduous’ teeth?

A

Teeth including milk teeth.

66
Q

Give x3 indications for a central venous line

A

Nutritional support
Pacing wire
Drug infusions

67
Q

Give x3 contraindications for a central venous line

A

Trauma
Infection
Haemorrhage

68
Q

Which is the only motor nerve of the tongue?

A

The hypoglossal nerve

69
Q

Give x3 complications for a central venous line

A
Trachea damage
Artery puncture
Pneumothorax
Arrhythmias
Nerve injury
70
Q

What are the contents of the carotid sheath?

A

Internal jugular vein, common carotid artery, vagus nerve.

71
Q

Instead of a head tilt in those with spinal injury, what do we do?

A

A jaw thrust.

72
Q

What level is the sternal angle?

A

T4

73
Q

Where does the internal jugular vein drain into?

A

The brachiocephalic vein

74
Q

Where does the accessory nerve exit the skull?

A

The Jugular Foramen

75
Q

Which muscle does the Trochlear nerve control?

A

The Superior Oblique muscle

76
Q

Which muscle does the Abducens nerve control?

A

The Lateral rectus muscle

77
Q

Which bone borders the lacrimal bone on a diagram?

A

Ethmoid bone

78
Q

What is the name of the posterior suture of the brain?

A

Lambdoid suture

79
Q

Name the three branches of the trigeminal nerve

A

V1 - Opthalmic
V2 - Maxillary
V3 - Mandibular

80
Q

How many cranial nerves enter the middle cranial fossa?

A

4; 2 enter anterior, 4 enter medial and 6 enter posterior cranial fossa.

81
Q

Which cranial nerve pass through the supraorbital fissure?

A

oculomotor, trochlear, v1 of trigeminal - opthalmic and abducens

82
Q

Which two cranial nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

facial and vestibulococchlear nerve

83
Q

What is the name of the bone which has a greater and lesser wing?

A

Sphenoid bone

84
Q

What is the name of the pathology where sympathetic stimulation to the face is lost resulting in lack of sweating?

A

Horner’s syndrome

85
Q

Which are the two elbow flexors? (do the movement if stuck)

A

Biceps and brachialis

86
Q

Which nerve is damaged in Carpel tunnel syndrome?

A

The median nerve

87
Q

Is Carpel tunnel syndrome irreversible?

A

No; often recovery is good with surgical release of trapped nerve.

88
Q

Which two muscles does the axillary nerve supply?

A

The teres minor and deltoid muscle

89
Q

Which main nerves supply only the forearm but not the arm?

A

The ulnar nerve and median nerve (but they still run down the whole arm)

90
Q

The ulnar nerve supplies which two muscles in the forearm?

A

The Flexor Carpi Ulnaris and Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP)

91
Q

Does the radial nerve run anterior or posteriorly?

A

Posterior (triceps)

92
Q

Does the musculocutaneous nerve run anterior or posteriorly?

A

Anteriorly (biceps)

93
Q

Which muscle does the thoracodorsal nerve supply?

A

The Latissimus Dorsi

94
Q

Which muscle does the Long thoracic muscle supply?

A

Serratus anterior

95
Q

Which artery supplies most of the arm and what does it derive from?

A

The axillary artery which derives from the subclavian artery

96
Q

Where does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

A

At the inferior border of the teres major muscle.

97
Q

Where does the brachial artery bifurcate to become the ulnar and radial arteries?

A

The cubital fossa.

98
Q

The ulnar artery becomes which structure in the wrist?

A

The superficial palmar artery

99
Q

The radial artery becomes which structure in the wrist?

A

The deep palmar artery

100
Q

Describe the venous system of the limbs

A

Superficial and deep veins.
Superficial = cephalic and basilic veins.
Cephalic passes through deltoid and pectoralis major to pierce axillary vein
Basilic runs with the brachial artery and joints with its venae comitantes to form axillary vein.

Deep veins = venae comitantes

101
Q

Which is lateral and which is medial between the cephalic and basilic veins?

A
Cephalic = lateral
Basilic = medial
102
Q

Where does the subclavian artery become the axillary artery?

A

At the border of the first rib

103
Q

How is the axillary vein formed?

A

The cephalic and superficial veins form the axillary vein.

104
Q

Which muscles are affected in Erb’s palsy?

A

Nerves C5 and C6 = muscles: Biceps, brachialis, deltoid, serratus anterior

105
Q

What is damage to nerves C8 and T1 called as a lesion?

A

Klumpke’s lesion

106
Q

What is the difference between a claw like hand a true claw?

A

Claw hand = ulnar nerve injury

Hand of benediction = median nerve injury

107
Q

What happens in the ‘Claw-like hand’?

A

Ulnar nerve injury = hyperextension at MCPs and flexion at IPs.

108
Q

Describe the ulnar paradox

A

Injury more distal = more severe claw hand.

109
Q

Which is the first long bone to ossify and through which process?

A

The clavicle; through intramembranous ossification; long bone.

110
Q

On which bone are the capitulum and trochlea found and in what position relative to one another?

A
Capitulum = lateral
Trochlea = medial
111
Q

What does the humeral head articulate with?

A

The Glenoid cavity

112
Q

What does the humeral head articulate with?

A

The Glenoid cavity of the scapula.

113
Q

The humerus is in contact with which nerves?

A

Axillary nerve; winds around surgical neck of humerus
Radial nerve - runs in radial groove of humerus
Ulnar nerve runs posterior to medial epicondyle
Median nerve (supracondylar fractures).

114
Q

What are the superior, medial and inferior angles of the scapula levels?

A

T2, T3 and T7.

115
Q

What is adduction?

A

Moving towards the midline of the body

116
Q

What is rotation?

A

Moving around the longitudinal axis.

117
Q

What is opposition?

A

Moving the pad of the thumb towards the pad of another digit.

118
Q

Winging of the scapula can be caused by what?

A

Damage to long thoracic nerve - innervating serratus anterior.

119
Q

Which are the carpal bones?

A

Triquetrum, scaphoid and lacunate

120
Q

Where does the median nerve supply most muscles?

A

The forearm

121
Q

Which muscles does the radial nerve supply?

A

Those of the forearm and arm.

122
Q

What is the FCU and which nerve supplies it?

A

The Flexor Carpi Ulnaris - supplied by the ulnar nerve.

123
Q

Which is more medial - the brachialis or the biceps brachii?

A

Brachialis

124
Q

Name the boundaries of the cubital fossa

A

Pronator teres
Brachioradialis
Line between epicondyles

125
Q

What are the contents of the snuffbox?

A

The radial artery and the scaphoid bone.

126
Q

Which two muscles does the ulnar supply?

A

FCU (Flexor Carpi Ulnaris) and ulnar half of FDP.

127
Q

Which structure forms the roof of the carpal tunnel?

A

The Flexor retinaculum

128
Q

Which is the prominent artery of the hand?

A

The radial artery

129
Q

How is each spinal nerve formed?

A

Between an anterior and dorsal root

130
Q

How many spinal nerves are there? Describe their distribution.

A

31; 8, 12, 5, 5, 1

131
Q

Which plexi supply the neck?

A

C1-C4

132
Q

Which plexi supply the lower limbs?

A

L2-S2

133
Q

Which plexi supply the upper limbs?

A

C5-T1 (The brachial plexus!)

134
Q

What are the two ways in which innervation of the lower limb can be assessed?

A
  1. Segmentally

2. Peripherally.

135
Q

Which are the 5 ways to assess nerve function?

A

Motor, sensory, reflex, autonomic and trophic.

136
Q

In the upper limb, do the anterior or posterior divisions supply the extensor muscles?

A

The posterior divisions

137
Q

In the lower limb, which muscles are anterior?

A

The extensors (opposite to upper limb)

138
Q

Caudal refers to which direction

A

Tail - more inferior

139
Q

What is the name for where dermatomes are not linked to the spinal level?

A

Axial lines

140
Q

Which are the dermatomes which supply the perineum and perianal region?

A

S2-S4.

141
Q

Which dermatome(s) supplies the front of the thigh?

A

L3; L3 to the knee

142
Q

Which dermatome(s) supplies the front of the whole leg?

A

L4; L4 to the floor

143
Q

Which are the two jerks of the lower limb?

A

Knee; L3

Ankle; S1

144
Q

What does the sciatic nerve branch into?

A

The common peroneal nerve and the tibial nerve.

145
Q

The sciatic nerve derives from which spinal roots?

A

L4,L5,S1, S2,S3

146
Q

What does the sural nerve branch off of?

A

The common peroneal nerve

147
Q

Which nerves supply the anterior, medial and posterior compartments of the thigh respectively?

A
Anterior = Femoral 
Medial = Obturator
Posterior = Sciatic
148
Q

Despite being superficial, which nerve is commonly injured by doctors (iatrogenic injuries) during procedures?

A

The femoral nerve

149
Q

Which is the most common reason for injury to the superior gluteal/ sciatic nerve?

A

Hip replacement

150
Q

The aorta first splits to form which arteries?

A

The iliac arteries

151
Q

From the femoral artery forming the popliteal artery, what does the popliteal artery branch into?

A

The anterior and posterior tibial arteries.

152
Q

Where is the Dorsalis pedis artery palpable?

A

Between the first and second metatarsal

153
Q

What is the difference in location of the short and long saphenous vein drainage?

A

Long saphenous vein drains the medial part of the dorsal foot.
Short saphenous vein drains the lateral part of the dorsal foot.

154
Q

How is the popliteal vein formed?

A

Venae comintantes of the anterior and posterior tibial arteries and the popliteal artery.