Micro 2 - Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the factors that influence the distribution of parasitic diseases?

A

Rapid Travel
Immigration
Increased # of immunocompromised patients

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2
Q

What is the definition of Infection?

A

Invasion and multiplication of a pathogenic parasite in the body with accompanying rxn by the host

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3
Q

Define Infestation

A

Parasitic organisms or arthropods that live on the surface of a host without multiplication.

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4
Q

Any damage of a host tissues or organs that leads to malfunction of an organ caused by a parasite is describing…

A

Disease

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5
Q

What is a Vector

A

Any arthropod or other living organism that transport a pathogenic microorganism from an infected to a non-infected host

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6
Q

What is the difference between a final/definitive host and an intermediate host?

A
Final = parasite passes sexual reproduction phase 
Intermediate = passes larval stage or asexual reproduction phase
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7
Q

T or F

Vector is usually a intermediate host

A

True

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8
Q

What is the exception to the vector being an intermediate host rule

A

Plasmodium Infection

Anophele Mosquitos carrying plasmodium - malaria mosquito is the final or definitive host & humans = intermediate

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9
Q

The animal that harbour a species of parasite & can serve as a source of parasitic infection is known as..

A

Reservoir Host

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10
Q

What type of antibodies are formed when parasites elicit an immune response?

A

IgM, IgG, and IgA

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11
Q

What are the factors effecting immune response to parasitic infections?

A

Rapid rate of reproduction
Large Size
Slime Layer & Capsule
Complex Life Cycles
Masking of surface antigens
Byproducts prevent production of antibodies, macrophages & lymphocytes
High production of IgE antibody (helminth worm)
Induced T-cell delayed hypersensitivity response
Concomitant - resistance to re-infection from an antibody
Long co-evolution with host = evolved adaptation

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12
Q

What does concomitant mean?

A

Parasitic larval form can be distorted by host antibodies and the presence of antibodies provides resistance to re-infection by new larvae.

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13
Q

T or F

A protozoa is a unicellular eukaryotic microorganism

A

True

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14
Q

What is the name for the worm like organisms?

A

Helminths-metazoa

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15
Q

Describe a protozoa

A

Unicellular, animal-like microbe usually having some form of motility

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16
Q

What are the classifications of medically important protozoa

A

Style of movement
Mode of reproduction
Stages in the life cycle

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17
Q

T or F

Most amebas are free living and very infectious

A

False

Usually not infectious

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18
Q

T or F

Amebas are major loco motors with pseudopodia

A

True!

Some species have flagella during reproductive states

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19
Q

How do Amebas reproduce?

A

Binary Fission (asexual)

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20
Q

T or F

The cyst is the active form & the trophozoite is the inactive form

A

False!
Opposite is true
Cyst = inactive
Trophozoite = active

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21
Q

Sarcodina aka

A

Ameba

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22
Q

T or F

Flagellata reproduce both sexually and asexually

A

True

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23
Q

What is the active form of a Flagellata? Inactive

A
Active = Trophozoite
Inactive = Cyst
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24
Q
All of the following are Flagellatas except:
Trypanosoma
Balantidium Coli
Giardia
Trichomonas 
Leishmania
A

Balantidium Coli

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25
Q

What is another name for Ciliophora?

A

Ciliata

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26
Q

What is the function of the cilia?

A

Movement
Attachment
Feeding

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27
Q

T or F

Ciliata reproduce sexually

A

False!

Asexual Transverse Fission

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28
Q

Give an example of Ciliata discussed in class

A

Balantidium Coli

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29
Q

T or F

The entire group of Sporozoa are parasites

A

True

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30
Q

How do Sporozoa reproduce?

A

By well developed asexual and sexual stages

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31
Q

Do most Sporozoa form Trophozoites or Cysts?

A

Cysts

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32
Q

What are the two main methods of transmission of Sporozoa?

A

Ingestion of the infective stage of protozoa

By arthropod vector

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33
Q

Where are Sarcodina (ameba) most commonly found in the human body?

A

Lower GI tract

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34
Q

What stage of the life cycle of a Sarcodina is infective to humans?

A

Some form a non-feeding, non-motile cyst stage

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35
Q

What is the metabolizing stage of the Ameba?

A

Trophozoite

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36
Q

T or F

In the active feeding stage of a Trophozoite they are sensitive to the environmental change

A

True

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37
Q

T or F

The cyst form of Ameba cannot survive for periods outside the body

A

False!

Can!

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38
Q

What makes the cyst form of the Ameba resistant to environmental changes

A

It is surrounded by mineral wall, mostly calcium

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39
Q

How many nuclei can the cyst form have depending on species?

A

1-8

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40
Q

When can a cyst form a trophozoite from its nuclei? During what stage?

A

Excyst Stage

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41
Q

What conditions will stimulate excitation of a cyst in the Gi tract?

A

Alkaline pH

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42
Q

T or F

Each nucleus of a cyst Ameba will produce 2 trophozoites

A

False!

One for One

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43
Q

How does the Trophozoite become a cyst as it moves along the GI

A

Trophozoite moves along with a bowel movement, the environment becomes drier and the trophozoites start to undergo encystation

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44
Q

T or F

Cyst formation can survive active dysentery

A

False!

Cannot because the feces are so rapidly flushed from body.

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45
Q

What does Entamoeba Histolytica cause in humans?

A

Amebic dysentery

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46
Q

Describe the different forms of Entamoeba Histolytica

A

Large motile trophozoite

Small non-motile cyst that contains 4 nuclei

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47
Q

What form of the Entamoeba will be destroyed in the mouth?

A

Trophozoite

Cysts will not be destroyed

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48
Q

Where do the trophozoites attach themselves in the human body?

A

The mucous of cecum and large intestines with pseudopods. They will mature and reproduce here.

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49
Q

T or F

90% of patient infection is asymptomatic

A

True

50
Q

Why are most patient infections of Histolytica asymptomatic?

A

Trophozoites do not invade beyond the most superficial layer of the mucous of cecum.

51
Q

Severity of infection of Histolytica are related to?

A

Virulence of parasite
Inoculation size
Normal flora
Host resistance

52
Q

The enzymes secreted by amebas in the intestinal tract leave small ulcerations that are what shape?

A

Flask

53
Q

What are some life threatening complications associated with intestinal amibiasis?

A

Hemorrhage
Appendicitis
Tumor-like growth (amebomas)

54
Q

What are the preventions and controls for Ameba infections?

A
Improve environmental and food sanitation 
Water tx
Cholorination
Boiling
Iodine 
Filtration
55
Q

T or F

Naeglaraia Fowleri is a free living ameba

A

True

56
Q

Where is Naeglaria Fowleri usually found?

A

among water fowls, ducks, geese, and swans

57
Q

What does Naeglaria Fowleri cause in humans?

A

Primary acute meningoencephalitis

58
Q

What shape is the trophozoite of Naegleria?

A

Small and flask shaped and moves by a single broad psuedopod

59
Q

Where does the Naegleria infection begin, and how?

A

Through the nasal passage of trophozoites as a result of swimming or diving in standing fresh water, lakes, ponds and even swimming pools and hot tubs.

60
Q

What is another name for the Stigophorans

A

Flagellates

61
Q

What is the reservoir for Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

Human urogenital tract

62
Q

What is the std caused by Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Trichomonoiasis
Trichomanad vaginitis in females
Uretheritis in males

63
Q

T or F

Males have more symptoms that females for Trichomonoiasis

A

False

Females - creamy odorous green to yellowish vaginal discharge, vulvitis, cervicitis, and urinary frequency with pain.

64
Q

If an asymptomatic male has Trichomonoiasis for years it can lead to what condition?

A

Procticitis

65
Q

Describe the trophozoite of Trichomonas Vaginalis

A

Motile, pear shaped that can be identified in fresh urine or in a urethral or vaginal smear.

66
Q

What is the most common intestinal flagellate parasite isolated in clinical specimens in the USA and most common type of parasite that pollute drinking water?

A

Giardia Lamblia

67
Q

What does Giardia cause?

A

Travellers Diarrhea and Giardiasis

68
Q

Describe what will happen to the ingested cyst of Giardia?

A

Excyst in the duodenum after 24 hrs

Trophozoides will travel to the jejune where they feed and multiply

69
Q

What is particular about the diarrhea associated with Giardia?

A

Foul smell

70
Q

T or F

Giardia is asymptomatic in 10% of infected individual due to the state of immunity

A

False

30%

71
Q

T or F

Cysts can be identified in stool specimens of Giardia

A

False

Trophozoites

72
Q

What is the shape of the Giardia Trophozoite?

A
  • Symmetrical heart shape with organelles positioned to resemble a face.
  • 2 nuclei & 4 pairs of flagella
73
Q

What kind of parasite is Leishmania and Trypanosoma?

A

Hemo-flagellate

74
Q

How are Leishmania and Trypanosoma spread?

A

Blood sucking vectors

75
Q

T or F

Both Leishmania and Trypanosoma are free living flagellates

A

False

Obligate parasite that causes zoonatic disease

76
Q

How is Leishmania transmitted and what disease does it cause?

A

Phlebotomine - Sand Fly

Leishmaniasis

77
Q

How many different pathogenic species of Leishmania are there?

A

4 that indistinguishable in appearance - but there is a different vector for each that is restricted to different geographic area.

78
Q

What type of Leishmania occurs in certain mediterranean, African and Indian regions?

A

Tropica

79
Q

In the life cycle of Leishmaniasis vector the amastigote forms and multiplies where in the human body?

A

Machrophages

80
Q

What is the infective stage of Leishmaniasis and the method of infection?

A
  • When the promastigote form multiplies in the gut of the fly.
    • Vector will then bite human and regurgitates promastigote which will invade the tissue at the wound site.
81
Q

What is the nature of infection of Leishmaniasis? Localized or systemic?

A

Both!
If macrophage remains fixed = localized
If macrophage migrate = systemic

82
Q

What is another name for Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

A

Oriental sore or Baghdad boil

83
Q

What type of Leishmania causes red itchy lesions that can spread along the lymphatic. It is also self healing.

A

Braziliensis

84
Q

What develops in a case of an absence of cell mediated immunity and Leishmania?

A

Diffuse Cutaneous Leishmonia

85
Q

What Leishmania is characteristics of a long incubation period 2-18 weeks and a short term pimple at the bite site

A

Leishmania Donovani

86
Q

Describe the symptomology of disseminated leishmonia donovani.

A

Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Hyperplasia of tissue and organs
Progressive anemia

87
Q

The trophozoite form of all leishmania is called?

A

Amastigote

88
Q

What is the name of the flagellate form of leishmania?

A

Promastigote

89
Q

What form is injected by an insect for Leishmania?

A

Promastigote

90
Q

T or F

The amastigote form of leishmania is extracellular

A

False!

It is the intracellular parasite

91
Q

T or F

The promastigote form of Leishmania reproduces by binary fission.

A

True

92
Q

Kala-azar is caused by?

A

Leishmania Donovani

93
Q

What is a distinguishing characteristic of Trypanosoma?

A

Their infective stage - the Trypomastigote, an elongated, spindle shaped cell with tapered ends and single flagellum.

94
Q

What are the two types of Trypanosoma and how do we distinguish them?

A

On a geographic basis:

  1. Cruzi
  2. Brucei
95
Q

What type of lifecycle do the Trypanosoma live?

A

Biphasic life cycle between a warm blooded mammal and an insect.

96
Q

What is the agent of Chaga’s disease?

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

*in central and south america it is known as American Trypanosomiasis

97
Q

What is the vector for Trypanosoma Cruzi?

A

The reduviid bug aka Kissing bug, Assasin Bug

98
Q

Where does the trophozoite of the T.Cruzi multiply?

A

In the bugs intestinal tract and the bug feces contain the parasite.

99
Q

How do humans get infected by the Assasin bug?

A

At night the bug usually bites the mucous membrane of peripheral area of lips, nose and eyes. As it fills with blood, the bug fills the bite with feces containing Trypanosoma.

100
Q

T or F

T.Cruzi cannot cross the placenta and cause prenatal disease

A

True

101
Q

Name the two different forms of T.Brucei

A
  1. T. Rhodiense - East African Sleeping Sickness

2. T. Gambiense - West African sleeping Sickness

102
Q

What form of T.Brucei has a vector that is adapted to woodland and lakefronts?

A

Rhodiense

103
Q

Where does the vector for T.Brucei Gambiense inhabit

A

Dense vegetation along rivers and forests.

104
Q

What is the vector for T.Brucei

A

Tseste Fly - bite is very painful

105
Q

Once the trypomastigote is ingested by tsetse fly what happens?

A

Changes form in an EPIMASTIGOTE which multiply in the fly gut.

106
Q

What is a Chagoma Reaction?

A

Swelling that forces the eye shut and can be either unilateral or bilateral. This is the result of a bite from an insect containing Trypanosoma

107
Q

Describe an Amastigote

A

A small, ovoid, non flagellated form of flagellate.

108
Q

What is an Epimastigote?

A

A flattened, spindle-shaped, flagellated form seen primarily in the gut or salivary gland of the vectors in the life cycle of trypanosomes. Has an undulating membrane that extends from the flagellum.

109
Q

What is the difference between the Epimastigote and the Promastigote?

A

The promastigote does not have the undulating membrane.

110
Q

What are some symptoms of T.Rhodesiense?

A

Lesion of bite site = chancre (usually in non africans)
Enlarged lymph nodes, especially post. cervical chain = Winterbottom’s Sign
Fever, headache, night sweats, nausea
Joint and muscle pain

111
Q

Name the characteristics of Sporozoa

A

Obligate intracellular parasites
No apparent organelles of locomotion
Sexual and asexual reproduction
Generally involves 2 different hosts.

112
Q

What type of reproduction for the Sporozoa uses the term Sporogony?

A

Sexual

113
Q

What is the final organism formed from sexual reproduction of Sporozoa?

A

Sporozoites

114
Q

What are the terms used to describe Asexual reproduction for Sporozoa

A

Schizogony -> Schizonts & Merozoites

115
Q

What is the difference between Schizonts and Merozoites

A
Schizonts = offspring when asexual.r occurs in a somatic cell such as the paranychamal cells of the liver
Merozoites = offspring when asexual.r occurs specifically in RBC's
116
Q

What does Schizogony mean?

A

Splitting

- refers to binary fission type reproduction

117
Q

How many sporocysts are in a mature oocyst?

A

2

118
Q

How many sporozoites are in each sporocyst?

A

4

119
Q

When an oocyst ruptures how many sporozoites are released?

A

8

120
Q

The Sporozoa Taxoplama causes what condition?

A

Taxoplasmosis