Midterm Flashcards Preview

Advanced Clet > Midterm > Flashcards

Flashcards in Midterm Deck (82)
Loading flashcards...
1
Q

Neonate

A

0-1 month

2
Q

Infant

A

1 month - 1 year

3
Q

Young Child

A

1 yr - 4 yr

4
Q

old child

A

5 yr - 10-yr

5
Q

adolescent

A

11- 19 yr

6
Q

General evaluation for the DC with a pedi patient

A
  1. measuring vitals
  2. determine neurological growth
  3. looking for signs of abuse
  4. screening for visions ( age 3-4)
7
Q

what is the average age of death for Trisomy 21

A

55 due to cardiac issues

8
Q

List some common characteristics with Trisomy 21

A
  • occurs 1/ 800 births
  • mental retardation
  • wide fixed. low bridged nose
    slanted eyes with epicanthus
  • Macroglossia
    -short limbs
    simian crease across palms
  • clinodactyly ( fifth finger shorter and crooked)
  • heart defects
  • atresia and stenosis
    -infertility
  • predisposed to leukemia
9
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A
    • abnormal segregation pf sex chromosome
  • short statue
  • increased values angle at elbows
  • webbed neck
  • barrel chest
  • coarctation of the aorta
  • normal female organs except “streaked” ovaries and girls do not develop secondary sex characteristics( usually infertile)
10
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Trisomy of sex chromosome ( 47 XXY)

  • occurs 1/700 births
  • occurs in boys and infertile
  • puberty does not develop
  • small penis, scant pubes
  • generally tall and possible enlargement breasts appearance
11
Q

Marfan’s syndrome

A
  • Scoliosis and kyphosis
  • subluxation of the lens of the eye
  • occurs in 1/ 10,000 births
  • dysfunction of the gene that codes for fibrillar (cognitive tissue protein)
  • tall, slender statue with elongated head (doliocephalic)
  • prominent frontal boss elation
  • aortic aneurysm
  • valvular insufficiency
  • cataracts

-

12
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by abnormal _________

A

maturation of collagen due to ATPase enzyme deficiency

13
Q

what are some clinical features of osteogenesis imperfect

A
  • scoliosis
  • fragility of the skeleton
  • blue sclera
  • abnormal dentition
  • fractures
  • bowing of extremities
    dislocations
  • basilar impression
  • ligamentous laxity
  • deafness
14
Q

what is the onset age for Huntington’s disease

A

30 to 40 years

15
Q

Cystic Fibrosis seen primarily in _______

A

caucasians

16
Q

what type of test is positive in cystic fibrosis

A

pilocarpine test

17
Q

what are some characteristics with cystic fibrosis

A
  • 1/2500 births
  • they have more glandular secretions from all exocrine glands
  • can lead to obstruction in pancreas, bronchi and intestines
18
Q

what is the primary concern with cystic fibrosis

A

accumulation of mucus that makes breathing difficult and allows for development of bronchiatisis and development of infections

19
Q

what is the pilocarpine test .. testing for ?

A

tests the sweat for increased salt content

20
Q

Sickle cell anemia death is usually due to what

A

infection
pulmonary infection
renal failure

21
Q

Sickle cell affects ___% blacks in the US

A

0.3 %

22
Q

Life expectancy for sickle cell anemia

A

greater than 50 years

23
Q

what are some common things with sickle cell anemia

A
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • growth retardation
  • prone to infections
  • bone infarcts that leads to severe pain in hands feet and lower leg
  • ## abdominal pain
24
Q

PKU if undetected leads to

A

mental retardation

25
Q

PKU is an ___ defect that involves metabolizes phenyl aline to tyrosine

A

enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase PAH

26
Q

what is the result of PKU

A

accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood and tissues which leads to phenyl pyretic acid excreted in urine

27
Q

Hemophilia ___ is always more severe

A

B

28
Q

_____ is common in Hemophilia

A

hemoarthrosis

29
Q

Hemophilia is what

A

a bleeding disorder due to a defected gene

30
Q

Coagulation factor VIII is _____

A

hemophilia A is most common and can be moderate or severe

31
Q

coagulation factor IX is ____

A

hemophilia B and more rare but always severe

32
Q

Thalassemia

A
  • may be alpha or beta trait
  • results in microcytosis out of proportion to anemia
  • patients are mild anemic
33
Q

Beta traits of thalassemia

A

mediterranean or chinese descent

usually require bone marrow transplant

34
Q

alpha trait thalassemia

A

southeast asia or china

35
Q

Polycystic kidney disease

A

occurs 1 in 400 to 1 in 1,000 birds

  • cyst are developed in kidney and liver (mc)
  • Spleen and and pancreas least common
  • CNS arachnoid
36
Q

T/F

Leukemia is the most common malignancy in children between ages 5-15

A

false

most common in ages 2-10 with peak onset at 4

37
Q

leukemia is mc in ___

A

boys

38
Q

what are the signs and symptoms

A
hepatsplenomegaly 
fatigue 
- bone pain 
- easily bruised 
- puprura 
- fever 
- lymphadenaphty 
- testicular enlargement 
-
39
Q

Lab testing for leukemia usually shows____

A

at least one cell type deficiency

40
Q

white blood cell count above ____ is a strong indicator of leukemia

A

50,000

41
Q

radiographic findings of leukemia are:

A
  • osteopenia
  • radiolucent metaphysical bands
    new periosteal formation
  • osteosclerosis
    bone destruction

chest vies may show mediastinal mass

42
Q

which is the most common leukemia

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

43
Q

____ is the poorest prognosis leukemia

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

44
Q

what is the tx of choice for leukemia

A

chemotherapy

45
Q

what is the best prognosis for leukemia

A

dx b/w ages 3 and 7 years

total WBC count of 25,00 or less with no CNS involvement

46
Q

overall cure rats for ALL is ___ %

A

75

47
Q

T/F

girls have more favorable prognosis than boys

A

true

48
Q

25 % to 30% of all childhood cancers are found in ____

A

CNS

49
Q

age onset for brain tumors are

A

5 to 10 yrs

50
Q

signs and symptoms for brain tumors in kids

A
headaches 
nausea 
vomitting 
seizures 
cranial nerve dysfunction 
cerebellar signs 
delayed puberty
51
Q

one-half of pediatric brain tumors occur above the ____ and the other half in the _____

A

tentorium

posterior fossa

52
Q

most common type of brain tumor

A

astrocytoma

53
Q

the ten year survival rate for surgical intervention with brain tumors are what

A

80% , astrocytomas carry a less than 25% two year survival rate

54
Q

60% of hodgkin’s lymphoma occurs in children ____ to ___ years old

A

10 to 16

55
Q

patient with early stages at time of tx have ____ five year survival rate

A

85 yo 90%

more advanced has 50 to 80 %

56
Q

signs and symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • fatigue
  • fever
  • chronic cough
  • night sweats
  • weight loss
  • painless cervical lymphadenopathy
  • mediastinal mass in 50%
57
Q

pathonmeomic for Hodkgin’s

A

reed stein burg cells ( CBC is often normal)

58
Q

Non- Hodkin’s occur normally in ages ____

A

15 and up

59
Q

non - hodgkin’s account for _____ of childhood malignancies

A

7 to 13%

60
Q

Signs and symptom’s for non hodgkin’s

A
loss of appetite 
- abdominal pain 
- hepatosplenomegealy 
- lymphadenopathy 
- fever 
- chills 
night sweats 
pathologic fx
61
Q

_________ is the most common solid neoplasm outside the CNS

A

neuroblastoma (7% to 10%)

62
Q

neuroblastoma occurs ____ % before age 2 and ___ before are 5

A
  • -50

- 90

63
Q

signs and symptoms of neuroblastoma

A
fever 
weight loss
failure to thrive 
bone pain 
abdominal pain 
swelling around eyes 
bowel and bladder dysfunction
64
Q

radiographically signs and symptoms of neuroblastoma

A
  • widened skull sutures with sunburst apiculations and diffuse osteolytic lesions
65
Q

AKA for Wilm’s tumor

A

nephroblastoma

66
Q

what is film’s tumor

A

tumor of the kidney seen in kids under 5

67
Q

signs and symptoms for film’s tumor

A
abdominal mass 
fever 
anorexia 
hematuria 
hypertension
68
Q

what is used to diagnose film’s tumor

A

US and CT of abdomen

69
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1

“””””””” type 2

A

von Recklinghausens disease

acoustic neuroma’s

70
Q

neurofibromatosis common in what age

A

over 20

71
Q

Os acrominale occurs in what age

A

before 22

72
Q

what is the cause of os acrominale

A
  • incomplete fusion of the secondary ossification centers which may cause the deltoid to pull on the ununited fragment may cause rotator cuff spur or tear
73
Q

Acromial apophysitis occurs with what age

A

before 19

74
Q

with acromail apohytisits the ossification centers are _____

A

normal but are irritated due repetitive traction by the deltoid attachment

75
Q

Coracoid apophysitis occurs with what ages

A

before 21

76
Q

with little league shoulder healing is usually complete with _____ weeks of rest

A

4- 6 weeks

77
Q

failure of migration of the mesenchyme during fetal growth results in a congenital elevation of the scapula

A

sprengel’s deformity

78
Q

___ percent of spregnel’s deformity are unilateral

A

70

79
Q

the most common fracture during delivery

A

clavicular fracture

80
Q

the ___ side is fractured more often with clavicle fractures

A

left

81
Q

ages for Osteochondritis dissecans

A

13-16

82
Q

Panner’s disease mc in what ages

A

4-12