Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adv Prin II > Neuro I > Flashcards

Neuro I Flashcards

1
Q

anterior spinal artery, # of posterior spinal artery

A

1, 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SSEPs look at ___ spinal bf, MEPs look at ___ spinal bf

A

Posterior, anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two things can obstruct venous outflow from brain

A

Positioning and PP vent w high PIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Components of brain vol and %: brain (___ and __, %, ml), blood (%, ml), csf (%, ml)

A

Cellular and icf 80%/1400 ml, 12%/150 ml, 8%/150 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is intracranial elastance

A

Change in ICP after a change in intracranial volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 4 things are compensatory mechanisms for intracranial elastance

A
  1. Displacement CSF from cranial to spinal compartment 2. Inc CSF absorption 3. Dec csf production 4. Dec CBV (primarily venous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A waves= ___ waves. ICP= ___. What they signify

A

Plateau. >50. Compensation exhausted, intense vasodilation and severe ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

B waves: __-__. What they show

A

30-40 ICP. CCP at lower limit of autoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

C waves: ICP ___. What they mean

A

Normal. Nothing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CPP= how to calculate, normal value

A

MAP - ICP (or CVP if greater). 80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal adult cerebral blood flow

A

50 ml/100g/min= 750 ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What gray and white matter each contribute to cerebral blood flow

A

Gray: 80ml/100g/min. White: 20. 50= an avg of the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What 7 things impact CBF during anesthesia

A

Anesthetic agents (all dilate except for ketamine), level of arousal, metabolic byproducts, blood viscosity, temp, concentration of co2 and h ions, 02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

H ions cause a ___ of cerebral vessels.

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acidic metabolic substances that increase CBF (2)

A

Lactic acid, pyruvic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Each 1 mmhg change in paco2 between __-__ mmHG changes CBF by how much __-__ml/100g/min

A

20-80. 1-2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Below __mmhg paco2 what happens to cerebral blood vessels

A

Reflexive dilation in response to tissue hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CBF response to paco2 lasts __-__ __ then will return tp normal despite altered co2 levels. Why.

A

6-8 hours. Bicarb transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Brain: ___% total body mass, __% of body metabolism and cardiac output

A
  1. 15.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CMRO2: ___ml/100g/min= ____ml/min 02

A

3.5= 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pediatric patients have ___ cmro2: ___ ml/100g/min mean age __ years

A

Higher, 5.2, 6 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What % cerebral metabolic rate is at in suppression. What is the only thing that can decrease the eeg below suppression into the basal homeostasis range

A

60%. Temperature (59-40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Brain not capable of much ___ metabolism. Brain = ___% of total body glucose consumption. ___mg/100g/min= brain glucose consump

A

Anaerobic. 25%. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

02 utilization of brain remains within ___ ___. = ____ml02/100g brain tissue

A

Narrow range. 3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CBF increases dramatically if either of which 2 things drop.

A

If po2 of brain tissue drops below 30 mmhg or if pa02 drops below 50-60 mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Brain response to increased 02 >___mmhg, why important

A

350= slight vasoconstriction, what we dont want to run 02 levels too high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CBF auto regulation between map: __-__

A

70-150 mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cerebral vasculature adjusts to changes in CPP/map after how long

A

1-3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Htn will shift auto regulatory range to __ minimum values and maximums of __-__

A

Higher, 180-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What happens above the upper limit of auto regulation (3), what happens below the upper limit (1)

A

Above: bbb disruption, cerebral edema, cerebral hemorrhage. Below: ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cerebral circ has ___ sns innervention. Nerve transaction or mild-mod stim causes what kind of change and why

A

Strong sns. Neither causes much change due to auto regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

SNS: may shift auto reg curve to ___. Sns minor role unless which two things occur

A

Right. Extreme bp rise (to prevent stroke) or hemorrhagic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CBF changes __-__% per 1 degree c change

A

6-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Effect of hypothermia and hyperthermia on CBF and cmro2

A

Hypothermia decreases both, hyperthermia increases both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Decrease in hct will increase ___ but decrease __ __ __ of blood

A

CBF, 02 carrying capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Severe polycythemia can reduce ___. May intervene when hct __%. Hct __-__ probably no significant change in __

A

CBF. 55%. 33-45% in CBF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cerebral ischemia secondary injury: __ and __. Elevated ICP secondary injury: __, __, and ___.

A

Ischemia: hypoxia and hypotension. Elev ICP: cerebral edema, hemorrhage, herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ischemia cascade: what inc intracellular and extracellular from atp dependent pump failure. Neurons do what. ___ released, more __ enters. ___ feedback cascade.

A

Intracellular: ca + na increase, extracellular: k decreases. Neurons depolarize excessively. Glutamate —> more ca enter. Positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ischemia damage: high ca levels inc damage via __ and __ leading to what 2 things. __ and __ build up, ph __.

A

Proteases and phospholipases —-» free fatty acids and free radicals. Lactate and hydrogen. Drops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ischemia patho: __ acid is produced and converted to __ (intense __), ___, and ___ (___)

A

Arachidonic. Thromboxane (vasoconstriction), prostaglandins, leukotrienes (edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 regions of focal ischemia

A

No blood flow/global ischemia, penumbra (collateral bf/partial ischemia), normal perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Penumbra- marginal bf roughly

A

<15 ml/100g/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens in: transtentorial herniation

A

Medial temporal lobe compressed against tentorium cerebelli. Posterior cerebral artery- visual changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens in: subfalcine herniation

A

Asymmetric expansion of cerebral hemisphere, displaces cingulate gyrus under the falx cerebri (midline shift where ant cerebral artery is)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens in: tonsillar herniation

A

Cerebrallar tonsils through foramen magnum (can be life threatening, where cardiac and resp centers are)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens in: transcalvarial hernation

A

Through a skull defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Subarachnoid space enclosing brain and SC capacity ___ ml

A

1650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Csf formed by what at what rate

A

Choroid plexuses, 0.3 ml/min, 21 ml/hr, turnover 3-4x/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Csf reabsorbed by what. Act like __ way valves. Fluid flows when csf pressure ___ > than __ pressure

A

Arachnoid villi. One. 1.5 mmhg > venous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Csf flow: 1st: from __ ventricles passes through what. 2nd: to __ ventricle and down what. 3rd: to __ ventricle to what openings. Ends with what area, continuous with what

A

1st: lateral, intraventricular foramina/of Munro. 2nd: third, aqueduct of Sylvius. 3rd: fourth. 2 lateral foramina of luschka and a midline foramen of magendie. Last: cisterna magna, continuous w subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Csf production decreased by which drugs: 5, which clinically relevant (*)

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhib (acetazolamide), lasix, corticosteroids, spironolactone, vasoconstrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Anesthetic agent impact on csf secretion: inc by 2, dec by 2, no change w 2

A

Inc: des and enflurane (bad). Dec: halothane, etomidate (good). Same: iso, fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Anesthetic agent impact on csf absorption: dec by 2, no change w 1, inc by 3

A

Dec: halothane and enflurane (bad). Same: des. Inc: isoflurane, fentanyl, etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Composition of what can cross bbb (3)

A

Small, lipid soluble, nonpolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

BBB in all of brain parenchyma except for 3 areas

A

Hypothalamus, pituitary, area postrema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Movement across bbb depends on 4

A

Size, charge, lipid solubility, and protein binding in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Permeable in bbb: 6

A

H20, c20, 02, lipid sol subs. Anesthetics and etoh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Semi permeable in bbb: 5

A

Na, cl, k, ca, mg

59
Q

Impermeable across bbb: 4

A

Polar molecule, plasma proteins, glucose (only facilitated diffusion), non lipid sol large organic molec (mannitol)

60
Q

How anesthetics may be impacted by bbb

A

Anesthetics may produce conditions that lead to a breech in bbb or they may have diff effect on a brain with a disrupted bbb

61
Q

Disruptions that lead to a breach in bbb: 10

A

Severe htn, tumors, CHI, stroke, infection, marked hypercapnia, hypoxia, prolonged seizures, osmotic shock, irradiation

62
Q

Bbb disruption: movement dependent on __ rather than __ pressure

A

Hydrostatic > osmotic

63
Q

Cerebral edema, when each occur: cytotoxic, vasogenic, interstitial

A

Cyt (ionic pumps failure in ischemia), vaso (reduced bbb integrity), interst (hydrocephalus or acute hyponatremia)

64
Q

Volatile anesthetics lead to dose dependent impairment of what. Which impairs it the least.

A

Auto regulation. Sevo

65
Q

Effect on CBF: vascular smooth muscle dilation, decreased cmr

A

Increase, decrease

66
Q

Luxury perfusion changes: 0.5 mac, 1 mac, >1 mac

A

1/2: reduction predominate/dec CBF. 1: cmr and vasodilation in balance, no CBF change. >1: vasodilation, inc CBF

67
Q

Cmr reduction least to most of volatile anesthetics

A

Halothane < enflurane < des < iso < sevo

68
Q

Sevo iso and des max eeg reduction at __-__ mac= max __ reduction too

A

1.5-2 mac. Cmr

69
Q

Vasodilation potency of volatiles

A

Halothane&raquo_space; enflurane > iso = des > sevo

70
Q

How much iso and halothane inc CBF in %

A

Iso 20% halothane 200%

71
Q

__ and __ (volatiles) may decrease CBF in some areas of brain

A

Des and sevo

72
Q

Left shift on autoregulation curve leads to what

A

Less protection with hypertension

73
Q

Hyperventilation can blunt inc CBF/ICP with __ and __ (both volatiles) if initiated prior to start of VA

A

Enflurane, halothane

74
Q

Hyperventilation can blunt the inc CBF/ICP with __ or __ (volatiles) even if initiated after the va is started. However this effect is abolished when what

A

Sevo, iso. >1.5 Mac

75
Q

At __-__ mac ___ can precipitate seizure pattern on eeg. Enhanced by __ and __ stim

A

1.5-2. Enflurane. Hypocapnia and auditory stim

76
Q

__ has been rarely assoc w seizures. But may avoid in pts with __

A

Sevo, epilepsy

77
Q

___ can promote spike activity, does not progress to __. Has been used in what situation

A

Iso. Seizure. Status epilepticus

78
Q

Nitrous oxide alone: greatest effect on ___. Cerebral ___ occurs. __ and __ increase.

A

CBF. Dilation. CMR and ICP increase

79
Q

Nitrous oxide + VA: __ effect is intermediate. Nitrous + IV agent leads to what effects

A

CBF. IV: min effect on CBF/cmr/ICP

80
Q

Nitrous oxide: risk with __ or __

A

VAE, pneumocephalus

81
Q

Barbiturate effects (6)

A

Hypnosis, depress cmr (30% induc dose), reduce CBF (30% induc dose but inc cerebral vasc res?), anticonvulsant activity, reverse steal, help csf absorption

82
Q

The only barb that increases seizure activity

A

Methohexital

83
Q

Opioids: ___ in CBF, cmr, and ICP unless pt is __ then __

A

Decrease. Awake. Larger effect

84
Q

Opioids indirectly may inc ICP how (5)

A

Resp Dep, histamine release, activate sz in temp lobe in epilepsy pts, chest wall rigidity, reflex cerebral vasodilation after sudden bp drop

85
Q

Specific opioid/effect: histamine rel (__), activate sz in epilepsy pt (__), reflex cerebral vasodilation from sudden bp drop (__ and __)

A

Histamine- morphine. Sz- alfentanil. BP drop: sufentanil and alfentanil

86
Q

Small doses remi can cause mild inc in __, large doses cause what

A

CBF, decrease CBF

87
Q

Etomidate effects: 5

A

Dec: CBF, cmr, ICP. Dec csf production/enhances absorption. Maintained c02 responsiveness

88
Q

Etomidate: when its bad. Caution in which pts/why

A

Inc tissue hypoxia/acidosis—- bad in ischemic events. Caution in epileptic pts, can look like sz or activate sz

89
Q

Propofol: dec in 3. Beneficial effects 3. ___ is a concern with cardio depression.

A

Dec in ICP, CBF, cmr. Beneficial: anticonvulsant, short e 1/2 allows post op assessment, reduces ischemic cerebral activity. CPP

90
Q

Benzos: dec __ and __, comparison to barbs/etomidate/prop/opioids

A

CBF and cmr. Less than barbs/benzos/prop. More than opioids

91
Q

Benzos: __ __ maintained. __ is best choice. Risk of using flumazenil

A

CO2 responsiveness. Midaz. Dramatically inc ICP

92
Q

Ketamine: how its unique compared to anesthetics. No effect on __. Can cause ___.

A

Dilates vasculature- inc CBF. No change cmr. Seizure activity

93
Q

Ketamine: dec __ __, overall inc __ but might be ok if

A

Csf absorption. ICP, if used w other agents like prop

94
Q

Adrenergic agents: if auto reg intact fx. If not intact fx.

A

If intact pressors inc CBF only when map outside of autoreg. If not intact CBF varies w pressure

95
Q

Alpha 1 agent fx

A

Little influence on CBF beyond inc CPP

96
Q

Beta agonist effects

A

Inc cmr and CBF w b1 stim, esp if bbb disruption

97
Q

Beta antagonist effects

A

No effect on cmr/CBF

98
Q

Alpha 2 agonist effects

A

Decrease CBF and cmr in parallel. Precedex dec CBF by 30%

99
Q

Vasodilator effects: 4

A

Cerebral vasodilation and inc CBF. CPP same or inc, ICP same or inc

100
Q

NMB: no __ __, only __ __ can be problematic

A

Direct actions. Side effects

101
Q

NMB: histamine releasing ones (4) what they can lead to

A

Atra, miva, sux, d tubo. Vasodilation, inc ICP, dec CPP from hypotension

102
Q

NMB: sux can do what, not contraindicated in

A

Inc ICP about 5 but can be offset by drugs or dec LOC. Emergency

103
Q

Nmb: why avoid panc

A

Tachycardia and htn- sympathetic effect

104
Q

CCB: which in particular helpful/in which situation for neuro pts

A

Nimodipine- reduces vasospasm incidence in SAH pts

105
Q

When steroids are useful, when they arent

A

Reduce edema r/t tumors. Could be harmful in other neurosurg procedures, esp SAH

106
Q

How diuretics are cerebral protective

A

Reduce vol of icf and ECF compartments

107
Q

Protec after ischemic event: CPP > __, map __-__ or ___% of baseline, prevent ___. If global ischemia w cv arrest keep temp:

A
  1. 70-80 or within 30%. 32-34 c for 24hrs
108
Q

EEG signal represents the summations of __ and __ ___ potentials that create electrical potentials in ___ of neurons

A

Excitatory and inhibitory postsynaptic, dendrites

109
Q

EEG intraop uses: detection of cerebral ___ or ____ assessment of brain. Detection of intraop ___. Assess pharmacological intervention __ ___ w tpl or ___ prevention w ___

A

Ischemia, functional. Seizures. Burst suppression, recall w/ BIS

110
Q

How evoked potentials and eeg are different

A

EEG: spontaneous activity, nonspecific, large signal >50 Mv. Evoked pot: smaller amplitude 0.1-20 mv, specific stim and pathway

111
Q

How peaks and troughs characterized in evoked potentials

A

Amplitude and latency (how long it takes signal to be detected)

112
Q

Sensory evoked potentials: monitor integrity of __ sensory pathway in ___/___ ___ spinal cord.

A

Ascending, afferrent/posterior lateral

113
Q

SEPS: somatosensory= ___. Auditory ___. Visual ____. * which affected by anesthetics

A

SSEP, BAEP, VEPs*

114
Q

SSEPs: evaluate ability of ___ spinal column to conduct signal from __ or __ ___ to sensory cortex. Usually measured at which two places. ___ signal.

A

Dorsal. Periphery or CN. Subcortex (upper cervical spine) and contralateral cortex (scalp). Small.

115
Q

SSEPs: which nerves stimulated (7)

A

Median, ulnar, common peroneal, post tib, tongue, trigeminal, pudendal

116
Q

SSEP: ___% reduction in ____ or ___ > ____% from baseline in response to surgical maneuver considered significant

A

50% in amplitude, latency > 10%

117
Q

SSEPs: what three things poorly affect them, how they effect them

A

VA, TPL, N20. Decrease amplitude and increase latency

118
Q

SSEPs: which 3 agents only slightly effect them

A

Opioids, benzos, propofol.

119
Q

SSEPs: which 2 agents may improve signals

A

Ketamine and etomidate

120
Q

Factors other than drugs that can effect SSEPs

A

Temp (even local changes), systemic bp (esp hypotension below auto reg), alt in paco2 and pao2

121
Q

What you can do about alt in SSEP in or

A

Turn down gas/go to tiva, check bp, check hgb/hct, correct hypovolemia, tell surgeon, avoid giving boluses/or if you have to make sure they arent about to clip something

122
Q

When MEPs are useful: 4.

A

Intramedullary tumor resection, scoliosis sx (anterolateral sc), cerebral tumors/cerebrovascular procedures near motor cortex, aortic cross clamping

123
Q

MEPs: when n20 effects them. Other inhibitors

A

60% abolishes them, little change if 50% n20. VAs, benzos, barbs, propofol. Muscle relaxants do: need 1-2 twitches

124
Q

MEPs: which 3 agents best to use

A

Fentanyl, etomidate, ketamine

125
Q

EMG: used to monitor ___ or ___ nerves at risk. Sensitive to __ __

A

Cranial or peripheral. Muscle relaxants

126
Q

EMG: detects __ or __ __ __ in ___ measurement, signal warns surgeon

A

Irritation, impending nerve damage, passive

127
Q

Supine: pressure change by __ mmhg for every __ cm a point varies above or below heart

A

2, 2.5

128
Q

Lateral decubitus: allows access to __ __ and ___ lobes and __ __ fossa.

A

Posterior parietal and occipital, lateral posterior

129
Q

Lateral decubitus: useful for tumors at the ___ __ and aneurysms of the __ and ___ arteries

A

Cerebellopontine angles, vertebral and basilar

130
Q

Lateral decubitus: if __ maintained in __ axis of body, almost no pressure gradient exists head to foot

A

Legs, long

131
Q

Prone: __ __ and __ __ procedures requires neck ___, __ __, and elevation of __

A

Cervical spine and posterior fossa. Flexion, reverse tberg, legs

132
Q

Sitting position: access to __ __- midline structures (floor of __ __, the ___ __, and the __)

A

Posterior fossa. 4th ventricle, pontomedullary junction, vermis.

133
Q

Sitting position: transducers at which level. NIBP: water __ cm high exerts a p of ___. Consider pa if what

A

Circle of Willis. 32 cm, 25 mmhg. Cad or valvular heart dis.

134
Q

Sitting position: ___ filling pressures decrease (___ > ___). ___ tone inc, ___ tone dec

A

Atrial, left > right. SNS, pns

135
Q

Sitting pos: ___ system activated and result. Which 3 hemodynamics decrease, which increases

A

RAA- dec renal bf. CO, Stroke vol, cerebral BF. HR INC

136
Q

Sitting position: CPP minimum of ___ in healthy pts. Higher in 5 pts

A
  1. Elderly, hypertensive, cerebrovascular dis, cervical spine stenosis, sustained retractor pressure to brain or spinal cord
137
Q

Sitting pos complications: pneumocephalus, why __ needs to be used w caution. Paradoxical air embolism occurs in which 2 conditions

A

N20. PFO and R to L shunt

138
Q

3 methods of detecting VAE, which most sensitive to least

A

TEE more sensitive, identify r to l shunting of air. Precordial Doppler. Expired n2 (least sensitive- small unless large vae)

139
Q

VAE sensitivity most to least/physio changes: ___ and ___, no physio changes. __ and __= modest changes.

A

Tee and Doppler none. Pap and end tidal modest

140
Q

VAE detection: __ and ___ clinically apparent changes. __, ___, and ___ cardiovascular collapse

A

Co and cvp. Bp, ecg, and stethoscope

141
Q

Mgmt of acute VAE: 3 that prevent further air entry. 4 that treat the intravascular air

A

Prevent further air: notify surgeon to flood or pack field, jugular compression, lower head. Treat air: aspirate via right heart cath, d/c n20, fio2 100%, pressors/inotropes/cpr

142
Q

Right heart cath should be given to pts w which procedures

A

Sitting posterior fossa procedures

143
Q

Right heart cath: where multiorifice Caths should be, where single orifice caths should be

A

Multi: tip 2 cm below SVC-atrial junction. Single: tip 3 cm above SVC-atrial junction

Adv Prin II (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions