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Flashcards in Osteoporosis Deck (36)
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1
Q

Osteoporosis occurs in what frequency of:

a) Women
b) Men?

A

a) 1 in 2
b) 1 in 6

(over 50)

2
Q

What are the common sites for osteoporotic fractures?

A
  1. Femur neck
  2. Upper humerus
  3. Vertebral bodies
  4. Distal radius (Colles’ fracture)
  5. Other long bones
3
Q

What do vertebral fractures often lead to?

A

Kyphosis

4
Q

What are two key problems secondary to kyphosis as a result of vertebral fractures?

A
  1. GI symptoms e.g. reflux due to compression
  2. Pain due to ribcage on hip
5
Q

Bone turnover is required for which two processes in the body?

A
  1. Skeleton healing
  2. Calcium homeostasis
6
Q

Bone density will begin to decline after what age?

A

Late 20s

7
Q

Peak bone mass is attributable to which factors?

A
  1. Genetics
  2. Body weight
  3. Sex hormones
  4. Diet
  5. Exercise
8
Q

Bone mass may be reduced in which situations?

A
  1. Increasing age
  2. Sex hormone deficiency
  3. Low body weight
  4. Genetics
  5. Immobility
  6. Diseases
  7. Drugs e.g. corticosteroids
9
Q

Which modifiable risk factors exist for osteoporosis?

A
  1. High alcohol intake
  2. Weight
  3. Smoking
  4. Physical activity
  5. Drug use (corticosteroids)
10
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

Low bone density

T score between -1.0 and -2.5 SD below adult mean

11
Q

How is osteoporosis defined?

A

BMD < 2.5 SD below that of a young adult

12
Q

Usually dietary calcium should equal ________ per day, but in someone with osteoporosis it should equal at least _________

A

Usually dietary calcium should equal 700mg per day, but in someone with osteoporosis it should equal at least 1000mg

13
Q

Most patients will be given what if they have, or at at risk of osteoprosis?

A

Vitamin D and calcium supplements

14
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A

Reduce osteoclast activity

15
Q

Give two examples of bisphosphonates

A
  1. Alendronate
  2. Risedronate
16
Q

Why are bisphosphonates taken for 5-10 years and then stopped for about 2 years before restarting again?

A

To prevent excessive build-up in the bones which increases risks of rare side effects (osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), AF, oesophageal cancer)

This is possible because the levels remain high enough in this time to still have an effect and maintain treatment

17
Q

Which bisphosphonate is given by IV yearly?

A

Zoledronic acid

18
Q

What is the benefit for some patients of using denosumab in osteoporosis?

A

It can be used in renal failure unlike other treatments

19
Q

Which osteoporotic treatment can trigger osteoblastic activity?

A

Teriparatide

(a synthetic parathyroid hormone)

20
Q

When should teriparatide be used?

A

Generally reserved for patients with highest risk of vertebral fractures

21
Q

Why do corticosteroids contribute to osteoporosis?

A
  1. Reduce osteoblast activity and lifespan by
  2. Suppress replication of osteoblastic precursors
  3. Deplete Ca2+ levels
22
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

A condition involving abnormal osteoclastic activty followed by increased osteoblastic activity

There is reduced bone strength and abnormal structure

23
Q

Which bones are affected most in Paget’s disease?

A
  1. Long bones
  2. Pelvis
  3. Lumbar spine
  4. Skull
24
Q

Generally, Paget’s is a disease of the ________

A

Generally, Paget’s is a disease of the elderly

25
Q

How does Paget’s disease present?

A
  1. Bone pain
  2. Deformities
  3. Deafness
  4. Compression neuropathies
26
Q

On a blood test, what will be raised for Paget’s disease?

A

ALP

27
Q

What is a rare, but serious, association with Paget’s disease?

A

Osteosarcoma

28
Q

How can Paget’s disease be treated?

A
  1. Analgesia
  2. Bisphosphonates
29
Q

Which deformity of the tibia is associated with Paget’s, how will it present and what is there a high associated risk of?

A

Saber tibia

Hot (due to increased vasculature), deformed (curved like a saber sword)

OA

30
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is a __________ condition

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic condition

31
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta occurs as a result of mutations in genes which code for what?

A

Collagen

32
Q

How many types of osteogenesis imperfecta are there and how severe is each?

A

4

  • Mild - I
  • Very severe - III, IV
  • Neonatal lethal - II
33
Q

Which eye abnormality is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue sclerae

(due to collagen abnormalities)

34
Q

Which dental abnormality is associated with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

35
Q

What is the treatment ofr osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  1. Fracture fixation
  2. Surgery
  3. Bisphosphonates (especially in teenage years)
36
Q

When would osteogenesis imperfecta be an important differential?

A

Non-accidental injury

(in children)