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Pharmacology Boards > Part 2 Pharm 1-Liners > Flashcards

Part 2 Pharm 1-Liners Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of withdrawal syndrome involves

A

Long-acting sedative-hypnotic or a gradual reduction of dose; clonidine or propranolol

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2
Q

These agents are CNS depressants

A

Ethanol; Barbiturates; and Benzodiazepines

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3
Q

Withdrawal from this drug causes lethargy; irritability; and headache

A

Caffeine

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4
Q

W/D from this drug causes anxiety and mental discomfort

A

Nicotine

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5
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patches; gum; nasal spray; psychotherapy; and bupropion

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6
Q

Chronic high dose abuse of nicotine leads to

A

Psychotic state; overdose causes agitation; restlessness; tachycardia; hyperthermia; hyperreflexia; and seizures

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7
Q

Tolerance is marked and abstinence syndrome occurs

A

Amphetamines

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8
Q

Amphetamine agents

A

Dextroamphetamines and methamphetamine

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9
Q

These agents are congeners of Amphetamine

A

DOM; STP; MDA; and MDMA “ecstasy”

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10
Q

Overdoses of this agent with powerful vasoconstrictive action may result in fatalities from arrhythmias; seizures; respiratory depression; or severe HTN (MI and stroke)

A

Cocaine “super-speed”

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11
Q

Most dangerous of the currently popular hallucinogenic drugs; OD leads to nystagmus; marked hypertension; and seizures; presence of both horizontal and vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic

A

PCP

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12
Q

Removal of PCP may be aided

A

Urinary acidification and activated charcoal or continual nasogastric suction

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13
Q

THC is active ingredient; SE’s include impairment of judgment; and reflexes; decreases in blood pressure and psychomotor performance occur

A

Marijuana

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14
Q

This agent has greater affinity for muscarinic receptors and used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

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15
Q

Muscarinic that is very lipid soluble and used in glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

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16
Q

Muscarinic used to treat dry mouth in Sjrogren’s syndrome

A

Pilocarpine or Cevimeline

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17
Q

Indirect-Acting ACh Agonist; alcohol; short DOA and used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

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18
Q

Carbamate with intermediate action and used as off-label for postoperative paralytic ileus and urinary retention

A

Neostigmine

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19
Q

Treatment of atropine overdose and glaucoma (because lipid soluable); Enters the CNS rapidly and has a stimulant effect; which may lead to convulsions

A

Physostigmine

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20
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis and sometimes used prophylactically for organophosphate poisoning in chemical warfare

A

Pyridostigmine

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21
Q

Antiglaucoma organophosphate; indicated but not used much clinically anymore due to long duration of action

A

Echothiophate

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22
Q

Insecticide organophosphate

A

Malathion; parathion

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23
Q

Toxicity of cholinergics

A

DUMBELSS (diarrhea; urination; miosis; bronchoconstriction; excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS; lacrimation; salivation; and sweating)

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24
Q

The most important cause of acute deaths in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity

A

Respiratory failure

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25
Q

Treatment of muscarinic symptoms in organophosphate overdose

A

Atropine

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26
Q

This agent competes for phosphorylated cholinesterase enzyme and regenerates enzyme if organophosphate-enzymes complex has not “aged”

A

Pralidoxime

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27
Q

Prototypical drug is atropine

A

Nonselective Muscarinic Antagonists

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28
Q

Treat manifestations of Parkinson’s disease and EPS

A

Benztropine; trihexyphenidyl

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29
Q

Treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

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30
Q

Produce mydriasis and cycloplegia

A

Atropine and other anti-muscarinic agents

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31
Q

Bronchodilation in asthma and COPD

A

Ipratropium; tiotropium

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32
Q

Reduce transient hyper GI motility

A

Dicyclomine; methscopolamine

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33
Q

Cystitis; postoperative bladder spasms; or incontinence

A

Oxybutynin; dicyclomine

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34
Q

Toxicity of anticholinergics

A

Anti-DUMBBELSS

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35
Q

Another pneumonic for anticholinergic toxicity

A

“dry as a bone; red as a beet; mad as a hatter; hot as a hare; blind as a bat”

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36
Q

Atropine fever is the most dangerous effect and can be lethal in this population group

A

Infants

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37
Q

Contraindications to use of atropine

A

Infants; closed angle glaucoma; prostatic hypertrophy

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38
Q

Ganglion blockers that were indicated (but not anymore) for severe hypertension

A

Hexamethonium; trimethaphan

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39
Q

Reversal of blockade by neuromuscular blockers

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

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40
Q

Tubocurarine is the prototype; pancuronium; atracurium; vecuronium are newer short acting agent; produce competitive block at end plate nicotinic receptor; causing flaccid paralysis

A

Nondepolarizing Neuromuscular Blockers

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41
Q

Only member of depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; causes fasciculation during induction and muscle pain after use

A

Succinylcholine

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42
Q

Pneumonic for beta receptors

A

You have 1 heart (Beta 1) and 2 lungs (Beta 2)

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43
Q

This is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

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44
Q

Phenylisopropylamines that are used legitimately and abused for narcolepsy; attention deficit disorder; and weight reduction

A

Amphetamines

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45
Q

Alpha agonist used to produce mydriasis and reduce conjunctival itching and congestion caused by irritation or allergy; it does not cause cycloplegia

A

Phenylephrine

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46
Q

Epinephrine and dipivefrin are used for

A

Glaucoma

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47
Q

Newer alpha 2 agonist (apraclonidine and brimonidine) treat glaucoma

A

Reduce aqueous synthesis

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48
Q

Short acting Beta 2 agonists that is drug of choice in treatment of acute asthma but not recommended for prophylaxis

A

Albuterol

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49
Q

Longer acting Beta 2 agonists is recommended for prophylaxis of asthma

A

Salmeterol

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50
Q

These agents increase blood flow and may be beneficial in treatment of acute heart failure and some types of shock

A

Beta1 agonists

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51
Q

These agents decrease blood flow or increase blood pressure; are local decongestant; and used in therapy of spinal shock (temporary maintenance of blood pressure which may help maintain perfusion)

A

Alpha1 agonists

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52
Q

Shock due to septicemia or myocardial infarction is made worse by

A

Increasing afterload and tissue perfusion declines

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53
Q

Often mixed with local anesthetic to

A

Reduce the loss from area of injection

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54
Q

Chronic orthostatic hypotension can be treated with

A

Midodrine

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55
Q

Beta 2 agonist used to suppress premature labor; but cardiac stimulatory effects may be hazardous to mother and fetus

A

Terbutaline

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56
Q

Long acting sympathomimetic; sometimes used to improve urinary continence in children and elderly with enuresis

A

Ephedrine

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57
Q

Alpha 1 agonist toxicity

A

Hypertension

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58
Q

Beta 1 agonist toxicity

A

Sinus tachycardia and serious arrhythmias

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59
Q

Beta 2 agonist toxicity

A

Skeletal muscle tremor

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60
Q

The selective agents lose their selectivity at

A

high doses

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61
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug; long acting and irreversible; and used to treat pheochromocytoma; Blocks 5-HT; so occasionaly used for carcinoid tumor; Blocks H1 and used in mastocytosis

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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62
Q

Nonselective alpha-blocking drug; short acting and reversible; used for rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal; and Raynaud’s phenomena

A

Phentolamine

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63
Q

Selective Alpha 1 blocker used for hypertension; BPH; may cause first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin; terazosin; doxazosin

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64
Q

Selective Alpha 2 blocker used for impotence (controversial effectiveness)

A

Yohimbine

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65
Q

Selective B1 Receptor blockers that may be useful in treating cardiac conditions in patients with asthma

A

Acebutolol; atenolol; esmolol; metoprolol

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66
Q

Combined alpha and beta blocking agents that may have application in treatment of CHF

A

Labetalol and carvedilol

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67
Q

Beta blockers partial agonist activity (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) cause some bronchodilation and may have an advantage in treating patients with asthma

A

Pindolol and acebutolol

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68
Q

This beta blocker lacks local anesthetic activity (decreases protective reflexes and increases the risk of corneal ulceration) and used in treating glaucoma

A

Timolol

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69
Q

This parenteral beta blocker is a short acting

A

Esmolol

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70
Q

This beta blocker is the longest acting

A

Nadolol

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71
Q

These beta blockers are less lipid soluble

A

Acebutolol and atenolol

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72
Q

This beta blocker is highly lipid soluble and may account for side effects such as nightmares

A

Propranolol

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73
Q

Clinical uses of these agents include treatment of HTN; angina; arrhythmias; and chronic CHF

A

Beta blockers

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74
Q

Toxicity of these agents include bradycardia; AV blockade; exacerbation of acute CHF; signs of hypoglycemia may be masked (tachycardia; tremor; and anxiety)

A

Beta blockers

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75
Q

Cholinomimetics that increase outflow; open trabecular meshwork; and cause ciliary muscle contraction

A

Pilocarpine; carbachol; physostigmine

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76
Q

Nonselective alpha agonists that decrease aqueous production and increase aqueous outflow

A

Epinephrine; dipivefrin

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77
Q

Selective alpha agonists that decreases aqueous secretion

A

Apraclonidine; brimonidine

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78
Q

These Beta blockers decrease aqueous secretion

A

Timolol (nonselective); betaxolol (selective)

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79
Q

This diuretic decreases aqueous secretion due to lack of HCO3- ion; Causes drowsiness and paresthesias; alkalinization of the urine may precipitate calcium salts; hypokalemia; acidosis

A

Acetazolamide

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80
Q

This agent cause increased aqueous outflow

A

Prostaglandin PGF2a (latanoprost; travoprost; unoprostone)

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81
Q

Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

A

ACE inhibitors

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82
Q

Captopril and enalapril (-OPRIL ending) are

A

ACE inhibitors

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83
Q

SE of ACE inhibitors

A

Dry cough; hyperkalemia

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84
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

pregnancy and with hyperkalemia

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85
Q

Losartan and valsartan block

A

AT1 receptors

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86
Q

Side effect associated with ACEI but not ARBs

A

Dry cough

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87
Q

Block L-type calcium channel

A

Calcium channel blockers

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88
Q

CCB with predominate effect on arteriole dilation

A

Nifedipine

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89
Q

SE of CCB

A

Constipation; edema; and headache

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90
Q

Reduce heart rate; contractility; and O2 demand

A

Beta-blockers

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91
Q

Cardioselective Beta 1-blockers

A

Atenolol; acebutolol; and metoprolol

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92
Q

Beta-blockers should be used cautiously in

A

Asthma (bronchospastic effects); diabetes (block signs of hypoglycemia) and peripheral vascular disease

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93
Q

Non-selective Beta-blocker also used for migraine prophylaxis

A

Propranolol

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94
Q

SE of beta blockers

A

Bradycardia; SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION; decrease in HDL; and increase in Triglycerols (TG)

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95
Q

Alpha 1selective blockers

A

Prazosin; terazosin and doxazosin (-AZOSIN ending)

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96
Q

Non-selective Alpha1blockers use to treat pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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97
Q

For rebound HTN from rapid clonidine withdrawal

A

Phentolamine

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98
Q

A1a-selective blocker used for BPH

A

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

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99
Q

SE of alpha blockers

A

Orthostatic hypotension (especially with first dose) and reflex tachycardia

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100
Q

Presynaptic Alpha 2 agonist used in HTN

A

Clonidine; and methyldopa

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101
Q

SE of methyldopa

A

Positive Comb’s test; depression

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102
Q

Methyldopa is contraindicated in

A

Geriatrics due to its CNS (depression) effects

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103
Q

SE of clonidine

A

Rebound HTN; sedation; dry mouth

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104
Q

Direct vasodilator of arteriolar smooth muscle

A

Hydralazine

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105
Q

SE of hydralazine

A

Lupus-like syndrome

106
Q

Arterial vasodilator that works by opening K+ channels

A

Minoxidil

107
Q

SE of minoxidil

A

Hypertrichosis

108
Q

IV Drug used Hypertensive Crisis

A

Nitroprusside

109
Q

Nitroprusside vasodilates

A

Arteries and veins

110
Q

Toxicity caused by nitroprusside and treatment

A

Cyanide toxicity treated with sodium thiosulfate

111
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

Acetazolamide

112
Q

Diuretic used as prophylactic for mountain sickness and glaucoma

A

Acetazolamide

113
Q

Side effects of acetazolamide

A

Paresthesias; alkalization of the urine (which may ppt; Ca salts); hypokalemia; metabolic acidosis; and encephalopathy in patients with hepatic impairment

114
Q

Mechanism of action of loop diuretics

A

inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter

115
Q

Diuretic used in hypertensive patients with renal failure

A

Loop diuretics (furosemide; ethacrynic acid; butmetanide)

116
Q

Site of action of loop diuretics

A

Thick ascending limb

117
Q

Side effects of loop (furosemide) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia; hypokalemia; metabolic alkalosis and ototoxicity

118
Q

Aminoglycosides used with loop diuretics potentiate this adverse effect

A

Ototoxicity

119
Q

An electrolyte that is lost in the urine by acute treatment with loop diuretics but can be retained by thiazides

A

Calcium

120
Q

Mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Inhibit Na+/Cl- cotransport

121
Q

Diuretic used as first line for treatment of hypertension

A

Thiazides

122
Q

Site of action of thiazide diuretics

A

Early distal convoluted tubule

123
Q

Class of drugs that may cause cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics

A

Sulfonamides

124
Q

Side effects of thiazide (HCTZ) diuretics

A

Hyperuricemia; hypokalemia; metabolic alkalosis; hyperlipidemia; and hyperglycemia

125
Q

Mechanism of action of amiloride

A

Inhibit epithelial sodium channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct

126
Q

Mechanism of action of spironolactone

A

Inhibit mineralocorticoid receptor and inhibit Na/K-ATPase and ENaC synthesis

127
Q

Diuretic used to treat primary aldosteronism

A

Spironolactone; eplerenone

128
Q

Side effect of spironolactone

A

Gynecomastia hyperkalemia; and impotence

129
Q

Diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

130
Q

ADH agonist used for central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

131
Q

Agents used for SIADH

A

Tolvaptan and conivaptan

132
Q

An early generation tetracyclin that may be used for chronic persistant SIADH

A

demeclocycline

133
Q

Side effect of demeclocycline

A

Bone marrow and teeth discoloration for children under 8 years of age

134
Q

MOA of class I A (eg; Procainamide); class IB (eg; Lidocaine); and class IC (eg; Flecainide) antiarrhythmics

A

Sodium channel blockers

135
Q

SE of procainamide

A

Lupus-like syndrome

136
Q

Limiting side effect of Quinidine

A

Prolongs QT interval

137
Q

Other side effects of Quinidine

A

Thrombocytopenic purpura; and CINCHONISM

138
Q

Major drug interaction with Quinidine

A

Increases concentration of Digoxin

139
Q

DOC for management of acute Ventricular arrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

140
Q

DOC for digoxin induced arrhythmias

A

Phenytoin

141
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia

142
Q

Class of anti-arrhythmics that has a pro-arrhythmic effect (CAST trial); therefore are used as last line agents

A

Class IC (flecainide; propafenone; moricizine)

143
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics are

A

B-blockers

144
Q

Antiarrhythmic that exhibits Class II and III properties

A

Sotalol

145
Q

Side effect of sotalol

A

prolongs QT and PR interval

146
Q

Used intravenously for acute arrhythmias during surgery

A

Esmolol

147
Q

Anti-arrhythmics that decrease mortality

A

B-blockers

148
Q

MOA of class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers

149
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic that exhibits properties of all 4 classes

A

Amiodarone

150
Q

Specific pharmacokinetic characteristic of amiodarone

A

Prolonged half-life; up to six weeks

151
Q

Antiarrhythmic effective in most types of arrhythmia

A

Amiodarone

152
Q

SE of Amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction; photosensitivity; skin (blue smurf syndrome); corneal deposits; liver damage and pulmonary fibrosis

153
Q

MOA of class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Calcium channel blockers

154
Q

Life threatening cardiac event that prolong QT leads to

A

Torsades de pointes

155
Q

Agent to treat torsades de pointes

A

Magnesium sulfate

156
Q

Drug used supraventricular arrhythmias

A

Digoxin

157
Q

DOC for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

A

Adenosine

158
Q

Adenosine’s MOA

A

Activates acetylcholine sensitive K+ channels in SA and AV node

159
Q

Anti-arrhythmic with <10 second duration of action

A

Adenosine

160
Q

MOA of sildenafil (Viagra)

A

Inhibits phosphodiesterase-5; enhancing effects of nitric oxide-activated increases in cGMP

161
Q

Drugs used in the management of angina

A

Aspirin; Nitrates; CCB; and Beta blockers

162
Q

Aspirin reduces mortality in unstable angina by

A

Platelet aggregation inhibition

163
Q

MOA of nitrates

A

Relax vascular smooth muscle; at low doses dilate veins and at high doses dilate arterioles

164
Q

Nitrate used for acute anginal attacks

A

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

165
Q

Nitrate used to prevent further attacks

A

Oral and transdermal forms of nitroglycerin

166
Q

Nitrate free intervals are needed due to

A

Tolerance

167
Q

SE of nitrates

A

Postural hypotension; reflex tachycardia; hot flashes; and throbbing headache due to meningeal artery dilation

168
Q

CCB are DOC for

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

169
Q

Beta blockers are used for which type of anginal attack

A

Classic

170
Q

MOA of Cardiac glycosides (eg; digoxin)

A

Indirectly increase intracellular calcium and cardiac contractility by inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase

171
Q

Digoxin is used in

A

Atrial fibrillation and CHF

172
Q

Digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

173
Q

Antidote for digoxin toxicity

A

Digibind

174
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors that increase mortality and have been found to have NO beneficial effects

A

Amrinone and milrinone

175
Q

SE of amrinone

A

Thrombocytopenia

176
Q

Beta 1 agonists used in acute CHF

A

Dobutamine and dopamine

177
Q

Diuretics work in CHF by

A

Reducing preload

178
Q

Beta blockers work in CHF by

A

Reducing progression of heart failure (never use in acute heart failure)

179
Q

Agent used in CHF that is a selective alpha and nonselective beta blocker

A

Carvedilol

180
Q

Agent used in acutely decompensated CHF resembling natriuretic peptide

A

Nesiritide (Natrecor)

181
Q

Vitamin K dependent anticoagulant

A

Warfarin (PT)

182
Q

Warfarin is contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

183
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy

A

Heparin

184
Q

Heparin (PTT) increases activity of

A

Antithrombin 3

185
Q

Route of administration of warfarin

A

Oral

186
Q

Routes of administration of heparin

A

IV and subQ

187
Q

SE of both warfarin and heparin

A

Bleeding

188
Q

SE of heparin

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)

189
Q

Alternative anticoagulant used if HIT develops

A

Lepirudin

190
Q

Antidote to reverse actions of warfarin

A

Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma

191
Q

MOA of aspirin

A

Irreversibly blocks COX1 and COX2

192
Q

Agent used to treat MI and to reduce incidence of subsequent MI

A

Aspirin

193
Q

SE of Aspirin

A

GI bleeding

194
Q

Antiplatelet drug reserved for patients allergic to aspirin

A

Ticlopidine

195
Q

SE for ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia and agranulocytosis

196
Q

Effective in preventing TIA’s

A

Clopidogrel and ticlopidine

197
Q

Prevents thrombosis in patients with artificial heart valve

A

Dipyridamole

198
Q

Block glycoprotein IIb/IIIa involved in platelet cross-linking

A

Abciximab; tirofiban and eptifibatide

199
Q

MOA of thrombolytics

A

Lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin which binds fibrin

200
Q

Thrombolytics are used for

A

Pulmonary embolism and DVT

201
Q

Thrombolytic that can cause allergic reaction

A

Streptokinase

202
Q

Thrombolytic used for acute MI and ischemic (non hemorrhagic) CVA

A

Tissue plasmin activator

203
Q

SE of tPA

A

Cerebral hemorrhage

204
Q

Antidote for thrombolytics

A

Aminocaproic acid

205
Q

Agent to treat hypochromic microcytic anemias

A

Ferrous sulfate

206
Q

Chelating agent used in acute iron toxicity

A

Deferoxamine

207
Q

Agent for pernicious anemia

A

Cyanocobalamin (Vit B12)

208
Q

Agent used for neurological deficits in megaloblastic anemia

A

Vitamin B12

209
Q

Agent used for megaloblastic anemia (but does NOT reverse neurologic symptoms) and decrease neural tube defects during pregnancy

A

Folic acid

210
Q

Agent used for anemias associated with renal failure

A

Erythropoietin

211
Q

Agent used neutropenia especially after chemotherapy

A

G-CSF (filgrastim) and GM-CSF (sargramostim)

212
Q

Treatment of patients with prior episodes of thrombocytopenia after a cycle of cancer chemotherapy

A

Interleukin 11 (oprelvekin)

213
Q

Decrease intestinal absorption of cholesterol

A

Bile acid-binding resins

214
Q

Cholestyramine and colestipol are

A

Bile acid-binding resins

215
Q

Major nutritional side effect of bile acid-binding resins

A

Impair absorption of fat soluble vitamin absorption (A;D;E;K)

216
Q

MOA of lovastatin (STATIN)

A

inhibits HMG COA reductase

217
Q

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

218
Q

How drug or foods (grapefruit juice) increase statin effect

A

Inhibit Cytochrome P450 3A4

219
Q

SE of HMG COA reductase inhibitors

A

Rhabdomyolysis and Hepatotoxicity

220
Q

Monitoring parameter to obtain before initiation of STATINS

A

LFT’s

221
Q

Decreases liver triglycerol synthesis

A

Niacin

222
Q

SE of niacin

A

Cutaneous flush

223
Q

Cutaneous flush due to niacin can be reduced by pretreatment with

A

Aspirin

224
Q

Fibrates (gemfibrozil) increase activity of

A

Lipoprotein lipase

225
Q

Most common SE of fibrates

A

Nausea

226
Q

Fibrates are contraindicated in

A

Pregnancy

227
Q

Concurrent use of fibrates and statins increases risk of

A

Rhabdomyolysis

228
Q

Class of drugs that works by inhibiting absorption of intestinal cholesterol and can be given concurrently with the Statins

A

Ezetimibe (Zetia)

229
Q

MOA of NSAIDS

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase (cox)

230
Q

Difference between aspirin and other NSAIDS

A

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase

231
Q

Four main actions of NSAIDS

A

Anti-inflammatory; analgesia; antipyretic and antiplatelet activity

232
Q

Agent used for closure of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Indomethacin

233
Q

The reason why aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infection

A

Potential for development of Reye’s syndrome

234
Q

SE of salicylates

A

Tinnitus; GI bleeding

235
Q

NSAID available orally; IM; IV; nasally; and ophthalmically

A

Ketoralac

236
Q

NSAID that is used for acute condition; such as pre-op anesthesia and has limited duration (<5 days) of use due to nephrotoxicity

A

Ketoralac

237
Q

Newer NSAIDs that selectively inhibit COX-2

A

Celecoxib

238
Q

COX 2 inhibitors may have reduced risk of

A

Gastric ulcers and GI Bleeding

239
Q

COX 2 inhibitors should be used cautiously in pts with

A

Pre-existing cardiac or renal disease

240
Q

Acetaminophen only has what activity?

A

Antipyretic and analgesic activity

241
Q

SE of acetaminophen

A

Hepatotoxicity

242
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen toxicity

A

N-acetylcysteine

243
Q

DMARDs are slow acting drugs for

A

Rheumatic disease

244
Q

MOA of gold salts

A

Alter activity of macrophages and suppress phagocytic activity of PMNs

245
Q

SE of gold salts

A

Dermatitis of the mouth aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis

246
Q

Causes bone marrow suppression

A

Methotrexate

247
Q

SE of penicillamine

A

Aplastic anemia and renal

248
Q

Interferes with activity of T-lymphocytes

A

Hydroxychloroquine

249
Q

Anti-malarial drug used in rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

A

Hydroxychloroquine

250
Q

SE of hydroxychloroquine

A

Retinal destruction and dermatitis

251
Q

MOA of Leflunomide (newer agent)

A

Inhibiting Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase which leads to decreased pyrimidine synthesis

252
Q

Proteins that prevent action of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha)

A

Infliximab and etanercept

253
Q

Anti-rheumatic agent also used for ulcerative colitis

A

Sulfasalazine

254
Q

NSAID used in gout

A

Indomethacin; ibuprofen

255
Q

NSAID avoided in gout because low doses increases uric acid levels

A

Aspirin

256
Q

MOA of Colchicine (used in acute gout)

A

Selective inhibitor of microtubule assembly

257
Q

SE of colchicine

A

Kidney and liver toxicity; diarrhea; myelosuppression

258
Q

Agent used to treat chronic gout by increasing uric acid excretion through inhibition of URAT1 anion transporter

A

Probenecid

259
Q

Agent that inhibits xanthine oxidases and used to treat chronic gout

A

Allopurinol; febuxostat

260
Q

Recombinant uricases that enhance uric acid metabolism

A

rasburicase; pegloticase

Pharmacology Boards (3 decks)

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