Pharm HW 1-25 Flashcards

1
Q

A drug is assigned a pregnancy category “A” if:
Choose one answer.
A. there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, and the risk of using the drug in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible benefit.
B. there is positive evidence of human fetal risk, but the benefits from use in pregnant women may be acceptable despite the documented risk.
C. studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women, or studies in women and animals are not available.
D. controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A drug that possesses the same desired clinical effect in several smaller doses as it does in a larger single dose has demonstrated:
Choose one answer.
	 A. an idiosyncratic reaction.  	
	 B. the placebo effect.  	
	 C. a cumulative action.  	
	 D. cross-tolerance.
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A medication is called an antagonist if:
Choose one answer.
A. it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator.
B. it stimulates a receptor site to cause the response that that receptor normally causes.
C. it attaches to a receptor site and produces an effect or series of effects.
D. the chemical mediator of a receptor has a higher affinity than the medication.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A medication is used “off-label.” This means that it:
Choose one answer.
A. is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.
B. has been determined to be safe by a physician, and is used to treat a patient’s illness before the medication has been approved by the FDA for any purpose.
C. is administered in clinical trials while the manufacturer conducts further research and before the FDA has approved the medication for use.
D. is administered in an extreme emergency situation, but only if initial clinical trials have determined that the medication will not cause harm to the patient.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A medication that initiates or alters a cellular activity by attaching to receptor sites and prompting a cell response is said to be:
Choose one answer.
	 A. synergistic.  	
	 B. an agonist.  	
	 C. an antagonist.  	
	 D. a competitive binder.
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index:
Choose one answer.
A. can be given, but not without close patient monitoring.
B. should not be given to patients over 50 years of age.
C. is safe to give because the chance of toxicity is remote.
D. should not be given because its effects are too harmful.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will:
Choose one answer.
A. cause a decrease in the heart rate.
B. cause an increase in blood pressure.
C. decrease myocardial contractile force.
D. increase cardiac electrical conduction velocity.

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:
Choose one answer.
	 A. liver.  	
	 B. spleen.  	
	 C. stomach.  	
	 D. bone marrow.
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A paramedic gives a woman with chronic pain an injection of sterile saline and tells her that it is a narcotic analgesic. The paramedic’s action:
Choose one answer.
A. could result in criminal prosecution.
B. will likely be of therapeutic benefit.
C. is acceptable under the circumstances.
D. demonstrates compassion and empathy

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
A patient experiences profound sedation when an opioid, such as fentanyl, is given together with a benzodiazepine, such as midazolam. This is an example of:
Choose one answer.
	 A. synergism.  	
	 B. summation.  	
	 C. potentiation.  	
	 D. antagonism.
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A patient receives several doses of the same drug within a short period of time, after which point the medication does not relieve his symptoms. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
Choose one answer.
	 A. Tachyphylaxis  	
	 B. Cross-tolerance  	
	 C. Down-regulation  	
	 D. Dependence
A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
A patient takes 500 mg of a medication that has a half-life of 2 hours. How much medication will be in the patient's body after 6 hours?
Choose one answer.
	 A. 250 mg  	
	 B. 125 mg  	
	 C. 62.5 mg  	
	 D. 31.25 mg
A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A unit of packed red blood cells contains approximately \_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_ mL of concentrated red blood cells.
Choose one answer.
	 A. 125, 200  	
	 B. 225, 250  	
	 C. 250, 500  	
	 D. 500, 725
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ medication typically includes a “stem” that links it to other medications in the same class.
Choose one answer.
	 A. trade  	
	 B. official  	
	 C. brand  	
	 D. generic
A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ agent is used to increase the pH of the serum or urine?
Choose one answer.
	 A. antacid  	
	 B. alkalinizing  	
	 C. anticoagulant  	
	 D. antihistamine
A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ACE inhibitor medications lower blood pressure by:
Choose one answer.
A. selectively binding to alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors.
B. blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C. increasing cardiac afterload and reducing cardiac output.
D. blocking the release of angiotensin I from the renal system.

A

b

17
Q
Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that:
Choose one answer.
	 A. decreases the heart rate.  	
	 B. slows cardiac conduction.  	
	 C. breaks down acetylcholine.  	
	 D. promotes acetylcholine secretion.
A

c

18
Q
All of the following are common sites for emergency IO cannulation, EXCEPT the:
Choose one answer.
	 A. proximal humerus.  	
	 B. iliac crest.  	
	 C. proximal tibia.  	
	 D. manubrium.
A

b

19
Q
All of the following are endogenous catecholamines, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. dopamine.  	
	 B. atropine.  	
	 C. epinephrine.  	
	 D. norepinephrine
A

b

20
Q
All of the following are Schedule II substances, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. Ritalin.  	
	 B. fentanyl.  	
	 C. cocaine.  	
	 D. heroin.
A

d

21
Q
All of the following medications are used to reduce a patient's heart rate and blood pressure, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. lorazepam.  	
	 B. diltiazem.  	
	 C. metoprolol.  	
	 D. Tenormin.
A

a

22
Q
All of the following medications fall in the same classification, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. captopril  	
	 B. enalapril  	
	 C. diazepam  	
	 D. lisinopril
A

c

23
Q
All of the following medications possess antiemetic properties, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
	 A. ondansetron.  	
	 B. dolasetron.  	
	 C. famotidine.  	
	 D. prochlorperazine.
A

c

24
Q
An abnormal susceptibility to a medication that is peculiar to an individual patient is called an:
Choose one answer.
	 A. untoward effect.  	
	 B. adverse reaction.  	
	 C. idiosyncratic reaction.  	
	 D. exaggerated therapeutic effect.
A

c

25
Q
An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a:
Choose one answer.
	 A. side effect.  	
	 B. idiosyncrasy.  	
	 C. placebo effect.  	
	 D. adverse effect.
A

d