Psychology Midterm Exam Notes; Second Half Unit Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Psychology Midterm Exam Notes; Second Half Unit Deck (219)
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1
Q

A knife is a better example of the weapon category than a string. A knife is a…

A

prototype

2
Q

On a standard bell curve, what is the approximate percentage of individuals who score between 85 and 115 on a Wechsler intelligence test?

A

68%

3
Q

Who developed the first modern intelligence test in order to determine whether schoolchildren needed special instruction?

A

Alfred Binet

4
Q

Dr. Gupte wants to design a test to measure a student’s knowledge of psychology and to compare the student to others across the country. She wants to test it on a representative sample of students across the country first, using the exact same procedures in each place. What would best describe this step of the process?

A

standardizing the exam

5
Q

What syndrome did Howard Gardner use to support his theory of multiple intelligences?

A

savant

6
Q

What statistical measure helps researchers identify clusters of items that measure a common ability?

A

factor analysis

7
Q

Charles Spearman believed that there was a factor underlying all components of intelligence. What is that factor called?

A

g factor (think “g for general”)

8
Q

What is an intelligence test designed to measure?

A

aptitude

9
Q

What is the best way to predict a newborn infant’s future intelligence?

A

identify the parents’ IQ scores

10
Q

Joey, who is twenty-seven years old, has achieved academically to about the second-grade level and can work in a workshop with direct supervision. What is Joey’s probable level of intellectual disability?

A

moderate

11
Q

A student who is at the extreme high end of intelligence is bound to have social difficulties and not be able to adjust well. Is this statement true or false?

A

false

12
Q

An individual with intellectual disability caused by an extra chromosome may have what disorder?

A

down syndrome

13
Q

What quality of aptitude tests requires that they predict future achievement?

A

criterion-related validity

14
Q

Jane finds that her calculus exam asks about Freud and Jung, who haven’t been discussed in her calculus class before. What is this test lacking?

A

content validity

15
Q

If a test does not obtain consistent results from the same individual at two different times, it is lacking what important component?

A

test-retest reliability

16
Q

A test can have reliability without validity. Is this statement true or false?

A

true

17
Q

What type of test would you take to test out of a college class, because you already learned the material in high school?

A

achievement

18
Q

Robert Sternberg said that there are three aspects of intelligence. Which type of intelligence helps us to solve novel problems?

A

practical intelligence

19
Q

What type of speech are we hearing when Stephen says, “Gimme cat”?

A

telegraphic speech

20
Q

Genie was a wild child who was unable to learn language after being isolated without language. This case supports the

A

theory that there is a critical period in language acquisition

21
Q

What term describes Whorf’s hypothesis that language determines the way we think about our world?

A

linguistic determinism

22
Q

What theorist and school of thought suggested that individuals acquire language through imitating the noises they hear and repeating those sounds when they get the reinforcement of smiling?

A

Skinner; behaviorist

23
Q

Brian took his watch apart to fix it, but he doesn’t remember how to put it back together. He decides to try every combination. What problem-solving strategy is he using?

A

algorithm

24
Q

Timmy needs to get a coin out of a drain grate. He ponders the problem and cannot come up with a solution. However, as he walks away, he suddenly thinks about putting gum on the end of a stick. What problem-solving strategy just occurred for Timmy?

A

insight

25
Q

On the TV show MacGyver, the character was able to solve all kinds of problems by using everyday objects like clothes hangers and pens to create ingenious designs. Which tendency did MacGyver obviously not suffer from?

A

mental set

26
Q

Janna’s MP3 player stopped working. The last time it stopped working, it was broken and could not be reset. Janna assumed that this was the case again and put it back into the box to be returned without noticing that the battery was upside down. This an example of

A

availability heuristic

27
Q

What term describes our tendency to judge the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to match our prototypes?

A

representativeness heuristic

28
Q

What process does a person use in voting for a presidential candidate after only hearing the candidate on the news and not exploring the candidate’s beliefs?

A

heuristics

29
Q

What term describes the way a question is posed or presented?

A

framing

30
Q

Our tendency to stick to our beliefs no matter what contradictory evidence is presented is called

A

belief perseverance

31
Q

Cognition

A

the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating

32
Q

Concept

A

a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people

33
Q

Prototype

A

a mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to a prototype provides a quick and easy method for sorting items into categories (as when comparing feathered creatures to a prototypical bird, such as a robin).

34
Q

Algorithm

A

a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. Contrasts with the usually speedier - but also more error-prone - use of heuristics. It is a step-by-step procedure. It can be exhausting, though.

35
Q

Heuristic

A

a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone.

36
Q

Insight

A

a sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem; it contrasts with strategy-based solutions.

37
Q

Confirmation bias

A

a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence. (we are looking for confirmation)

38
Q

Who demonstrated confirmation bias?

A

Peter Wason

39
Q

Fixation

A

the inability to see a problem from a new perspective, by employing a different mental set.

40
Q

What is an example of a fixation?

A

mental set

41
Q

Mental set

A

a tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past.

42
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particularly prototypes; may lead us to ignore other relevant information. Can become stereotypes. For example, if someone tells you about a short, slim, and poetry-loving person, you would never guess that person might be a truck driver. You’d assume that person might be a professor at a university.

43
Q

Availability heuristic

A

estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common. For example, if someone was in a recent car wreck, they would be more afraid to drive for fear of getting in another wreck, even though the odds of that happening are very low.

44
Q

Overconfidence

A

the tendency to be more confident than correct - to overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments.

45
Q

Belief perseverance

A

clinging to one’s initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited.

46
Q

Intuition

A

an effortless, immediate, automatic feeling or thought, as contrasted with explicit, conscious reasoning.

47
Q

Framing

A

the way an issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions and judgments.

48
Q

The most systematic procedure for solving a problem is a(n)…

A

algorithm

49
Q

When consumers respond more positively to ground beef described as “75% lean” than to the same product labeled “25% fat”, they have been influenced by…

A

framing

50
Q

Language

A

our spoken, written, or signed words and the ways we combine them to communicate meaning

51
Q

Receptive language

A

the ability to comprehend speech

52
Q

Productive language

A

the ability to produce words

53
Q

Babbling stage

A

beginning at about 4 months, the stage of speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language.

54
Q

One-word stage

A

the stage in speech development, from about age 1 to 2, during which a child speaks mostly in single words

55
Q

Two-word stage

A

beginning about age 2, the stage in speech development during which a child speaks mostly two-word statements

56
Q

Telegraphic speech

A

early speech stage (also begins at about age 2) in which a child speaks like a telegram - “go car” - using mostly nouns and verbs

57
Q

Behaviorist B.F. Skinner believed we can explain language development with familiar learning principles, such as…

A

association, imitation, and reinforcement

58
Q

Linguistic determinism

A

Whorf’s hypothesis that language determines the way we think

59
Q

Intelligence

A

mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations.

60
Q

Who believed we have one general intelligence?

A

Charles Spearman

61
Q

General (g) intelligence

A

a general intelligence factor that, according to Spearman, underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test. For example, if you can run fast, then you have enough strength to lift a weight, and therefore, have enough eye-hand coordination required to throw a ball on target.

62
Q

Factor analysis

A

a statistical procedure that identifies clusters of related items (called factors) on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie a person’s total score. (think back to the athlete analogy again; see general intelligence)

63
Q

Savant syndrome

A

a condition, according to Howard Gardner, in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill, such as computation or drawing.

64
Q

4 in 5 people with savant syndrome are males. True or false?

A

true

65
Q

A general intelligence score is the overall rating, rather than the specific information. True or false?

A

true

66
Q

What are Gardner’s Eight Intelligences?

A

linguistic (poetry), logical-mathematical (science), musical (composer), spatial (artist), bodily-kinesthetic (dancer), intrapersonal (self) (psychiatrist), interpersonal (others) (leader), and naturalist (naturalist)

67
Q

Gardner’s Eight Intelligences believed what was the key to intelligence?

A

success

68
Q

Robert Sternberg proposed a triarchic theory of three intelligences:

A

analytical intelligence (problem-solving), creative intelligence, and practical intelligence

69
Q

Analytical intelligence

A

is assessed by intelligence tests, which present well-defined problems having a single right answer

70
Q

Creative intelligence

A

is demonstrated in reacting adaptively to novel situations and generating novel ideas

71
Q

Practical intelligence

A

is required for everyday tasks, which may be ill-defined, with multiple solutions

72
Q

Creativity

A

the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas

73
Q

Convergent thinking

A

thinking that demands a single correct answer

74
Q

Injury to what part of the brain prevents convergent thinking?

A

left parietal lobe

75
Q

Divergent thinking

A

used on creativity tests; example: “how many uses can you think of for a brick?”

76
Q

Injury to what areas of the brain destroy imagination?

A

frontal lobes

77
Q

What are Sternberg’s five components of creativity?

A

expertise, imaginative thinking skills, a venturesome personalty, intrinsic motivation, and a creative environment

78
Q

Expertise

A

a well-developed base of knowledge, furnishes the ideas, images, and phrases we use as mental building blocks

79
Q

Imaginative thinking skills

A

provide the ability to see things in novel ways, to recognize patterns, and to make connections.

80
Q

A venturesome personality

A

seeks new experiences, tolerates ambiguity and risk, and perseveres in overcoming obstacles. Example: Thomas Edison tried countless substances before finding the right one for his lightbulb.

81
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

being driven more by interest, satisfaction, and challenge than by external pressures

82
Q

A creative environment

A

sparks, supports, and refines creative ideas.

83
Q

Emotional intelligence

A

the ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions

84
Q

Intelligence test

A

a method for assessing an individual’s mental aptitudes and comparing them with those of others, using numerical scores.

85
Q

Mental age

A

a measure of intelligence test performance devised by Binet; the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance. Thus, a child who does as well as the average 8-year-old is said to have a mental age of 8.

86
Q

Stanford-Binet

A

the widely used American revision of Binet’s original intelligence test

87
Q

What was Binet’s greatest fear about his intelligence test?

A

that it would be used to label children and limit their opportunities

88
Q

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

A

defined originally as the ratio of mental age (ma) to chronological age (ca) multiplied by 100 (thus, IQ = ma/ca x 100). On contemporary intelligence tests, the average performance for a given age is assigned a score of 100.

89
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)

A

the WAIS is the most widely used intelligence tests; contains verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests.

90
Q

Standardization

A

defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group

91
Q

Normal curve

A

the symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the distribution of many physical and psychological attributes. Most scores fall near the average, and fewer and fewer scores lie near the extremes. (About 95% of all people fall within 30 points of 100 and about 68% of people score within 15 points above or below 100).

92
Q

Reliability (consistency)

A

the extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, or on resetting.

93
Q

Split-half reliability

A

splitting the test in half to see whether odd-question scores and even-question scores agree

94
Q

Test-retest reliability

A

checking a test’s reliability by retesting people and comparing the scores

95
Q

Validity (inaccuracy)

A

the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to (Example, if you use an inaccurate tape measure to measure people’s heights, your height report would have high reliability, but low validity or inaccuracy)

96
Q

Content validity

A

the extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest (Example, course exams have content validity if they assess one’s mastery of a representative sample of course material)

97
Q

Predictive validity

A

the success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior.

98
Q

What is the best predictor of future achievements?

A

past grades

99
Q

The WAIS is best able to tell us…

A

how the test-taker compares with other adults in vocabulary and reasoning

100
Q

The Stanford-Binet, the WAIS, and the WISC are known to have very high reliability (about +.9). This means that…

A

the test yields consistent results, for example on re-testing

101
Q

What are the degrees of intellectual disability?

A

mild, moderate, severe, and profound

102
Q

Mild level

A

intelligence scores are 50-70. The person may learn academic skills up to sixth-grade level. Adults may, with assistance, achieve self-supporting social and vocational skills.

103
Q

Moderate level

A

intelligence scores are 35-50. The person may progress to second-grade level academically. Adults may contribute to their own support by laboring in sheltered workshops.

104
Q

Severe level

A

intelligence scores are 20-35. The person may learn to talk and perform simple work tasks under close supervision, but are generally unable to profit from vocational training.

105
Q

Profound level

A

intelligence scores are below 20. The person requires constant aid and supervision.

106
Q

Do people who share the same genes also share comparable mental abilities?

A

yes

107
Q

What are some true facts about twin intelligence?

A

The intelligence test scores of identical twins reared together are virtually as similar as those of a person taking the same test twice. Also, brain scans reveal that identical twins have very similar gray matter volume, and that their brains (unlike those of fraternal twins) are virtually the same in areas associated with verbal and spatial intelligence.

108
Q

Heritability

A

the proportion of variation among individuals that we can attribute to genes. The heritability of a trait may vary, depending on the range of populations and environments studied.

109
Q

Psychologically speaking, females are generally better at…

A

spelling, verbal ability (they excel at verbal fluency and remembering words), nonverbal memory (they have an edge in remembering and locating objects), sensation (more sensitive to touch, taste, and odor), and emotion-detecting

110
Q

Are males or females better at math?

A

on math tests given to more than 3 million representatively sampled people in 100 independent studies, males and females obtained nearly identical scores. However, females displayed an edge in math computation, while males scored higher in math problem solving.

111
Q

Do males or females excel in spatial abilities?

A

Males do. Exposure to high levels of male sex hormones during the prenatal period enhances spatial abilities.

112
Q

What are some more facts about men vs. women when it comes to intelligence?

A

Women excel at: verbal fluency, rapid math calculations, and remembering objects’ spatial positions.
Men excel at: verbal analogies, rapid math reasoning, and remembering geometric layouts.

113
Q

Stereotype threat

A

a self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype. (Example, blacks will score higher when tested by blacks than they do when tested by whites, and vice versa).

114
Q

A researcher who spends most of her time investigating what people want and what directs them to behave in a particular way is primarily involved in research on…

A

motivation

115
Q

Piaget believed that rooting, sucking, and grasping are innate tendencies that are unlearned. He believed that these tendencies are…

A

instincts

116
Q

In elementary school, a student who does something good may be given a gold star next to his name. What does the star represent?

A

incentive

117
Q

Johnny is walking through the desert without any water and is incredibly thirsty. What theory best explains his desire to drink and then the need to stop when satisfied?

A

drive-reduction theory

118
Q

According to Abraham Maslow, we cannot think about satisfying our safety needs until we have satisfied an appropriate amount of…

A

physiological needs

119
Q

What is the highest need that people strive for, according to Maslow?

A

self-actualization

120
Q

Even with all our basic biological needs met, we still seek out stimulation. What theory of motivation attempts to explain this phenomenon?

A

arousal theory

121
Q

Even if Kevin has his stomach removed, he will still feel hunger. What part of Kevin’s brain is very involved in determining the feeling of hunger?

A

hypothalamus

122
Q

Peggy has a rising insulin level, and she begins to feel hungry. What is triggering this feeling of hunger?

A

a declining blood glucose level

123
Q

Destruction of which part of the brain causes overeating?

A

ventromedial hypothalamus

124
Q

When Valerie’s weight goes below her set point, what is she likely to experience?

A

increase in hunger and decrease in basal metabolic rate

125
Q

What hormone is secreted by the stomach and sends “I’m hungry” signals to the brain?

A

ghrelin

126
Q

Janet is extremely anxious about work and finds herself craving carbohydrates. Which neurotransmitter will the carbohydrates release that promotes a calming influence and can help elevate her mood?

A

serotonin

127
Q

Julie, a 15-year-old, has suddenly dropped about 15 percent of her body weight. She is obsessive about everything related to food and refuses to eat most of it. What disorder does Julie most likely have?

A

anorexia nervosa

128
Q

Theresa is very concerned about her weight and has been trying to diet. She finds that she has uncontrollable urges to consume huge amounts of food, feels guilty, and then takes laxatives or vomits. Her weight has not dropped dramatically, but she has begun to develop more cavities than usual. What disorder is Theresa most likely to have?

A

bulimia

129
Q

Who is most likely to develop eating disorders?

A

women from Western cultures

130
Q

Which statement(s) regarding fat cells is (are) true?

A

Once the number of fat cells increases, it will never decrease. Fat cells are there because of genetic predisposition. Fat cells can increase due to childhood and adult overeating patterns.

131
Q

If Ruth is obese and puts herself on a major diet of calorie reduction, her body will think she is starving and will slow down her metabolism. Is this statement true or false?

A

true

132
Q

In the sexual response cycle, what comes right before the orgasm?

A

plateau

133
Q

During the final phase of the sexual response cycle, a male may experience a period of time when he cannot achieve another orgasm. What is this time called?

A

the refractory period

134
Q

Which sexual disorder is related to being unable to attain or maintain an erection?

A

erectile dysfunction

135
Q

Research has indicated that male viewers who watch a female being sexually coerced and depicted as enjoying it tend to decrease their acceptance of the idea that women enjoy rape and decrease their willingness to hurt women. Is this statement true or false?

A

false

136
Q

An individual who is sexually attracted to the same sex is said to have what type of sexual orientation?

A

homosexual

137
Q

Leslie is willing to put up with her alcoholic, abusive husband rather than risk being lonely. This illustrates a danger of which need?

A

belonging

138
Q

Research has indicated that which of the following is (are) true?

A

Those who have bonds with others are healthier and happier and have a better chance of survival. In order to make and maintain bonds, we conform to a majority group behavior and spend a lot of money on the right clothes.

139
Q

Harold has always had a hard time making friends. He and Ed are going bowling and playing computer games together. Ed insists on deciding what they’ll do and usually demands that Harold pay for the activity. Harold is willing to do it because he likes having someone to do things with. This illustrates a danger of which need?

A

belonging

140
Q

What best explains the drive-reduction theory?

A

it is when our physiological needs create an aroused tension state that motivates an individual to satisfy that need.

141
Q

What is the sex hormone predominantly secreted by females?

A

estrogen

142
Q

Prepubertal males who were castrated do not develop normal sexual characteristics or normal sexual drive. What sex hormone is depleted?

A

testosterone

143
Q

What is the body’s resting rate of energy expenditure called?

A

basal metabolic rate

144
Q

Motivation

A

a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior

145
Q

Instinct

A

a complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned

146
Q

Drive-reduction theory

A

the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy that need

147
Q

Homeostasis

A

the aim of the drive-reduction theory. A tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level. (Example, the body’s temperature-regulation system, which works like a room thermostat. If the room temperature cools, the thermostat’s controls trigger a switch that turns on the furnace. If our body temperature cools, blood vessels constrict to conceiver warmth.)

148
Q

Incentive

A

a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior

149
Q

Hierarchy of needs

A

Maslow’s pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active.

150
Q

From the base to the top, what are Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological needs (need to satisfy hunger and thirst), safety needs (need to feel the world is organized and predictable; need to feel safe), belongingness and love needs (need to love and be loved), esteem needs (need for self-esteem, achievement, competence, and independence), self-actualization needs (need to live up to our fullest and unique potential), and self-transcendence needs (need to find meaning and identity beyond the self).

151
Q

Which theory attempts to explain behaviors that do NOT reduce physiological needs?

A

the arousal theory

152
Q

The effects of external incentives, such as the smell of baking bread, are best explained in terms of…

A

individual learning histories

153
Q

Glucose

A

the form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When its level is low, we feel hungry.

154
Q

Insulin

A

secreted by pancreas; controls blood glucose. Increases in this hormone diminish blood glucose.

155
Q

Orexin

A

secreted by hypothalamus; triggers hunger

156
Q

Ghrelin

A

secreted by empty stomach; sends “I’m hungry” signals to the brain

157
Q

Obestatin

A

secreted by stomach; sends “I’m full” signals to the brain

158
Q

PYY

A

secreted by digestive tract; sends “I’m not hungry” signals to the brain

159
Q

Leptin

A

secreted by fat cells; sends signals to the brain diminishing the rewarding pleasure of food

160
Q

Lateral hypothalamus

A

activity along this brings on hunger. If electrically stimulated, well-fed animals begin to eat. If destroyed, even starving animals have no interest in food. Manages orexin.

161
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus

A

the lower mid-hypothalamus. It depresses hunger. Stimulate this area and an animal will stop eating; destroy it and the opposite occurs.

162
Q

Set point

A

the point at which an individual’s “weight thermostat” is supposedly set. When the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight.

163
Q

Basal metabolic rate

A

the body’s resting rate of energy expenditure

164
Q

What percent of Americans are overweight?

A

66%

165
Q

Obese

A

a body mass index of 30 or more

166
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

an eating disorder in which a person (usually an adolescent female) diets and becomes significantly (15% or more) underweight, yet, still feeling fat, continues to starve.

167
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

an eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high-calorie foods, followed by vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise.

168
Q

Binge-eating disorder

A

significant binge-eating episodes, followed by distress, disgust, guilt, but without the compensatory purging, fasting, or excessive exercise.

169
Q

What problems come with obesity?

A

diabetes, high blood pressure, heart disease, gallstones, arthritis, and certain types of cancer. Women who are obese can also get Alzheimer’s disease and brain tissue loss.

170
Q

How does hunger occur?

A

in response to high blood insulin, low blood glucose, and high levels of ghrelin

171
Q

Sexual response cycle

A

the four stages of sexual responding described my Masters and Johnson - excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution.

172
Q

Excitement phase

A

genitals become engorged with blood

173
Q

Plateau phase

A

breathing, pulse, and blood pressure rates continue to increase

174
Q

Orgasm

A

muscle contractions all over the body

175
Q

Resolution

A

the male enters the refractory period

176
Q

Refractory period

A

a resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another orgasm

177
Q

Sexual disorder

A

a problem that consistently impairs sexual arousal or functioning

178
Q

Estrogens

A

sex hormones, such as estradiol, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males and contributing to female sex characteristics.

179
Q

Testosterone

A

the most important of the male sex hormones. Both males and females have it, but the additional testosterone in males stimulates the growth of male sex organs in the fetus and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty.

180
Q

What causes teen pregnancy?

A

ignorance, minimal communication about birth control, guilt related to sexual activity, alcohol use, and mass media norms of unprotected sex.

181
Q

What percent of 14 to 19 year-old U.S. females have STIs?

A

39.5%

182
Q

What are some predictors of sexual restraint?

A

High intelligence, religious engagement, father presence, and participation in service learning programs

183
Q

Sexual orientation

A

an enduring sexual attraction toward members of either one’s own sex (homosexuality) or the other sex (heterosexuality)

184
Q

Erotic plasticity

A

in men, a high sex drive is associated with increased attraction to women. In women, a high sex drive is associated with increased attraction to both men and women.

185
Q

One striking effect of hormonal changes on human sexual behavior is the…

A

sharp rise in sexual interest at puberty.

186
Q

A new driver starts hydroplaning and loses control of the car. His increased emotional arousal is likely to be accompanied by

A

increased blood glucose levels

187
Q

Laura is taking her SAT on Saturday to determine whether she will get into an Ivy League school. Her performance will be best if she is at what level of physiological arousal?

A

moderate

188
Q

What happens to the heart as the parasympathetic system is activated?

A

heartbeat slows

189
Q

The right hemisphere of the brain becomes more electrically active when people experience what type of emotions?

A

negative emotions

190
Q

If Brad and Jen want to feel greater affection for each other, what should they do most?

A

look into each others’ eyes

191
Q

What will happen if your facial muscles are taped into a fearful expression while driving too fast?

A

You will have increased feelings of fear.

192
Q

The neural pathways of some of the emotions bypass the cortex, in order to speed up our emotional reaction. Where in the brain does much of that information go after the thalamus?

A

amygdala

193
Q

If a school principal believes that watching violent TV programs helps students alleviate their feelings of anger through fantasy, what idea does the principal support?

A

catharsis hypothesis

194
Q

After receiving an excellent evaluation at work, Amanda is more likely to agree to help a friend move. What does this illustrate?

A

feel-good, do-good phenomenon

195
Q

Tobias was happy with his bonus of $5,000 until he found out that everyone else got a bonus of $10,000. This shows that happiness is influenced by…

A

relative deprivation

196
Q

Alex’s mother told him, “When your heart is pounding and you are sweating, then you know you are frightened.” What theory of emotion does she support?

A

James-Lange theory

197
Q

What does the Cannon-Bard theory say about experiencing emotions?

A

The arousal and the emotion happen at the same time.

198
Q

According to the two-factor theory, there are two basic components of emotions. They are physical arousal and…

A

cognitive levels

199
Q

What releases the stress hormones of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

adrenal glands

200
Q

According to psychologists, what is the primary cause of stress?

A

how we appraise life events

201
Q

During what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is a person especially vulnerable to sickness?

A

exhaustion

202
Q

Juan, an air traffic controller, has been under tremendous stress for the last ten years. Juan is now mentally, physically, and emotionally exhausted. What is Juan suffering from?

A

burnout

203
Q

If two people are exposed to the same events, who will most likely experience more stress?

A

the person who believes that he/she does not have any control over the events

204
Q

Individuals who are supermotivated, verbally aggressive, and easily angered have what type of personality?

A

Type A

205
Q

Julia was excited when she found out that she was admitted to Yale University. After several weeks, she found that she was no longer excited when she thought about her admittance to Yale. What explains this change in her feelings?

A

adaptation-level phenomenon

206
Q

During an emergency, we are likely to experience arousal in what system?

A

sympathetic nervous system

207
Q

Tom is most likely to get Penelope to help him mow the lawn when…

A

Penelope gets a major promotion at work

208
Q

Facial expressions of emotion tend to intensify the experience of emotions. What theory does this support?

A

James-Lange theory

209
Q

When her husband does not come home when expected, Marguerite is afraid that he has been in a shooting accident. Her heart and respiration are at an extremely high level. Which system has been activated?

A

sympathetic

210
Q

Children blind from birth have the same general facial expressions as sighted children. Is this statement true or false?

A

true

211
Q

A therapist tells Kim that she can reduce her feelings of anger at Mark by ripping up pictures of him. What does her therapist believe in?

A

catharsis hypothesis

212
Q

Stress increases our chances for disease and can make which of the following illnesses worse?

A

cancer, heart disease risk, and AIDs

213
Q

What machine measures physiological responses that accompany emotion and is often used to detect lies?

A

polygraph

214
Q

Harriet and her friend Lisa were on the track team. Harriet shaved 3 full seconds off her time on the 50 meter sprint. She felt great about it until she told Lisa, who had shaved off 10 seconds and now had a much better time than Harriet. What explains Harriet?s disappointment with her achievement?

A

relative deprivation principle

215
Q

What term describes a “mind-body” illness or any stress-related physical illness?

A

psychophysiological

216
Q

Emotion

A

a response of the whole organism, involving (1) physiological arousal, (2) expressive behaviors, and (3) consciously experienced thoughts and feelings.

217
Q

James-Lange theory

A

the theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli (first comes a physiological response, then, as we observe that response, comes our experienced emotion)

218
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) subjective experience of emotion (your heart begins pounding as you experience fear).

219
Q

Two-factor theory

A

the Schachter-Singer theory that to experience emotion one must (1) be physically aroused and (2) cognitively label the arousal (example, “I’m afraid”)