Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

all of the following are true about the immune response EXCEPT?

A

a. the immune system cannot mistake self for nonself
b. if the immune defenses are misdirected they can initiate allergic disease
c. microorganisms are perceived as antigens by the immune system
d. part of a microbe or toxin produced by bacteria can be perceived as antigenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which one of the following is important in minimizing transplant rejection?

A

a. germinal centers
b. MHC markers
c. passive antibodies
d. TCF markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MHC markers

A

a. act as markers of self
b. are not present on cells that have been transformed by cancer or viral infection
c. are not highly specific
d. play no role in transplant rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

lymphocytes are

A

a. short-lived mobile cells
b. represent 20-25% of all white blood cells
c. are a specialized form of B granulocytes
d. are also known in tissue as histiocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

B cells

A

a. become inactive when they encounter antigens
b. remain in the bone marrow for the life of the individual
c. are mature neutrophils
d. become plasma cells and produce one specific antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which one of the following is the first antibody produced in response to an antigen?

A

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which one of the following is found in body fluids, including tears and saliva?

A

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

all of the following are true about activated T cells EXCEPT:

A

a. they can remain in the body permanently
b. they can directly attack infected or cancerous cells
c. they may direct and regulate the immune response
d. activated T cells release histamine, responsible for the symptoms of allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

macrophages

A

a. circulate in the blood
b. play a role in eliminating foreign antigens in tissue
c. release powerful chemical signals called antibodies
d. are rare in the lungs, kidneys, brain, and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which one of the following is not a function of cytokines?

A

a. carrying information to and from immune cells
b. enhancing cell growth and differentiation
c. releasing histamine to kill parasites
d. attracting cells to migrate to an area by chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

all of the following are true about the primary immune response EXCEPT:

A

a. it involves the integrated efforts of both humoral and cellular immunity
b. the primary response may take up to a year to fully develop
c. during a second exposure to the same antigen, there will be a secondary response
d. memory B cells left behind after a primary response are “primed”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in active immunity

A

a. antibodies are not produced by the host
b. antibodies are transmitted from mother to infant
c. the protection normally lasts only a few weeks
d. antibodies are produced in response to an allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

allergic reactions in which exaggerated response leads to body tissue destruction are known as

A

a. hypersensitivity reactions
b. passive immunity
c. immunodeficiency reaction
d. hyposensitivity reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

reactions to transfusions and erythroblastosis fetalis are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis?

A

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

in autoimmune diseases

A

a. the immune system is activated to distinguish self from nonself
b. activated B cells produce antibodies against self-antigens called autoantibodies
c. immunity occur when cytotoxic T cells attack abnormal tissues
d. symptoms usually manifests as a type I hypersensitivity

17
Q

all of the following are examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases EXCEPT

A

a. selective IgA deficiency
b. hypergammaglobulinemia
c. diGeorge syndrome
d. erythroblastosis fetalis

18
Q

contact dermatitis

A

a. requires direct contact with an allergen
b. results in lifelong immunity when re-exposed
c. has no known treatment
d. is considered a type I hypersensitivity reaction

19
Q

all of the following immune defects predispose patients to developing recurrent aphthous stomatitis EXCEPT

A

a. decreased mucosal barrier
b. hormonal changes during pregnancy
c. increased antigenic exposure
d. inherited immune dysregulation

20
Q

major aphthous ulcers

A

a. occur on keratinized mucosa, such as the hard palate
b. frequently occur in the elderly
c. are contagious and easily transmitted
d. are most common in adolescents and young adults

21
Q

children with cyclic neutropenia may demonstrate all of the following EXCEPT

A

a. recurrent severe gingivitis with ulceration
b. frequent systemic infections
c. decreased ability to heal after minor trauma
d. ulcerations only on the non-keratinaized mucosa

22
Q

your patient has an acute extensive blistering, erosive disease of the oral mucosa that erupted suddenly. there are larger pruritic, red, concentric circular macules on his arms and neck. he is in pain and cannot eat. which one of the following most likely precipitated your patient’s current condition?

A

a. a recent episode of recurrent herpes labialis
b. recent exposure to a child with chickenpox
c. a hereditary vascular disorder
d. an HIV infection

23
Q

the clinical hallmark of reticular oral lichen planus is

A

a. pruritic purple papules
b. wickham’s striae
c. target lesions
d. major aphthous ulcerations

24
Q

which one of the following does not produce the clinical presentation of desquamative gingivitis?

A

a. erosive lichen planus
b. mucous membrane pemphigoid
c. sjogren’s syndrome
d. pemphigus vulgaris

25
Q

a chronic blistering disease of the skin and mucous a chronic blistering disease of the skin and mucous membranes that features erosive gingivitis, blisters of mucous membranes and other skin surfaces, and symblepharon is

A

a. erosive lichen planus
b. chronic ulcerative stomatitis
c. pemphigoid
d. erythema multiforme

26
Q

butterfly rash on the face is most characteristic of which one of the following

A

a. linear IgA disease
b. cutaneous lupus erythematosus
c. lichen planus
d. erythema multiforme

27
Q

which of the following is FALSE regarding Crohn’s disease

A

a. it is an autoimmune granulomatous disease
b. painful major aphthous ulcers can occur
c. in the oral cavity nodular swellings can produce a cobblestone appearance
d. one of the first signs of this disease is development of Raynaud’s phenomenon

28
Q

your 45-year-old patient presents with dry eyes and dry mouth and you suspect Sjogren’s syndrome. which of the following steps should be in the plan to manage this patient?

A

a. daily home fluoride therapy and intensive oral health-care instructions
b. dietary analysis for excessive sugar intake
c. use of artificial saliva and possible prescription for a sialogogue
d. All of the above