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Flashcards in test 1 cards Deck (101)
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1
Q

what is a drug

A

a chemical substance used for preventing treating or diagnosing

2
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

what drugs do to the body

3
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

what the body does to the drugs

4
Q

how does schuedule number related to the potential of abuse?

A

the higher schedule the lower the potential

5
Q

what are the 4 phases for manufacturing a new drug?

A

en vitro, animal testing, clinical testing, marketing

6
Q

what determines drug absorption and distribution

A

molecular size and solubility

7
Q

why do you want drugs to be fat sol?

A

so they can pass through membranes and get anywhere in the body including the CNS

8
Q

what are the 3 ways that drug actions are ended?

A

redistribution, excretion, metabolism

9
Q

which organ is most important for excretion?

A

kidney

10
Q

which organ is most important for metabolism

A

liver

11
Q

what are the 2 phases of metabolism

A

redox reactions to increase polarity; or conjugation to increase molecule size

12
Q

what is efficacy?

A

how large a response is

13
Q

what is potency?

A

how much a drug is required to produce a response

14
Q

what is the margin of safety?

A

difference b/t effective dose and toxic dose

15
Q

therapeutic index

A

Ratio of toxic does over effective dose

16
Q

parasympathetic pre-ganglionic

A

cholinergic

17
Q

sympathetic pre-ganglionic

A

cholinergic

18
Q

parasympathetic post-ganglionic

A

cholinergic

19
Q

sympathetic post-ganglionic

A

adrenirgic

20
Q

which r/c are stimulated by acetylcholine

A

muscarinic and nictonic

21
Q

which type of r/c are stim by norepi and epi

A

alpha and beta

22
Q

what enzyme breaks down ach

A

cholinesterase

23
Q

what enzyme breaks down epi

A

monamine oxidase

24
Q

what is significant about a quaterinary ammonium ion?

A

POLAR= lipid insoluble= not albe to pass Blood Brain Barrier

25
Q

where are beta one r/c

A

heart

26
Q

where are beta two r/c

A

bronchus

27
Q

were are alpha one r/c

A

arterioles and iris

28
Q

what happens when you stimulate b 1 r/c?

A

ionotropic (increased contraction force) and chronotropic (increased HR)

29
Q

what happens when you stimulate b2 r/c?

A

broncodilation

30
Q

what happens when you stimulate a1 r/c

A

vasoconstriction and mydriasis (dilation of pupil)

31
Q

what happens when you stimulate muscarinic r/c in the sphincter muscle of eye

A

myosis (constriction of pupil)

32
Q

what happens if you stimulate muscarinic r/c in arterioles?

A

vasodilation

33
Q

what happens if you stimulate muscarinic r/c in the bronchioles

A

bronchoconstriction

34
Q

stimulating of muscarinic r/c in GI and urinary tracts?

A

salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea

35
Q

what are two ways to mimic the parasympa nervous system?

A

stim muscarinic r/c or prevent breakdown of ACH

36
Q

acetylcholine; category and MOI

A

parasympathomimetic; muscarinic and nicotinic agonist

37
Q

bethanechol

A

parasympathomimetic; muscarinic agonist

38
Q

pilocarpine

A

parasympathomimetic; marcarinic agonist

39
Q

neostigmine

A

parasympathomimetic; reversible cholinesterase inhibitor

40
Q

malathione

A

parasympathomimetic; irrevsible cholinesterase inhibitor (used in nerve gas)

41
Q

how do you inhibit the parasympa nervous system

A

antagonise muscarinic r/c

42
Q

atropine

A

parasympatholytic; muscarinic antagonist

43
Q

scopolamine

A

parasympatholytic; muscarinic antagonist

44
Q

iparatropium

A

parasympatholytic; muscarinic antagonist

45
Q

how do you mimic the sympathetic nervous system?

A

stimulate adernergic r/c, promote release of norepi, prevent elimination of norepi

46
Q

epinepherine

A

sympathomimetic; stimulates alpha and beta r/c

47
Q

phenylephrine

A

sympathomimetic; alpha one r/c agonist

48
Q

clonidine

A

sympathomimetic; alpha 2 agonist

49
Q

isoproterenol

A

sympathomimetic; beta one and 2 agonist

50
Q

albuterol

A

sympathomimetic; beta 2 agonist

51
Q

amphetamine

A

sympathomimetic; stims release of norepi and dopamine

52
Q

phenylzine

A

sympathomimetic; MAO inhibitor

53
Q

how do you inhibit the sympathetic NS?

A

block the adrenergic r/c and deplete the stores of norepi

54
Q

parazrocin

A

sympatholytic; alpha one antagonist

55
Q

propranolol

A

sympatholytic; beta one and two antagonist

56
Q

metoprolol

A

sympatholytic; beta one antagonist

57
Q

reserpine

A

sympatholytic; promotes release of norepi, reduces reuptake resulting in depletion or norepi stores

58
Q

how do antidepressants work?

A

increase neurotransmitters

59
Q

how do antidepressants increase NT?

A

increase release, decrease metabolism and decrease reuptake

60
Q

sertaline

A

antidepressant; selective serotonin reuptake inhibition

61
Q

what do some ssris stimulate?

A

CRT2 center

62
Q

what does the CRT2 center control?

A

located in center of brainstem that is very sensitive to chemical substances- responds by sending message to vomitting center

63
Q

what does the CRT2 center make you do?

A

after it finds a chemical substance is makes the body vomit to get rid of the substance

64
Q

trazadone

A

antidepressant; nonselective NT reuptake inhibition

65
Q

side effects of all antidepressants

A

HT or Hypotension, tachycardia and insomnia

66
Q

what do tricyclic antidepressants do

A

inhibit reuptake and promote release of NT including ACH

67
Q

what do monoamine inhibitors do

A

increase amount of norepi, dopamine, and serotonin by decerasing metabolism

68
Q

alprazolam

A

anxiolytic; gaba r/c agonist (decreases action potential)

69
Q

what are the two types of analgesics

A

narcotic and non narcotic

70
Q

what do narcotics stimulate

A

opiate r/c in thalamus

71
Q

how do non narcotics work

A

block enzymes responsible for producing prostaglandins

72
Q

what is the most commonly perscribed drug in north america

A

vicodin

73
Q

hydrocodone

A

analgesic; opiate r/c agonist

74
Q

what does hydrocodone do to the eye

A

causes miosis

75
Q

tramadol

A

analgesic; weak opiate r/c agonist; serotonin reuptake inhibitor and norepi releaser

76
Q

what are the two types of skeletal muscle relaxants

A

neuromuscular blockers and spasmatolytic

77
Q

how do neuromuscular blockers work

A

produce paralysis by blocking nicotinic r/c by using competitive antagonist or depolarizing agents

78
Q

when are neuromuscular blockers used?

A

inpatient when with anesthesiologist

79
Q

how do spasmolytics work

A

inhibit the polysynaptic stretch reflex by stimulating gaba r/cs

80
Q

alendronate

A

bone resorption inhibitor, inhibits osteoclasts

81
Q

why does alendronate have a long half life?

A

because it attaches to osteoclasts which is a permanent structure

82
Q

what is the difference b/t primary and secondary hypothyroidism

A

primary= pathology is in thyroid and secondary is in pituitary

83
Q

what is a diffuse goiter?

A

goiter that has spread through all of the thyroid

84
Q

wha is a toxic goiter

A

goiter with hyperthyroid dz- usually from graves dz

85
Q

what is a nontoxic goiter

A

assoc with low or normal thyroid levels

86
Q

levothyroxine

A

thyroid drug; bind to nuclear r/c that cause gene transcription and protein synthesis

87
Q

what is levothyroxine used for

A

replacement therapy

88
Q

what is the most commonly used trade name of levothyroxine?

A

synthroid

89
Q

liothyronine

A

thyroid drug; bind to nuclear r/c that cause gene transcription and protein synthesis

90
Q

which is more potent levothyroxine or liothyronine?

A

liothyronine is more potent

91
Q

iodide salts

A

anti thyroid; inhibit the release of thyroid hormones

92
Q

what are iodide salts used for

A

treatment of thyroid storm

93
Q

propylthiouracil

A

antithyroid; inhibits several steps in thyroid synthesis

94
Q

radioactive iodide

A

antithyroid; diagnostic and chemical ablation

95
Q

insulin

A

antidiabetic; binds to insulin r/c which activates tyrokinase which phosphylates proteins, which alters metabolic enzymes to move glucose into cell from plasma

96
Q

metformin

A

oral hypoglycemic; suppression of hepatic gluconeogenesis

97
Q

what is the most serious side effect of metformin?

A

lactic acidosis

98
Q

what is metfomin used for?

A

treatment of type 2 diabetes

99
Q

piaglitasone

A

oral anti diabetic; decreases insulin resistance by regulating genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism

100
Q

glucagon

A

pancreatic hormone; binds to r/c in liver causing increased CAMP, glycogenolysis and gluconeogensis

101
Q

wha is glucogon used for

A

emergency treatment of severe hypoglycemia