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Systemic > Test One > Flashcards

Test One Flashcards

1
Q

What are the levels of organization

A

Atoms, molecules, organelles, cells, tissues, organ, organ system, organism

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2
Q

Buccal

A

Cheek

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3
Q

Mental

A

Chin

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4
Q

Coxal

A

Hip

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5
Q

Antebrachial

A

Forearm

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6
Q

Carpal

A

Wrist

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7
Q

Crural

A

Leg

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8
Q

Dorsum

A

Top of foot

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9
Q

Hallux

A

Great toe

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10
Q

Manual

A

Hand

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11
Q

Rostral

A

Nose

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12
Q

Ipsilateral

A

On same side

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13
Q

Contralateral

A

Opposite side

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14
Q

Dorsal body cavity contains

A

Cranial cavity and spinal cavity

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15
Q

Ventral body cavity contains

A

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavity

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16
Q

The thoracic cavity contains what cavities

A

Pleural cavity and mediastinum

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17
Q

Mediastinum cavity contains what other cavity

A

Pericardial cavity

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18
Q

What are the two layers of serous membranes

A

Parietal and visceral layer

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19
Q

What is a parietal layer

A

Lines the cavity walls

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20
Q

What is the visceral layer

A

Covers the surface of organs within the cavity

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21
Q

Abdominopelvic cavity contains what type of cavity

A

Parietal

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22
Q

What are the membranes in the abdominopelvic cavity membranes

A

Peritoneal membranes

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23
Q

Serous membranes secrete what

A

Serous fluids

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24
Q

Function of serous fluid

A

Lubrication

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25
Q

The peritoneal cavity contains a double layer serous membrane called

A

Mesentary

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26
Q

What lines are used to divide abdomen into 9 regions

A

Left and right mid clavicular, subcostal line, and intertubercular line

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27
Q

What are the 9 regions when abdomen divided with 4 lines

A

R and L hypochondriac, epigastric, R and L lumbar, umbilical, R and L iliac and hypogastric

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28
Q

What are the four types of tissues

A

Epithelial, muscular, nervous and connective

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29
Q

Function of skeletal system

A

Support, protection, assistance in movement, mineral storage and release, blood cell production, triglyceride storage in yellow bone marrow

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30
Q

Diaphysis

A

Shaft or body

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31
Q

Epiphysis

A

Distal and proximal end of bones

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32
Q

Metaphysis

A

Tapered area where the diaphysis joins the epiphysis

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33
Q

Articular cartilage

A

A thin layer of cartilage that covers the epiphysis

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34
Q

Periosteum

A

Coating on bone surface

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35
Q

Endosteum

A

Covers inside of bone lining

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36
Q

Medullary cavity

A

Filled with either red or yellow bone marrow

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37
Q

What is compact bone

A

External layer of bone

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38
Q

Compact bone forms most of what

A

Diaphysis of long bones

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39
Q

Function of compact bone

A

Protection, support and resists the stresses produced by weight and movement

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40
Q

Compact bone tissue is arranged in units called

A

Osteons

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41
Q

Osteons are also known as

A

Haversion systems

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42
Q

Spongy bone also known as

A

Cancellous or trabecular bone

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43
Q

Structure of spongy bone

A

Consists of lamellae that are arranged in an irregular lattice called trabeculae and inbetween them are filled with red or yellow marrow

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44
Q

Where are spongy bones found

A

Core of short, flat and irregular shaped bones and most of the epiphysis of long bones and a narrow rim around medullary cavity of diaphysis

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45
Q

What are the types of cells in the bone

A

Osteoprogenitor, osteoblast, osteocyte, osteoclast

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46
Q

Function of osteoprogenitor cell

A

Develops into osteoblast

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47
Q

Function of osteoblast

A

Forms bone extracellular matrix

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48
Q

Function of osteocyte

A

Maintains bone tissue

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49
Q

Function of osteoclast

A

Resorption, breakdown of bone extracellular matrix

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50
Q

What are the different bone shapes

A

Long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoid, and sutural

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51
Q

What are some bone features for depressions and openings

A

Fissure, foramen, fossa, sulcus and meatus

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52
Q

Fissure

A

Narrow slit between adjacent bony parts

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53
Q

Foramen

A

Opening for blood vessels and nerves

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54
Q

Fossa

A

Shallow depression

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55
Q

Sulcus

A

Furrow or fissure

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56
Q

Meatus

A

Tube like opening

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57
Q

Bone features that form joints

A

Condyle, facet, head

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58
Q

Condyle

A

Articular surface, usually large and round

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59
Q

Facet

A

Smooth flat articular surface

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60
Q

Head

A

Round articular surface with a neck below it

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61
Q

Bone features that form attachment points for CT

A

Crest, epicondyle, line, spinous process, trochanter, tubercle, tuberosity

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62
Q

Crest

A

Prominent ridge

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63
Q

Epicondyle

A

Projection above condyle

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64
Q

Line

A

Long narrow ridge

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65
Q

Spinous process

A

Bony projection on back of vertebrae

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66
Q

Trochanter

A

Very large bump (only in femur)

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67
Q

Tubercle

A

Small bony bump

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68
Q

Tuberosity

A

Moderate sized bump

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69
Q

Closed fracture

A

Overlying skin not broken

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70
Q

Open fracture

A

Overlying skin broken

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71
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Fx line perpendicular to the axis of a long bone

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72
Q

Oblique fracture

A

Angled fx line

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73
Q

Spiral fracture

A

Helical fx line produced by a twisting force

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74
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Composed of more than two fragments

75
Q

Avulsion fracture

A

Bone fragment tears off the main bone by excessive forces acting on attached tendon or ligament

76
Q

Impacted fracture

A

One end of the fracture bone is forcefully driven into the other

77
Q

Green stick fracture

A

A partial fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and other side bends

78
Q

What are the cranial bones

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

79
Q

What bone forms the forehead region

A

Frontal

80
Q

What bone forms the roof of the orbit and anterior part of the cranial cavity

A

Frontal

81
Q

How many parietal bones

A

2

82
Q

What forms the greater part of the superior and lateral part of the skull

A

Parietal

83
Q

What bone joins together at a suture on the midline and also join the frontal bones

A

Parietal

84
Q

What bones make up the temple region of the skull superior and anterior to the ear hole

A

Temporal bone

85
Q

The superior edge of the temporal bone is in contact with the inferior part of the

A

Parietal bone

86
Q

This large bone forms the posterior and inferior base of the cranium

A

Occipital

87
Q

What bone in the skull is supported by the vertebral column

A

Occipital

88
Q

What large hole pierces at the base of the occipital bone

A

Foramen magnum

89
Q

What bone lies at the middle part of the base of the skull

A

Sphenoid bone

90
Q

What bone articulates with all the other cranial bones

A

Sphenoid bone

91
Q

Light, sponge like bone located on the midline in the anterior part of the cranial floor

A

Ethmoid

92
Q

What bones form the bridge of the nose

A

Nasal bones

93
Q

What bone lies inferior and lateral to the eye sockets

A

Zygomatic bone

94
Q

What bones are the cheek bones

A

Zygomatic bones

95
Q

What bones are the upper jaw bone and holds the upper teeth

A

Maxillary bone

96
Q

What bone extends far up toward the medial part of the eye socket

A

Maxillary bone

97
Q

What bone is the lower jaw bone which holds the lower teeth

A

Mandible

98
Q

What facial bone has a joint bearing part of the bone extends up to near the ear region of the skull

A

Mandible

99
Q

What is the smallest facial bone

A

Lacrimal

100
Q

What facial bone forms part of the medial wall of each orbit

A

Lacrimal

101
Q

The lacrimal bone has what other features

A

Fossa and canal

102
Q

What is the L shaped bone in the face

A

Palatine

103
Q

What bone forms the horizontal part of the bony palate, the vertical part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity and extends to the floor of the orbit

A

Palatine

104
Q

What bone is positioned inferior to the middle nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone

A

Inferior nasal conchae

105
Q

Unpaired wedge shaped bone that forms the posterior inferior part of the nasal septum

A

Vomer

106
Q

What bones make up the orbit

A

Frontal, ethmoid, zygomatic, sphenoid, lacrimal, maxilla and palatine

107
Q

What’ are the two types of skull joints

A

Sutures and intersections

108
Q

What are the sutures in the skull

A

Coronal, sagittal, lambdoidal, and squamous

109
Q

What are the intersections in the skull

A

Lambda and bregma

110
Q

What are the soft spots called in the skull of an infant

A

Fontanels

111
Q

Fontanels are filled with

A

Mesenchyme

112
Q

What are the intersections of a newborn skull

A

Anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid

113
Q

What sutures are in a newborn skull

A

Coronal, sagittal, lambdoidal, squamous and metopic

114
Q

what makes up the shoulder girdle

A

clavicle and scapula

115
Q

what bone makes up the arm

A

humerus

116
Q

what bones make up the forearm

A

radius and ulna

117
Q

what are the bones in the wrist

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

118
Q

the head of the radius articulates with

A

the capitulum of the humerus and radial notch of the ulna

119
Q

how many rows in carpals

A

two

120
Q

how many phalanges in the thumb

A

two

121
Q

what row of carpals articulates with the radius and ulna

A

proximal row

122
Q

what is the most commonly subluxated carpal

A

lunate

123
Q

what is the most commonly fractured carpal

A

scaphoid

124
Q

joint is also known as

A

articulation

125
Q

definition of joint

A

where two or more bones are joined together by connective tissue

126
Q

degree of movement of synarthrosis

A

immovable joint

127
Q

degree of movement of amphiarthrosis

A

slightly movable joint

128
Q

degree of movement of diarthrosis

A

freely movable joint

129
Q

what are the three types of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial

130
Q

what is a fibrous joint

A

bones connect via dense irregular connective tissue

131
Q

movement of fibrous joint

A

immovable to slightly movable

132
Q

what is a cartilaginous joint

A

bones connect via cartilage

133
Q

movement of cartilaginous joint

A

do not move at all or slight movement

134
Q

what is a synovial joint

A

ends of bones involved are enveloped in a joint capsule containing synovial fluid

135
Q

movement of synovial joint

A

slightly to freely movable

136
Q

more stable of a joint means what about movement

A

less to no movement

137
Q

what are the three types of fibrous joints

A

sutures, syndesmoses, and interosseous membranes

138
Q

what are the two types of cartilagenous joints

A

synchondrosis and symphysis

139
Q

general structure of synovial joints consist of

A

articular cartilage, synovial membrane, joint cavity and joint capsule

140
Q

what other structures are associated with synovial joints

A

articular discs (meniscus), ligaments, tendons, tendon sheaths, bursa, articular fat pad

141
Q

what unaxial

A

moves back and forth in one plane, flexion and extension

142
Q

what is biaxial

A

moves in two planes, flexion and extension, abduction and adduction

143
Q

what is triaxial

A

moves in all three planes, flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation

144
Q

what are the 6 types of synovial joints

A

plane, hinge, pivot, Condyloid, saddle and ball and socket

145
Q

what is a plane joint

A

articulating surfaces are flat or slightly curved

146
Q

movement of a plane joint

A

biaxial or triaxial

147
Q

what is a hinge joint

A

convex C shape of bone fits onto a concave surface of another

148
Q

movement of hinge joint

A

unaxial

149
Q

what is a pivot joint

A

ring shaped bone pivots around a long process of another bone

150
Q

movement of pivot joint

A

unaxial

151
Q

what is a condyloid joint

A

convex oval shape meets concave oval shape

152
Q

movement of condyloid joint

A

biaxial

153
Q

what is a saddle joint

A

one bone shaped like a saddle, the other bone like rider

154
Q

movement of saddle joint

A

biaxial

155
Q

what is a ball and socket joint

A

a round ball fits into a socket

156
Q

movement of a ball and socket joint

A

triaxial movement

157
Q

example of plane joint

A

between carpals and tarsals, adjacent vertebrae, sternum and clavicle

158
Q

example of saddle joint

A

trapezium and metacarpal of thumb

159
Q

example of hinge

A

elbow, knee, between phalanges, ankle

160
Q

example of pivot

A

antlantoaxial, radial head and radial notch of ulna

161
Q

example of ball and socket

A

hip, shoulder

162
Q

example of condyloid

A

metacarpals and phalanges (knuckles), wrist, mandible and temporal

163
Q

what is opposition movement

A

move thumb across palm

164
Q

what are the six factors that influence degree of movement in joint

A

structure/shape of bone, tautness of joint ligaments, muscle tension, contact with other body parts, hormones, and disuse

165
Q

pelvic girdle bones

A

os coxa, sacrum, coccyx

166
Q

ankle has how many tarsal bones

A

7

167
Q

the os coxae unite where posteriorly

A

sacroiliac joint

168
Q

os coxae consists of

A

ilium, ischium, pubis

169
Q

which part of the hip bone is the largest

A

ilium

170
Q

female pelvis charactreristics

A

shallow false pelvis, pelvic brim wide, acetabulum is smaller, pubic arch greater than 90 degrees

171
Q

pelvic offers more … than…

A

strength than mobility

172
Q

the patella forms what type of joint

A

patellofemoral joint

173
Q

tibia forms what joint

A

distal tibiofibular joint

174
Q

fibula forms what joint

A

proximal tibiofibluar joint

175
Q

what bone is the strongest and largest of the tarsals

A

calcaneous

176
Q

bone articulates with the tibia or fibula

A

talus

177
Q

what are the tarsals of the foot

A

navicular, cuboid, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, lateral cuneiform.

178
Q

the forefoot includes

A

phalanges and metatarsals

179
Q

the midfoot includes

A

cuboid, cuneiforms, and navicular bones

180
Q

the hindfoot includes

A

talus and calcaneous

181
Q

what are the three regions of the foot

A

forefoot, midfoot, hindfoot

182
Q

what are the joints in the foot

A

tarsometatarsal joint, transverse tarsal joint

183
Q

what are the arches of the foot

A

transverse and longitudinal

Systemic (3 decks)

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