Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surgical Skills > Transplantation > Flashcards

Transplantation Flashcards

1
Q

When/what was the first successful human organ transplant?

A

Kidney in 1954 (identical twin donor, Joseph Murray was the transplant doctor and recently passed in 2012)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common organ transplanted?

A

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can a living donor donate a kidney?

A

Yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Can a living donor donate the following?
Liver? 
Lung? 
Pancreas? 
Intestine?
Heart?
A 
Liver? Yes
Lung? Yes
Pancreas? Not as common, but yes
Intestine? Not as common, but yes
Heart? Yes, but it’s a living donor swap out (perhaps during heart lung transplant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Allograft

A

Transplanted between same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Autografts

A

Transplanted in the same individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Isografts

A

Transplanted between genetically identical individuals.

While anatomically identical to allografts, they are closer to autografts in terms of the recipient’s immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Xenografts

A

Grafts transplanted between different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define split transplants

A

Graft divided between two recipients (e.g., split-liver transplant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define “en bloc” transplants

A

Example: kidney transplant –> Both pediatric donor kidneys into single adult recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two types of deceased-donors?

A

Donation after brain death (DBD)

Donation after circulatory death (DCD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The length of time that donated organs can be kept outside the body varies:
Heart/lung: ____ hours
Liver: ____ hours
Kidney: ____ hours

A

Heart/lung: 4-6 hours
Liver: 12-24 hours
Kidney: 48-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is UNOS the only organization to operate the Organ Procurement and Transplant Network (OPTN)?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CDC “high-risk” donors are patients with what condition(s)?

A

Hepatitis B and C and HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the HOPE Act in regards to transplantation/donors?

A

Signed by US President into law November 21, 2013
Stipulates that the OPTN may develop standards for use of organs from HIV–positive donors for transplant in individuals who were already infected with HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A pt is on the transplant waiting list. Their location on the list is dependent on what factors? (~6)

A 
ABO/HLA type
Candidate height/weight 
Medical urgency
Time on list 
Center, state and regional characteristics 
Specific organ required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some options to consider for recipients with extended wait times on the transplant list?

A

Multiple listings
Living donors
Paired and list donation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

As part of the pre-transplant evaluation, what factors should be taken into consideration? (~7)

A 
Indication(s) appropriate 
No contraindications present
Adequate organ function
Blood type and sensitization risks 
Psychological barriers 
Adequate social/caregiver support
Adequate financial support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

You should refer a pt for kidney transplant when the pt has:
Irreversible advanced _____
Initiate referral for CKD stage ___ or glomerular filtration rate (GFR) ____ mL/min
UNOS policy mandates listing only once GFR ____ ml/min

A

CKD
4
(GFR) < 30 mL/min
< 20 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As part of a patient’s pre-transplant evaluation, what other tests, studies, etc should be done? (A LOT, this is more of a reference card)

A

Complete physical exam
Blood type and baseline laboratory evaluation/urinalysis
Specific infectious disease testing/screening
HLA typing and a panel reactive antibody assay to detect previous sensitization
Chest x-ray and electrocardiogram +/- further diagnostics dependent on age/comorbidities
Gender specific, age appropriate screening
Testicular and digital rectal exam in men
Breast exam, mammography, pregnancy test and Pap smear in women
Screening colonoscopy in all patients >50 years of age [+/- esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)]
Other relevant radiographic imaging (e.g., abdominal and pelvic ultrasounds in renal transplant, CT chest in lung transplant)
Immunizations and PPD or IGRA testing
Multidisciplinary consultation (including social work/psychiatry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the different types of pancreas transplant? What percentage of total pancreas transplants does each type comprise?

A

SPK: simultaneous kidney-pancreas (75%)
PAK: pancreas after kidney transplant (15%)
PTA: pancreas transplant alone (10%)
**Islet cell transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the indications for a pt to have a pancreas transplant?

A

Patients with ESRD who have had or plan to have a kidney transplant
Patients without ESRD candidates for PTA if
History of frequent, acute, severe metabolic complications (hypoglycemia, marked hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis)
Incapacitating clinical and emotional problems with exogenous insulin therapy
Consistent failure of insulin-based management to prevent acute complications
Primary underlying dx is diabetes mellitus (type 1>2)
Also done for chronic pancreatitis, CF, pancreatic/bile duct cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F Lung transplant patients are at high risk for infections

A

True; breath in dust and other things, boom! infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The most common pancreas transplant procedure includes (part of the/the whole) pancreas + attached portion of the ______ containing the _____

A

whole; duodenum; ampulla of Vater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Indications for liver transplant include…..

A

Acute liver failure
Cirrhosis with complications
Other disease specific problems affecting survival and quality of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does MELD stand for? What is it, what is it used for, and what is it based on?

A

Model for end-stage liver disease
Score range 6-40
Predicts 3-month mortality
Calculation based upon total bilirubin, INR, serum sodium, and creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Liver transplant waitlist pts are no longer mostly comprised of pts with hepatitis c, why? What population now comprises the majority of liver transplant waiting list patients, why?

A

In large part likely due to hep c medications

Cirrhosis (?) due to an increase in obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Arterial anastomosis iliac artery and venous anastomosis iliac vein –> pancreatic [exocrine/endocrine] drainage
Duodenal segment connected to the urinary bladder or to a loop of bowel –> pancreatic [exocrine/endocrine] drainage)

A

endocrine

exocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During pancreas transplant surgery, where is the pancreas placed?

A

laterally into the pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe a couple details regarding the liver transplant surgical procedure

A

Deceased donor procedure
Total native hepatectomy
Venous followed by arterial re-anastomosis
Bile duct reconstruction
Primary duct-to-duct (choledochocholedochostomy)
Alt: Roux-en-Y choledochojejunostomy
Split liver procedure
Liver split along falciform ligament
Left lateral typically transplanted into child
Remaining transplanted into an adult
Living donor procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Heart transplant transplantation indications include…

A

Hemodynamic compromise due to heart failure
Severe symptoms of ischemia
Limit routine activity
Not amenable to coronary artery bypass surgery or percutaneous coronary intervention
Recurrent instability of fluid balance/renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the different types of heart transplant procedures?

A

Typically orthotopic transplantation in adults
Standard (biatrial)
Bicaval
Total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lung transplant indications include….

A

Failing maximal medical and/or surgical therapy
Limited life expectancy
Acceptable nutritional status
Satisfactory psychosocial and financial structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lung Allocation Score (LAS) has a range of ___-___ and incorporates projected survival in the next ____ yrs w/o a transplant and survival post-transplant

A

Range 0-100

Incorporates projected survival in next 1 yr without a transplant and survival post-transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Different types of lung transplant procedures include…. (x4)

A

Single Lung Transplant (SOLT)
Bilateral Lung Transplant (BOLT)
Transplantation of lobes from living related donors
Heart-Lung Transplant (HLT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many sets of antigens are involved in graft rejection?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many sets of antigens are involved in graft rejection? What are they?

A

3
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Minor histocompatibility complex (mHC)
Blood group antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Immune response mechanisms to transplant are either cellular (_______-mediated) or humoral (_______-mediated)

A

Cellular (lymphocyte-mediated)

Humoral (antibody-mediated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)? What type of expression do they have?

A

Primary antigens associated with graft rejection

Co-dominant expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Immune response mechanisms to transplant are either cellular (_______ -mediated) or humoral (_______ -mediated)

A

Cellular (lymphocyte-mediated)

Humoral (antibody-mediated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does sensitization to HLA antigens occur due to? (x4)

A

Pregnancies
Blood transfusions
Prior transplant(s)
Prior viral/bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

______ antibodies against donor HLA antigens result in hyperacute or accelerated acute antibody-mediated rejection

A

Preformed antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

High level panel reactive antibodies (PRA) is defined as ____ %

A

> 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What type of transplant rejection is described below?

Occurs w/in min-hrs post-transplant
Humorally-mediated
Pre-existing recipient antibodies against the graft (ABOI, HLA-antibodies)
Antigen-antibody complexes activate complement system massive thrombosis
Kidney most susceptible, liver least

A

Hyperacute rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of transplant rejection is described below?

Occurs mos-yrs after acute rejection episodes have subsided
Both antibody- and cell-mediated
Appears as fibrosis and scarring in all transplanted organs but specific histopathological picture depending on SOT group

A

Chronic rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of transplant rejection is described below?

Most common during first 6-mos post-transplant
May be primary acute cellular rejection and/or acute humoral rejection

A

Acute rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are different classes of immunosuppressive medications?

A 
Coritcosteroids
Antiproliferative/antimetabolites
Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs)
mTOR inhibitors
Depleting antibodies (aka anti-lymphocyte antibodies, ALA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are some examples of corticosteroids used for immunosuppression in transplant pts?

A

Prednisone, methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some examples of Antiprolifreatice/antimetabolites used for immunosuppression in transplant pts?

A

Azathioprine, mycophenolate

50
Q

What are some examples of Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) used for immunosuppression in transplant pts?

A

Cyclosporine, tacrolimus

51
Q

What are some examples of mTOR inhibitors used for immunosuppression in transplant pts?

A

Sirolimus

52
Q

What are some examples of depleting antibodies (aka anti-lymphocyte antibodies, ALA) used for immunosuppression in transplant pts?

A

Monoclonal AB (OKT-3, basiliximab, alemtuzumab_) Polyclonal Ab (ATG - rabbit, ATGAM - horse)

53
Q

What is the activity of an immunosuppressive corticosteroid in the treatment of a transplant patient?

A

Inhibit inflammatory response and cytokine expression (and thus T-cell activation) by several mechanisms

54
Q

What is the activity of an immunosuppressive Antiproliferative (aka antimetabolites) in the treatment of a transplant patient?

A

Inhibit purine/DNA synthesis and prevent differentiation/proliferation of B and T-lymphocytes

55
Q

What is the activity of an immunosuppressive Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) in the treatment of a transplant patient?

A

Inhibit calcineurin phosphatase and prevent interleukin-2 (IL-2) mediated T-cell activation and lymphocyte proliferation

56
Q

What is the activity of an immunosuppressive mTOR inhibitors in the treatment of a transplant patient?

A

Inhibit IL-2 mediated T-cell activation and lymphocyte proliferation

57
Q

What is the activity of an immunosuppressive Depleting antibodies (aka anti-lymphocyte antibodies, ALA) in the treatment of a transplant patient?

A

Deplete T-cells (and B cells)

58
Q

What are three induction agents used for transplant immunosuppressive therapy?

A

Polyclonal antibodies
Monoclonal antibodies
Corticosteroids

59
Q

What are three maintenance agents used for transplant immunosuppressive therapy?

A

Corticosteroids
Antiproliferative agents
Calcineurin inhibitors or mTOR inhibitors

60
Q

What are two agents used for reversal of an established rejection in transplant immunosuppressive therapy?

A

High dose corticosteroids (i.e. “pulse” steroids) and polyclonal/monoclonal antibodies

61
Q

What does HCT stand for?

A

Hematopoietic Cell

Transplantation

62
Q

What are malignant hematologic indications for HCT?

A

Acute leukemias, chronic leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, myeloproliferative syndromes, hodgkin/non-hodgkin lymphoma, plasma cell dyscrasias

63
Q

What are malignant selected solid tumor indications for HCT?

A

Renal cell carcinoma, ewing sarcoma, neuroblastoma, breast/colon/ovarian/pancreatic

64
Q

What are non malignant acquired indications for HCT?

A

Aplastic anemia and red cell aplasias, paroxysmal nocturnal hemaglobinuria, Autoimmune disorders (i.e. SLE, systemic sclerosis)

65
Q

What are non malignant congenital indications for HCT?

A

Immunodeficiency syndrome, hemoglobinopathies, congenital anemias (i.e. Fanconi), storage diseases, bone marrow failure syndromes, osteopetrosis

66
Q

Describe an autologous HCT transplant

A

Donor source: patients’ own cells
Cells are extracted (apheresis) and stored
Patients treated with high dose chemotherapy +/- radiotherapy (conditioning regimen)
Stem cells then transfused

67
Q

Describe an allogenic HCT transplant type

A

Donor source: identical twin (syngeneic), related donor (sibling or parent), unrelated donor, umbilical cord transplant
Cells are harvested from the donor
Patients treated with conditioning regimen
Stem cells then transfused

68
Q

What are potential complications of stem cell transplantation?

A

Mucositis, hemorrhage cystitis, infections, graft-vs-host disease (GVHD), transplantation-associated thrombotic microangiopathy (TA-TMA), hepatic veno-occlusive dz, pulmonary complications

69
Q

In graft-versus-host dz (GHVD), donor ______ recognize foreign ______, which leads to a destruction of_______ cells and therefore causes abnormalities in the recipient’s ____, ___, and _____.

A

T-lymphocytes
HLA antigens
lymphopoietic
skin, liver, and GI tract

70
Q

T/F GVHD continues to be major causes of morbidity and mortality in allogeneic HCT recipients

A

True

71
Q

Can GVHD be acute or chronic or both?

A

Both, GHVD can be acute or chronic

72
Q

What are some sx of Acute GVHD that present on the skin? The liver? GI tract?

A

Skin: Maculopapular rash, may progress to diffuse erythema or bullae formation

Liver: Elevated LFTs

GI Tract: Loss of appetite, dyspepsia, large volume crampy secretory diarrhea, N/V

73
Q

What is the overall incidence of an HLA identical donor?

A

40-50%

74
Q

What is the Graft versus Leukemic (GVL) Effect?

A

Alloreactive T-lymphocytes from the donor immune system recognizing antigenic differences expressed on residual leukemic cells

75
Q

What can be done to eliminate the GVL effect?

A

Remove the t-cells (i.e. a t-cell depleted graft

76
Q

What are first line agents used in the prevention and treatment of GVHD?

A

Methotrexate, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, mycophenolate, sirolimus, prednisone, in-vivo t-cell depletion w/ alemtuzumab (Anti-CD 52)

77
Q

What are second line agents used in the prevention and treatment of GVHD?

A

Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG), t-cell depletion w/ photo activation (photopheresis, PUVA), Anti-TNF inhibitors (Etanercept, inflixumab), Anti-CD 25 (Rituximab)

78
Q

Immunosuppressive therapy is utilized to prevent and/or treat allograft rejection and GVHD but often carries significant adverse effects including _____ and ______

A

increased risk of infection and drug interactions

79
Q

Peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPCs)
More widely used due to _____
Neutropenic phase _____ days
Contains more T-cells, thus has an increased risk for ______

A

ease of collection
~ 14 days
graft versus host disease (GVHD)

80
Q

Bone marrow (BM) is no longer the favored source and has a Neutropenic phase of ____ days

A

~ 21

81
Q 
Umbilical cord blood (UCB)
Limited quantity of collection overcome by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Neutropenic phase \_\_\_\_\_ days
Delayed acquired immune reconstitution
Less \_\_\_\_\_\_
More infections but not \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

dual cord transplantations
~ 30 days
GVHD
infection-related death

82
Q

What are two allogeneic considerations?

A

Myeloablative (MA)

Non-myeloablative (NMA)

83
Q

______ is major cause of morbidity/mortality in Solid Organ Transplant (SOT)

A

CMV

84
Q

Define CMV Infection:

A

CMV replication regardless of symptoms

85
Q

Define CMV Disease:

A

CMV infection + symptoms

86
Q

Describe CMV syndrome:

A

Fever and/or malaise, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia

87
Q

CMV has a predilection to invade an ______

A

allograft

88
Q

T/F Receipt of anti-lymphocyte antibodies (ALA) for rejection also increases risk for CMV

A

True

89
Q

What does CMV universal prophylaxis entail?

A

All at-risk recipients receive therapy (options: oral/IV ganciclovir, oral valganciclovir)

90
Q

What does CMV pre-emptive screening entail?

A

Serial monitoring for viremia and prompt treatment with detection

91
Q

If the donor serostatus is positive for CMV and the recipient’s serostatus is negative for CMV, what is the risk level (High/Intermediate/Low)?

A

High

92
Q

If the donor serostatus is negative for CMV and the recipient’s serostatus is negative for CMV, what is the risk level (High/Intermediate/Low)?

A

Low

93
Q

If the donor serostatus is positive for CMV and the recipient’s serostatus is positive for CMV, what is the risk level (High/Intermediate/Low)?

A

Intermediate

94
Q

If the donor serostatus is negative for CMV and the recipient’s serostatus is positive for CMV, what is the risk level (High/Intermediate/Low)?

A

Intermediate

95
Q

If the donor’s serostatus is positive for CMV and the recipients serostatus is negative for CMV, how long should universal prophylaxis be administered post-transplant?
How long should prophylaxis be administered post ALA for rejection?

A

Universal prophylaxis for 6 months post-transplant

Prophylaxis at least 1-month post ALA for rejection

96
Q

If the donor’s serostatus is negative for CMV and the recipients serostatus is positive for CMV, how long should universal prophylaxis be administered post-transplant?
How long should prophylaxis be administered post ALA for rejection?

A

Universal or pre-emptive strategies for at least 3 months post-transplant
Prophylaxis for at least 1-month post ALA for rejection

97
Q

If the donor’s serostatus is negative for CMV and the recipients serostatus is negative for CMV, how long should universal prophylaxis be administered post-transplant?
How long should prophylaxis be administered post ALA for rejection?

A

No universal CMV prophylaxis applied

98
Q

If the donor’s serostatus is positive for CMV and the recipients serostatus is positive for CMV, how long should universal prophylaxis be administered post-transplant?
How long should prophylaxis be administered post ALA for rejection?

A

Universal or pre-emptive strategies for at least 3 months post-transplant
Prophylaxis for at least 1-month post ALA for rejection

99
Q

Describe the shape/form of Apophysomyces elegans

A

Broad, irregularly branching hyphae with few septations (“aseptate”)

100
Q

How does a Apophysomyces elegans infection take hold? Where can the infections take place?

A

Apophysomyces elegans gains access via inhalation or direct skin penetration

Infection types include skin and soft tissue, rhino-orbital-cerebral, gastrointestinal, pulmonary and disseminated infection

101
Q

Do viruses, bacteria, fungi, mycobacteria, or parasites comprise the largest number of donor-derived infections? Donor derived deaths?

A

Viruses

Viruses

102
Q

How does a Nocardia infection take hold?

A

Gain access via inhalation or direct inoculation of skin/soft tissues

Readily disseminates in immunocompromised host

103
Q

What is Nocardia?

A

Ubiquitous gram-positive, strictly aerobic, filamentous, branching, weakly acid-fast bacilli

104
Q

How can you prevent a Nocardia infection from taking hold? (think: what activities should an immunosuppressed pt avoid?)

A

Avoid gardening, soil, plants while on significant immunosuppressive therapy

105
Q

T/F SMX-TMP prophylaxis affords complete protection against Nocardia infection

A

False; SMX-TMP prophylaxis affords some but not complete protection

106
Q

Following a solid organ transplant, what types of infections would be expected at 0-1 month?

A

Nosocomial: PNA, Catheter related

Post-surgical: Wound/abscess, Anastomotic leaks

Donor-derived

107
Q

Following a solid organ transplant, what types of infections would be expected at 1-6 months?

A

Opportunistic

Reactivation of latent recipient and donor infections

108
Q

Following a solid organ transplant, what types of infections would be expected at >6 months?

A

Community-acquired

Reactivation of latent infections

109
Q

What is the “troll of transplant infections”?

A

CMV, hehe ;)

110
Q

GVH dz is commonly expressed as a _____ presentation

A

skin

111
Q

What does a Halo sign (Ground glass opacities surrounding nodule) indicate on CT Chest?

A

alveolar hemorrhage around infarcted lung

112
Q

What is the most common fungal pathogen in HCT?

A

Invasive Aspergillosis

113
Q

What organ does invasive aspergillosis most commonly infect?

A

Lungs

114
Q

What is the most common species of invasive aspergillosis?

A

A. fumigatus

115
Q

Aspergillosis is described as a hyaline hyphomycete with septate, narrow (3-6µm) hyphae with acute angle ____° branching when visualized in respiratory secretions and tissue specimens

A

45

116
Q

How do you treat an invasive aspergillosis infection?

A

Voriconazole, isavuconazole or other extended spectrum azole

117
Q

What infections are most common pre-engraftment in bone marrow transplant pts?

A

Chemotherapy related

Nosocomial

118
Q

What infections are most common post-engraftment in bone marrow transplant pts?

A

Opportunistic

119
Q

What infections are most common during the late phase in bone marrow transplant pts?

A

Opportunistic

Community-acquired

120
Q

T/F Immunosuppression essential to prevent rejection but increases risk for infection

A

True!

Surgical Skills (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions