Legal Med Flashcards

1
Q

Branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical knowledge to the purposes of law and in the
administration of justice

A

Legal medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Application of medicine to legal cases

A

Legal medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Application of medical science to elucidate legal problems

A

Forensic medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Knowledge of law in relation to the practice of

medicine.

A

Medical jurisprudence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Injury/Disease point of view: Treatment

A

ORDINARY PHYSICIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Injury/Disease point of view: Cause

A

MEDICO-LEGAL OFFICER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examine a patient: Diagnose

A

ORDINARY PHYSICIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examine a patient: Testify / justice

A

MEDICO-LEGAL OFFICER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minor injuries: Ignored

A

ORDINARY PHYSICIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Minor injuries: Records all / qualify crime

A

MEDICO-LEGAL OFFICER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Principle: When the court has once laid an interpretation of law as applied to certain facts, it will adhere to and apply to all future cases

A

PRINCIPLE OF STARE DECISIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Persons authorized to perform autopsies

A
  1. Health Officers
  2. Medical officer of law enforcement agencies.
  3. Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Types of evidence: Made known to the senses

A

Autoptic or Real evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Types of evidence: Oral under oath

A

Testimonial evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most reliable & effective questioning technique

A

Use of control questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does not response to added relevant question

A

Guilt complex test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Subject verbal response creates distortion in

the tracing or clearing of the throat

A

Silent answer test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most valuable method of identification of persons

A

FINGERPRINTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fingerprint is formed in

A

Fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fingerprint is not changeable at

A

4th month AOG [SAMPLEX, 4 weeks]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fingerprint used as substitute for signature

A

Right thumb print

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Art and study of recording fingerprints as means of id

A

DACTYLOGRAPHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Comparison of fingerprints

A

DACTYLOSCOPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Study of pores found on the pappillary friction ridges of skin

A

Poroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hardest substance of the body

A

Enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Scientific methods of identification

A
  1. Fingerprinting
  2. Dental identification
  3. handwriting
  4. Identification of skeleton
  5. Determination of Sex, Age
  6. Identification of blood, blood stains
  7. Identification of hair, fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Outlast other tissues in putrefaction

A

Enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Science of handwriting analysis

A

BIBLIOTIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Study of handwriting for the purpose of determining the

writers personality, character and aptitude

A

GRAPHOLOGY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In determining height, add ___ to skeletal height for the soft tissues

A

1 to 1.5 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Two French anatomist devised a formula for the determination of the height for males and females

A

Topinard and Rollet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Table of different height of bones for different ages and their corresponding statures

A

Humphrey’s table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Used in determination of sex of the skeleton

A

a) Pelvis
b) Skull
c) Sternum
d) Femur
e) Humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Male vs female pelvis: Curve of iliac crest reaches higher level

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Male vs female pelvis: Iliopectineal line sharp

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Male vs female pelvis: Obturator foramen egg-shaped

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Male vs female pelvis: Obturator foramen triangular

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Male vs female cranium: Mastoid process larger

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Male vs female cranium: Cranium placed horizontally

rest on mastoid process

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Male vs female cranium: Cranium placed horizontally

rest on occipital& maxillary bones

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Male vs female cranium: Zygomatic arches more prominent

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Male vs female cranium: Face larger in proportion to cranium

A

Male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All soft tissues in a grave disappear within

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sexual deviation by desire to assume the attire and be

accepted as a member of the opposite sex

A

Transvestism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Presumptive vs highly probable vs conclusive evidence of sex: Hair

A

Presumptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Presumptive vs highly probable vs conclusive evidence of sex: Vagina, large breast

A

Highly probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Presumptive vs highly probable vs conclusive evidence of sex: Ovary

A

Conclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Determination of age of fetus

A

Hess’s rule or Haase’s rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hess’s rule or Haase’s rule: Fetus of less than 25 cm long-

A

Square root of length in cm, result in months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hess’s rule or Haase’s rule: Fetus > 25 cm

A

Divide the length of the fetus by 5 and the result is the age in month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ID of blood and blood stains: Bluish-white in a dark room

A

Luminescence test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ID of blood and blood stains: Physical exam

A

Solubility
Heat
Luminescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ID of blood and blood stains: 3amino-phtalic-acid-hydrazide-HCL, Sodium peroxide , distilled water

A

Luminescence test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Chemical ID of blood: Saline extract of the blood plus ammonia yields

A

Brownish color, alkaline hematin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Chemical ID of blood: Blue color in white filter paper

A

Benzidine test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Chemical ID of blood: Guaiacum + H2O2 = Blue

A

Van Deen’s Dyas/Schombein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Chemical ID of blood: Pink

A

Phenophthalein (Kastle-Meyer) test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Identified using leukomalachite green test

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Microscopic exam of blood:

A

1) Hemochromogen crystal or Takayama test
2) Teichmann’s blood crystals or Hemin crystal test
3) Acetone-haemin or Wagenhaar test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Best microchemical test for blood

A

Teichmann’s blood crystals or Hemin crystal test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Positive to any substance containing hgb

A

Takayama

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Addition of NaCl forms dark brown rhombic prisms of chloride (hematin)

A

Teichmann/Hemin crystal test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Biologic test which determines whether blood is human or not

A

Precipitin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Biologic exams to test for blood

A

Precipitin

Blood grouping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Age of blood stains: Hgb converted to Methgb of hematin red to red-brown, warm weather

A

Within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Human vs animal hair: Medulla, cells invisible w/out tx in H2O

A

Human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Human vs animal hair: Medulla, cells easily visible

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Human vs animal hair: Medulla, air network in fine grains

A

Human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Human vs animal hair: Medulla, air network large or small sacks

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Human vs animal hair: Cortex looks like a thick muff

A

Human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Human vs animal hair: Cortex looks like a thin hollow cylinder

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Human vs animal hair: Cuticle have thin scales

A

Human

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Human vs animal hair: Cuticle have thick scales

A

Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

T/F The civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F The property of a person is transmitted to his heirs at the time of death

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

T/F The death of a partner does not cause dissolution of partnership agreement

A

F, causes dissolution of partnership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

T/F The death of either the principal or agent is a mode of extinguishment of agency

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

T/F Criminal liability is not extinguished by death

A

F, extinguished by death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T/F The civil case for claims which does not survive is dismissed upon death of the defendant

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Kind of death: Discontinuance of cardiac activity and respiration, and eventually leads to the death of all body cells from lack of oxygen

A

Somatic death/Clinical death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Kind of death: 3 to six hours after cessation of life

A

Molecular or cellular death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Kind of death: Transient loss of consciousness in hysteria, uremia, electric shock

A

Apparent death or state of suspended animation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ULTIMEN MARIENS

A

Usually the auricle contract after somatic death for a longer period than the ventricle (last to stop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Exam of peripheral circulation

A
Magnus test
Icard test
Diaphanous test
Spurting of small artery
Pressure on fingernails
Blistering of skin on application of heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Exam of peripheral circulation: Application of ligature around base of finger results in a bloodless area at site of application = alive

A

Magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Exam of peripheral circulation: Injection of flourescein SQ results in greenish yellow discolouration in the whole skin = alive

A

Icard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Exam of peripheral circulation: Fingers spread wide through a strong light = red = alive

A

Diaphanous test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Magnus test in a dead man

A

No bloodless area at site of ligature application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Icard test in a dead man

A

Greenish yellow discoloration only in the area of injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Death is cessation of respiration for more than

A

3.5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Saucer with water or mercury placed on chest

A

Winslow test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

___ hours after death, the cooling is rapid

A

First two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Fall of temp. of ___ degrees Fahrenheit is considered as a certain sign of death

A

15 to 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Rise of temp. of the body after death

A

POST-MORTEM CALORICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

POST-MORTEM CALORICITY is due to

A

Rapid and early putrefactive changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

POST-MORTEM CALORICITY is usually observed during ___ hours

A

First 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

POST-MORTEM CALORICITY = seen in

A

Cholera, liver abscess, tetanus, RF, Strynine poisoning, peritonitis, yellow fever, cerebrospinal fever, smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Factors delaying the rate of cooling of the body, connected with body

A
  1. Acute pyrexial disease
  2. Sudden death in good health
  3. Obesity of person
  4. Death from asphyxia
  5. Death of the middle age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Factors accelerating cooling, connected with body

A
  1. Leaness of the body
  2. Extreme age
  3. Long-standing illness
  4. Chronic pyrexial disease with wasting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Factors delaying cooling, connected with surroundings

A
  1. Clothings
  2. Want of access of air to the body
  3. Small room
  4. Warm surroundings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Factors accelerating cooling, connected with surroundings

A
  1. Unclothed body
  2. Conditions allowing the access of air
  3. Large room permitting the dissipation of heat
  4. Cooling more rapid in water than in air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Micro chemical exams for sperm

A

Florence
Berberio
Puramen
Acid phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Micro chemical exams specific of spermatic fluid/spermine

A

Berberio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Micro chemical exams for sperm, detection of choline

A

Florence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Determines whether semen is from human or not

A

Precitipitin test aka biological test of Farnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Micro chemical exams for sperm, yellow, rhombic to needle-shaped crystals

A

Berberio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Micro chemical exams for sperm, dark-brown needle-shaped crystals

A

Florence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Microscopic exam for sperm

A

Dr. Hankin’s mtd

Ganguli mtd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Indentations left in soft or pliable materials belong to what type of fingerprints

A

Plastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Fingerprint: Not visible after impression but after application of substances

A

Latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Fingerprint: Visible without treatment

A

Visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Race: Thick lips, prominent eyes

A

Negro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Characteristics which may easily be changed

A

a) growth of hair, beard
b) grade or profession
c) clothing
d) body ornamentations
e) frequent place of visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Characteristics that may not be easily be changed

A

a) mental memory
b) speech
c) gait
d) mannerism
e) handedness-left /right
f) hands and feet
g) complexion
h) changes in the eyes
i) facies
j) degree of nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Van Urk test

A

LSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Xwikker test

A

Barbiturate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Marquis test

A

Heroin, morphine, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Race: Brown, flat nose round face, round head

A

Malay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Age of scar: Slightly elevated, reddish/bluish, tender to touch

A

Recent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Age of scar: Inflammatory redness, soft, sensitive

A

Few weeks-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Age of scar: Brownish, free from contraction, soft

A

2 – 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Age of scar: White, glistening, contracted, tough

A

> 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Scar formation is delayed by

A

Sepsis, age, depth of wound, mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Scar may not develop if

A

Small, superficial, healed by first intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

T/F Birth marks like nevi may be removed by CO snow, electrocautery, or excision

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

T/F Moles are permanent and can only be removed by surgery

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

T/F Blood typing may be utilised to distinguish 1 person from another

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Child vs old person: Fine hair deficient of pigments and devoid of medulla

A

Child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Fingerprint may persist if not removed at the scene for

A

Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Method to approximate height with the extremities missing

A

Length of head times 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Race: Prominent sharp nose

A

Caucasian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Race: Almond eyes and prominent cheek bones

A

Mongolian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Population: Hair is long, wiry, thick

A

Adolescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Population: Hair color is white or gray, with marked absorption of pigments and degenerative changes

A

Old person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The distance from the base of the skull to the coccyx is ___ of the height

A

44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The distance between the supra-sternal notch and the pubic symphysis which is ___ of the height

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

T/F Height is equal to the length of the vertex of the skull to the pubic symphysis times 2

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Leonine facies

A

Leprosy

Elephantiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Facies indicative of approaching death

A

Hippocratic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Below the epidermis

A

Contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: In the epidermis or in the cutis

A

Post mortem hypostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Cuticle unabraded

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Cuticle was probably abraded

A

Contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Appears at the seat of and surrounding the injury

A

Contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Always in a part which for the time of information is dependent

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Often elevated

A

Contusion

147
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Not elevated

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

148
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Incision shows the blood is still in its vessels

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

149
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Color is uniform

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

150
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Incision shows blood outside the vessels

A

Contusion

151
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Color variegated

A

Contusion

152
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: White lines or patches of pressure bordered by the dark color of hypostasis are produced and marks of floggings, strangulation, etc. are thus sometimes simulated

A

Post-mortem hypostasis

153
Q

CONTUSION VS. POST-MORTEM HYPOSTASIS: Actual surface of contact may be a little lighter than the rest of the bruise but will not be white

A

Contusion

154
Q

Scars that are fine white lines diagonally across the back with depressed small spot at intervals

A

Flogging

155
Q

Scars that are irregular in shape, furrowed with edges hardened and uneven

A

Tb sinus

156
Q

Scar that is disc-like, depressed at center and may be adherent to the underlying tissue

A

Gunshot wound

157
Q

Scar that has a regular form and situation and with stitch marks

A

Surgical operative

158
Q

Scar that is ragged, irregular, and may be keloidal

A

Burn

159
Q

Basis of the estimate for duration of interment

A

1) Presence or absence of soft tissue adherent to the bones
2) Firmness and weight, brittleness, dryness of the bones
3) Degree of erosion of the surface of the bones
4) Changes in the clothings, coffin, and painting

160
Q

Test to determine the sex

A
  1. Social test
  2. Genital test
  3. Gonadal test
  4. Chromosomal test
161
Q

Test to determine sex where barr cells are detected

A

Chromosomal test, (+) in females

162
Q

Utilizes anthropometrical measurement of the human body for identification

A

Bertillon system

163
Q

Human skeleton is unchangeable after ___ years

A

20

164
Q

Picturesque description of a person

A

Portrait parle (spoken picture)

165
Q

Light as a factor in ID: Clearest moonlight

A

Less than 16-17 yards

166
Q

Light as a factor in ID: Starlight

A

Less than 10-13 yards

167
Q

Light as a factor in ID: Broad daylight, not seen before

A

Not farther than 100 yards

168
Q

Light as a factor in ID: Broad daylight, almost strangers

A

25 yards

169
Q

Light as a factor in ID: Flash of firearm

A

2 inches letters can be read with the aid of a flash of 22 caliber at 2 feet

170
Q

Light as a factor in ID: T/F Flash of lightning provides

sufficient light to identify

A

T

171
Q

Photos of wanted or missing persons for comparison with sketches

A

Rogue’s gallery or photographic file

172
Q

When can an examination be done to confirm the identity of a dead person

A

Anytime

173
Q

When can an examination be done to confirm the identity of a dead person in settling succession to an estate, for the purpose if opening succession

A

10 years disappearance

174
Q

Bone which is most informative regarding the sex of the owner

A

Pelvis

175
Q

Lungs are distended overlapping the heart; increase in lung volume

A

Emphysema aquosum

176
Q

Whitish foam accumulates in the mouth/nostrils

A

Champignon d’ocume

177
Q

Emphysema aquosum is a finding in

A

Asphyxia by submersion or drowning

178
Q

Submersion for ___ minutes considered fatal

A

1 1⁄2

179
Q

Average time required for death in drowning

A

2 to 5 minutes

180
Q

Emergency treatment in Drowning: Face down, prone position, operator exerts pressure in ribs

A

Schaefer’s method

181
Q

Emergency treatment in Drowning: Lying on his back, astride over body, swinging arms

A

Sylvester’s method

182
Q

External post-mortem findings in death from drowning

A
F.B. clinging on skin surface
“Cutis anserine” or “goose flesh”
Washerwoman’s hands and feet
Postmortem lividity (marked in head, neck, and chest)
Firmly-clenched hands with objects
Physical injuries for struggle
183
Q

Indicative of suicidal drowning

A

Pieces of stone

184
Q

Internal post-mortem findings in death from drowning

A
Emphysema aquosum
Edema aquosum
Champignon d’ocume
Both sides of heart may be filled with or emptied of blood
Blood chloride discrepancy
185
Q

Findings conclusive that person died of drowning

A
  1. The presence of F.B. in the hands of the victim.
    The clenching of the hands is a manifestation of cadaveric spasm in the effort of the victim to save himself from drowning.
  2. Increase in volume (emphysema aquosum) edema of the lungs ( edema aquosum)
  3. Presence of water in the stomach
  4. Presence of froth, foam, F.B. in the air passage found in the medium
    where the victim was found.
  5. Presence of water in the middle ear due to violent inspiration when the mouth is full of water.
186
Q

Due to irritation made by the inhaled water on the mucous membrane of the air passage which stimulate the secretion of mucous

A

Emphysema aquosum

187
Q

Due to entrance of water into air sacs; lungs are doughy; edema of lungs

A

Edema aquosum

188
Q

Blood chloride content is greater on the left side of the heart

A

Salt water drowning

189
Q

Blood chloride is more I the right side of the heart

A

Fresh water drowning

190
Q

Quantitative determination of the chloride content of the blood in the right and left ventricle of the heart

A

Gettler’s Test

191
Q

In Gettler test, difference of at least ___ indicates death from drowning

A

25 mg

192
Q

Indicates that death is rapid or submersion made after death

A

Food in stomach

193
Q

When does a body float after drowning

A

Within 24h

194
Q

Floating of the body in drowning is due to

A

Decomposition which causes the accumulation of gas in the body

195
Q

Flexed vs extended: Position of death in drowning

A

Flexed

196
Q

Bronze color of head and neck in drowning

A

Tete de negri

197
Q

Violent deaths

A
  1. Accidental death
  2. Negligent death
  3. Infanticidal death
  4. Parricidal death
  5. Murder
  6. Homicidal death
198
Q

Violence applied in a dead person

A

Impossible crime

199
Q

Victim was suffering from a natural disease and violence inflicted only accelerated the death. T/F Offender is criminally liable for death

A

T

200
Q

Victim died of a natural cause independent of the violence inflicted. T/F Offender is criminally liable for death

A

F, will not be responsible for the death but merely for the physical injuries he had inflicted

201
Q

Sudden loss of consciousness followed by paralysis or death due to Hemorrhage from thrombosis or
embolism in the cerebral vessels

A

Cerebral apoplexy

202
Q

Most common cause of Sudden death due to natural causes

A

Occlusion of the coronary vessels

203
Q

Death due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force; The physical injury must be the proximate cause of death

A

Violent death

204
Q

Death due to misadventure

A

Accidental

205
Q

Death due to reckless imprudence, lack of skill or foresigh

A

Negligent

206
Q

T/F Giving assistance to suicide is punishable

A

T

207
Q

Parriccidal death is due to killing of

A

father, mother, child, (leg/illeg) ascendant, descendant, spouse (leg.)

208
Q

Infanticidal deaths, killing of a child less than ___

A

3 days

209
Q

PATHOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION OF THE CAUSES OF DEATH

A

Death due to syncope
Death from asphyxia
Death from coma

210
Q

Stages of death from asphyxia

A

Increasing dyspnea (1 min)
Expiratory convulsion
Exhaustion (3 min)

211
Q

SPECIAL DEATHS

A

Judicial
Euthanasia
Suicide

212
Q

Electrocution, hanging, musketry, gas chamber

A

Judicial deaths

213
Q

The human body without food losses ___ of its weight daily

A

1/24th

214
Q

___% loss of body weight in a day = death

A

40

215
Q

Factors that influence the length of survival

A

Age, condition of the body, sex, environment

216
Q

Person charged with the duty of burial: Deceased was married

A

Surviving spouse; if NONE, municipal authorities

217
Q

Person charged with the duty of burial: Deceased was unmarried

A

Nearest of kin of the deceased (adults, within the Phil. and in possession of sufficient means to defray the necessary expenses) if NONE, municipal authorities

218
Q

Right of custody if died of communicable disease

A

Local board of health or local health officer or municipal council

219
Q

T/F The right of custody means ownership of the dead body

A

F

220
Q

The person mentioned in a will who will carry on the provision of the will

A

Executor

221
Q

T/F Executors right of custody is superior to the right of spouse to the dead body

A

T

222
Q

In embalming, ___ quarts of antiseptic solutions of formalin, perchloride of mercury or arsenic is carried into the internal carotids and the femoral arteries

A

6-8

223
Q

Bury within __ hours if unembalmed

A

48

224
Q

Bury within __ hours, if communicable

A

12

225
Q

May delay burial (> 48 hours if unembalmed, > 12 hrs if communicable) IF

A
  1. Subject of legal investigation.
  2. Authorized by the local health authorities that may be buried more than 48H.
  3. Impliedly when embalmed.
226
Q

T/F Death certificate is necessarily issued before burial

A

T

227
Q

Death certificate may be issued by

A

Local health officer
Mayor
Secretary
Councilor

228
Q

In burial, permission from the ___ is necessary if death is due to violence or crime

A

Provincial fiscal or from the municipal mayor

229
Q

T/F If death is due to communicable disease, body should not be taken in any place of public assembly

A

T

230
Q

T/F If death is due to communicable disease,only adult family members of the deceased are allowed to attend the funeral

A

T

231
Q

The placing of the body of any deceased person in an unsealed overground tomb is only allowed if

A

1) Sealed

2) Unsealed but awaiting final disposition

232
Q

The depth of the grave must be at least ___ deep, filled well and firmly

A

1 1⁄2 meters

233
Q

Burial Grounds requirements: At least ___ from any dwelling house

A

25 meters

234
Q

Burial Grounds requirements: Not within ___ from any water source

A

50 meters

235
Q

The duty and the right to make arrangements for the funeral of a relative belongs to

A

Descendants : Eldest

Ascendants : Paternal

236
Q

T/F If the deceased suffered from dangerous communicable disease, disposing of the dead body in the sea is permissible

A

F

237
Q

Permit for conveyance of body to sea for burial is not necessary

A

F

238
Q

Cremation is prohibited if

A

a. If the deceased left a note.
b. Identity of the person is not definite.
c. Exact cause of death cannot be ascertained and the need for further inquiry or examination.

239
Q

Use of body for scientific purposes

A

1) Corpse of prisoners

2) Any person to be buried for public expense and which is unclaimed for 24 hours

240
Q

Permission to use human organs or any portions of the human body for medical, surgical or scientific purposes; written document should contain signatures of whom

A

The grantor and two disinterested witness

241
Q

Persons permitted to detach human organs

A
  1. Licensed physicians
  2. Known scientist
  3. Medical or scientific institutions
242
Q

T/F Valid authorization to use human body for medical, surgical or scientific purposes must specify the organ or part to be removed

A

T

243
Q

T/F A copy of valid authorization to use human body for medical, surgical or scientific purposes must be submitted to

A

Secretary of Health

244
Q

Exhumation in case of death from dangerous

communicable disease should be after ___ from burial

A

5 years

245
Q

Exhumation in case of death from non-dangerous communicable disease should be after ___ from burial

A

3 years

246
Q

T/F In case of death from non-dangerous communicable disease, remains shall disinfected before burial

A

T

247
Q

A common law-husband who kills his common law wife with whom he has a 2-day old child can be prosecuted for

A

Homicide

248
Q

T/F The result of Polygraph exam may be admitted to court

A

F

249
Q

T/F USE OF DRUGS THAT INHIBIT THE INHIBITOR is admissible in court

A

F

250
Q

Truth serum

A

Hyocine hydrobromide

251
Q

Used in Narcoanalysis or Narcosynthesis

A

Sodium amytal or sodium pentothal

252
Q

Alteration of consciousness for admission of truth

A

Hypnosis

253
Q

Expressed acknowledgement of guilt

A

Confession

254
Q

Contains guidelines to be observed by physician concerning torture, inhuman and degrading punishment

A

Tokyo declaration

255
Q

A physician who specialises or is involved primarily with medico legal duties

A

Medical jurist, medical examiner, medico legal officer, medico legal expert

256
Q

Evidence to confirm the allegation or opinion of a medical witness

A

Experimental evidence

257
Q

Evidence: Articles and materials; aid in establishing identity of perpetrator

A

Physical evidence

258
Q

Objects/substances part of body of crime

A

Corpus delicti

259
Q

Examples of corpus delicti evidence

A
Smoking gun
Body of victim
Prohibited drugs recovered from a person
Knife with blood stains or fingerprints
Stolen motor vehicle
260
Q

Evidence that may link suspect to the crime

A

Associative evidence

261
Q

Evidence that may assist in locating the suspect

A

Tracing evidence

262
Q

T/F Electronic evidence is admissible in court

A

T

263
Q

Scientific interrogation: Interrogator creates a mood conducive to confession; friendliness

A

Emotional appeal

264
Q

Scientific interrogation: 2 investigators with opposite characters

A

Mutt and Jeff technique

265
Q

Scientific interrogation: Suspects investigated separately

A

Bluff on split-pair

266
Q

Scientific interrogation: Subject is given opportunity to make a lengthy narration

A

Stern approach

267
Q

Confession made in court/municipal hall/police station

A

Judicial

268
Q

Confession made outside court

A

Extrajudicial

269
Q

Hallmark of forensic medicine

A

Admission

270
Q

Criminal vs civil vs administrative case, evidence: Proof beyond reasonable doubt

A

Criminal case

271
Q

Criminal vs civil vs administrative case, evidence: Preponderance

A

Civil case

272
Q

Criminal vs civil vs administrative case: Innocent unless proven guilty

A

Criminal case

273
Q

Criminal vs civil vs administrative case, evidence: Substantial

A

Administrative

274
Q

Gait: Tabes dorsalis

A

Ataxic

275
Q

Gait: Knock knee

A

Cow

276
Q

Gait: Steps are short and feet are dragged

A

Paretic

277
Q

Gait: Legs are held together and toes are dragged

A

Spastic

278
Q

Gait: Short accelerating steps

A

Festinating

279
Q

Gait: Hopping from infantile paralysis

A

Frog

280
Q

Gait: Waddling

A

Duck

281
Q

Height ceases to increase after

A

25 years

282
Q

12 permanent teeth

A

9 y/o

283
Q

20 permanent teeth

A

11 y/o

284
Q

28 permanent teeth

A

13 y/o

285
Q

Calcification of teeth begins at

A

8-10 y/o, 3rd molar

286
Q

Root ends of 3rd molar completely calcified

A

25 y/o

287
Q

Study of documents to determine genuineness of authorship

A

Bibliotics

288
Q

Forgery: Outlining of a genuine signature from a document

A

Traced

289
Q

Forgery: Attempt to copy in freehand manner the genuine signature

A

Simulated

290
Q

Forgery: No attempt to copy the genuine writing

A

Spurious

291
Q

Deliberate attempt to alter his writing habit or by imitating the writing of another

A

Disguised writing

292
Q

Recent blood shed is soluble in saline solution and imparts bright red color

A

Solubility test

293
Q

Solution of blood stain will impart a muddy ppt

A

Heat test

294
Q

Test for blood: Salmon color to dark brown pink crystals

A

Takayama

295
Q

Test for blood: Water with NaCl and glacial acetic acid

A

Teichmann

296
Q

Test for blood: Diluted oxalic acid

A

Aceton-Hematin

297
Q

Determination of time of death by examination of CSF

A

Schourups formula

298
Q

Waxy looking skin of death is due to

A

Loss of circulation

299
Q

Yellowish spot in sclera seen with death

A

Tache noir de la sclérotique

300
Q

If body temp. is normal at the time of death, the average rate of fall of the temp. during the first 2 1⁄2 hours is ___

A

1⁄2 of the difference of the body temperature and that of the air

301
Q

With death, the body attains the temp. of the surrounding air from ___ hours after death in tropical countries

A

12 to 15

302
Q

Weapon which is highly grasped by the hand of a victim of a shooting incident is an example of

A

Cadaveric spasm

303
Q

Cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop

A

Immediate cause of death

304
Q

Most practical, useful, and reliable means of preserving evidence

A

Photography

305
Q

Comprehensive study of a dead body performed by trained physician

A

Autopsy

306
Q

When the body surface of corpse is pressed, it leaves a flattened area due to

A

Loss of elasticity

307
Q

Most prominent sign of death

A

Progressive fall of body temp

308
Q

Tested in suspected cases of lead poisoning

A

Liver

309
Q

Living in very high altitude may cause what type of asphyxial death

A

Anoxic

310
Q

CHANGES IN THE MUSCLE, Three Stages After Death

A

a) Stage of primary flaccidity ( POST-MORTEM IRRITABILITY)
b) Stage of post-mortem rigidity ( CADAVERIC RIGIDITY , DEATH STRUGGLE OF MUSCLES OR RIGOR MORTIS)
c) Stage of Secondary flaccidity or Commencement of putrefaction ( DECAY OF MUSCLES)

311
Q

Pupils in death

A

Dilated

312
Q

T/F In primary flaccidity, there is presence of molecular life

A

T

313
Q

Primary flaccidity takes place within

A

1 hour and 51 minutes

314
Q

Primary flaccidity, chemical reaction of muscle is ___

A

Alkaline

315
Q

CADAVERIC RIGIDITY starts at ___

A

Muscle of neck, lower jaw

316
Q

CADAVERIC RIGIDITY, reaction is ___ due to ___

A

Acidic, inc. of lactic acid

317
Q

CADAVERIC RIGIDITY develops ___ after death in temperate, earlier in warm

A

3 to 6 hours

318
Q

CADAVERIC RIGIDITY last from ___ in temperate, warm: ___ cold weather, ___ summer

A

2 to 3 days
24-48H
18-36H

319
Q

Secondary flaccidity, reaction is ___ due to ___

A

Alkaline; dissolution of muscle proteins

320
Q

Stage where muscles are capable of contracting when stimulated

A

Primary flaccidity

321
Q

Lividity where blood gravitates to most dependent parts inside blood vessels

A

Hypostatic lividity

322
Q

Lividity where coagulated blood is either in blood vessels or already diffused in tissues

A

Diffusion lividity

323
Q

Breaking down of complex proteins with evolution of foul-smelling gases

A

Putrefaction

324
Q

Softening of tissues in a fluid medium in the absence of putrefactive microorganism

A

Maceration

325
Q

Putrefaction that takes place in death of fetus in utero

A

Maceration

326
Q

Prominence of superficial veins with reddish discolouration during decomposition

A

Marbolization

327
Q

Putrefy rapidly

A

Eyeball, lining of trachea, larynx , brain, stomach, intestine, liver, spleen

328
Q

Putrefy late

A

Highly muscular organs and tissues: Esophagus, diaphragm, heart, lungs, kidneys, U.B., uterus, P.G.

329
Q

Intentional cutting off any reproductive part of the body

A

Mutilation

330
Q

Anoxic death with cyanide and alcohol

A

Histotoxic anoxic death

331
Q

Anoxic death in heart failure, shock, arterial/venous obstruction

A

Stagnant anoxic death

332
Q

Manner of death that should be autopsied

A
  • death by violence
  • accidental death
  • suicides
  • sudden death of persons in apparent good health
  • death unattended by physician
  • death wherein MD is not able to arrive at a clinical dx as to the cause of death
  • death occuring in an unnatural manner
333
Q

Cutis gallina or washer woman’s hands and feet on the corpse signifies that

A

Body has been in water for some time

334
Q

Willfull and deliberate painless acceleration of death of a person

A

Euthanasia

335
Q

When a body is the subject matter of a criminal investigation, it may be exhumed when

A

Anytime

336
Q

Lividity that does not change with any change in position of the cadaver

A

Diffusion lividity

337
Q

Lividity: early stage; blood is still fluid within the blood vessels; any change in position of the body leads to the formation of lividity in another place

A

Hypostatic lividity

338
Q

Exhumations is aka

A

Disinterment

339
Q

Burial is aka

A

Interment

340
Q

Deep burial sites will make decomposition, faster vs slower

A

Slower

341
Q

Fetus is considered born if

A

Alive at the time it is completely delivered from the mother’s womb

342
Q

T/F If the fetus had an intra-uterine life of less than 7 months, it is deemed born if it dies within 24H after its complete delivery from the maternal womb

A

F, NOT deemed born

343
Q

Civil status of the father with respect to the child

A

Paternity

344
Q

Civil status of the child in relation to its mother or father

A

Filiation

345
Q

Legitimate children

A

1) Born on lawful wedlock
2) Born within 300 days after the dissolution of marriage
3) Born after 180 days following the celebration of the marriage

346
Q

Physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate sexual gratification

A

Impotence

347
Q

Loss of power of procreation and is absolutely independent of whether or not impotence is present

A

Sterility

348
Q

Duration of death: Rigor mortis

A

2-3 hours after death
12 H fully developed
18-36 H disappears concomitant with putrefaction

349
Q

Duration of death: Post mortem lividity

A

3-6 H after death

350
Q

Duration of death: Onset of decomposition

A

24-48 H after death

351
Q

Duration of death: Live flies in the clothing in the drowning victim

A

Less than 24h

352
Q

Duration of death: Stomach empty

A

3-4h

353
Q

Duration of death: Food in distal ileum/cecum

A

6-8h

354
Q

Duration of death: Blood clots in vessels

A

6-8h

355
Q

Float earlier, in order

A

Stagnant > shallow > salt

356
Q

Presumption of death: Not heard of in

A

7 years

357
Q

Presumption of death: In a vessel for

A

4 years

358
Q

Presumption of death: In the armed forces for

A

4 years

359
Q

Presumption of death: In danger of death for

A

4 years

360
Q

Euthanasia without patient’s knowledge

A

Murder

361
Q

Firing squad

A

Musketry

362
Q

Performance of a lawful act with due care and death occurred without intention

A

Accidental

363
Q

Microorganism with dominant role in decomposition

A

Clostridium welchii

364
Q

Rigor mortis in tropics lasts for

A

24-48h