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Lifespan Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model?

A

It has 5 systems

  1. Microsystem - immediate environment, face to face relationships at home, school, etc.
  2. Mesosystem - interactions between components of the microsystem like family stuff affecting behavior at school.
  3. Excosystem - broader environment that affect immediate environment like workplace or mass media.
  4. Macrosystem - overarching environment influences like cultural beliefs.
  5. Chronosystem - environmental events that occur over lifespan that impact person like change in family structure.
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2
Q

What is Rutter’s (1985) family risk factors for negative outcomes?

A

Severe martial discord, low socioeconomic status, overcrowding or large family, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and placement outside the home.

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3
Q

What is reaction range?

A

Range of reaction for certain traits and status within the range depends on environmental factors.

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4
Q

What is canalizations?

A

Describes how genotype restricts phenotype to a small # of possible outcomes.

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5
Q

What are the genotype-environment correlations?

A

Based on the premise that genetics influence environment person is exposed to and that environment will reinforce the genetic makeup. There are 3 types
Passive - parents provide children with environments that encourage the development of trait.
Evocative - genetic makeup evokes reactions from others that reinforce child’s genetic makeup.
Active - actively seek out experiences that are consistent with their genetic predispositions

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6
Q

Does the genotype-environment correlation change?

A

Yes. It changes over time. Passive and evocative in infancy when child has little control, but active when child is more independent.

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7
Q

What is epigensis?

A

Belief that the relationship between genetics and environment influences are bidirectional and ongoing.

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8
Q

What are experts thoughts about critical periods versus sensitive periods?

A

Experts believe humans behaviors are based mainly on sensitive rather than critical periods. Sensitive periods are more flexible, longer in duration, and not tied as closely to maturation.

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9
Q

What are the prenatal development stages?

A

Germinal (first two weeks)
Embryonic (3-8 weeks)
Fetal (9 weeks until birth)

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10
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a person have?

A

23 pairs (22 pairs of autosomes and the 23 is the sex chromosome; XX = female and XY = male)

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11
Q

What is an autosomal disorder?

A

A disorder that is carried on an autosome.

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12
Q

What is a sex linked disorder?

A

One that is carried on the sex chromosome.

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13
Q

What is the difference between dominant and recessive genes?

A

Dominant traits only need one single dominant gene, but a recessive requires two recessive genes to be inherited.

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14
Q

What is an example of a autosomal dominant gene disorder?

A

Huntington’s disease

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15
Q

What is an example of a recessive autosomal gene disorder?

A

Cystic fibrosis
Sickle cell
Tay-Sachs disease
PKU (phenylketonuria)

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16
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A

It is a autosomal disorder.

The presence of an extra 21st chromosome- intellectual disabilities, retarded physical growth and motor development, distinctive physical features.

Increase risk with increase in age of parents

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17
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

It is a sex linked disorder.
Occurs in males due to two or more X chromosome with single Y chromosome.

Small penis and testes, develop breast during puberty, limited interest in sex, often sterile.

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18
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

It is a sex linked disorder.
Occurs in females due to the presence of a single X chromosome.

Short in stature, drooping eyelids, webbed neck, retarded or absence of secondary sex characteristics.

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19
Q

What is Prader Willi syndrome?

A

Due to deletion on chromosome 15.

Intellectual disabilities, obese, obsessive compulsive behaviors, motor development delays, underdeveloped sex organs.

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20
Q

What are the types of alterations in chromosomes?

A

Deletions-part of chromosome is missing.

Translocation-transfer of a chromosome segment to another chromosome.

Inversion-chromosome breaks in two places and the segment formed by the breaks inverts and reattaches to the chromosome.

Maybe inherited, but usually don’t affect the phenotype.

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21
Q

When is a teratogen most likely to cause a major defect?

A

During the embryonic stage (3-8 weeks)

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22
Q

What is fetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

A

Occurs when alcohol exposure during prenatal period.

Range of irreversible physical, behavioral, and/or cognitive abnormalities.

Fetal alcohol syndrome is the most severe condition. Usually has motor impairments and intellectual disabilities.

Less severe condition includes alcohol related neurodevelopmental disorder, alcohol related birth defects, fetal alcohol effects.

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23
Q

What are some effects of cocaine use during pregnancy?

A

Increase risk for miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth, sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), seizures, low birth weight, reduced head circumference,sleep and feeding issues, developmental delays, tremors, exaggerated startle response.

Long term effects unclear

May lead to cognitive and behavioral problems usually in early school years

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24
Q

What are some of the effects of nicotine use during pregnancy?

A

Placental abnormalities that can cause fetal dead and still birth.
Low birth weight
Sudden infant death syndrome
Respiratory diseases
Emotional, social, and cognitive deficits

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25
Q

What is the effect of exposure to lead during pregnancy?

A

Low birth weight

Intellectual disabilities

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26
Q

Can antiretroviral drugs decrease HIV in babies?

A

Yes

Reduce risk from 20-30 to 1%

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27
Q

Brain growth after birth is due to what?

A

Increase size of existing cells
Growth of new dendrites
Increase myelinization

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28
Q

How does the weight of the brain change?

A

It is 25% its adult weight by birth, 80% by age 2, and full weight by age 16. By age 30, it begins to shrink due to loss (atrophy) of neurons. At age 60 there is acceleration of cell death.

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29
Q

What is neurogensis?

A

The creation of new neurons.

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30
Q

What are four major newborn reflexes?

A

Babinski-toes fan out and upwards when soles are tickled.

Rooting-turns head in direction of touch applied to cheek.

Moro (Startle) - flings arms and legs outward then toward the body in response to loud noise or sudden loss of physical support.

Stepping-walking movements when held upright with feet touching flat surface.

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31
Q

How does researchers study perceptual development?

A

They tend to use habituation (decrease in response to a stimulus over time) and dishabituation (response increase following a change in stimulus).

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32
Q

At what age does visual acuity of infants similar to adults?

A

6 months

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33
Q

When does infants have color vision?

A

Limited color vision by 2 to 3 months

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34
Q

When does infants develop depth perception?

A

4-6 months

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35
Q

What is the order of depth cues sensitivity?

A

Kinetic, binocular, then pictorial.

Prefer high contrast, complex patterns, and looking at faces (face recognition of mother by one month).

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36
Q

When can infants hear?

A

Sensitive to sounds shortly after birth, some localization, tell difference in voices after a few days of being born.

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37
Q

What are the physical milestones 1-3 months infants?

A

Raise chin, turn head, play with hand & fingers, bring objects from hand to mouth.

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38
Q

What are the physical milestones 4-6 months infants?

A

Rolls onto back, sits alone, stands with help, reaches and grasp, first teeth appear.

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39
Q

What are the physical milestones 7-9 months infants?

A

Increase coordination, sits alone, crawling, pull self up

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40
Q

What are the physical milestones 10-12 months infants?

A

Stands alone and walk with help, takes first steps alone.

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41
Q

What are the physical milestones 13-15 months infants?

A

Walks alone, creeps up stairs, uses cup well.

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42
Q

What are the physical milestones 16-24 months infants?

A

Runs and walks up stairs, use a spoon, kicks ball, turn book pages, may use toilet

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43
Q

What are the physical milestones 25-48 months infants?

A

Jumps with both feet, has good hand finger coordination, rides tricycle, preference for right or left hand, completely toilet trained, dressing in simply clothing.

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44
Q

What abilities show first signs of age related decline?

A

Hearing and vision

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45
Q

What are alcohol related nerodevelopmental disorder (ARND) and alcohol related birth defects (ARBD)?

A

They are less severe forms of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.
ARND - cognitive deficits and behavioral problems without prominent facial anomalies, retarded physical growth or physical defects.
ARBD - involves physical defects like heart, kidney, vision, and hearing impairments without prominent symptoms.

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46
Q

What is the difference between habituation and dishabituation?

A

habituation - response to a stimulus decreases when stimulus is repeatedly presented.

dishabituation - response increases following a change in a stimulus.

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47
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

Inability to focus on close objects

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48
Q

What is Piaget’s Constructivism theory of cognitive development?

A

Notes people actively construct higher levels of knowledge from both biological maturation and the environment.

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49
Q

What did Piaget believe was the motivation for cognitive development?

A

Motivation came from a drive towards cognitive equilibrium (equilibration). Disequilibrium occurs when there is a discrepancy between reality and the person’s current understanding of the world.

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50
Q

According to Piaget, how is disequilibrium is resolved?

A

Through adaptation, which involves:
assimilation (incorporation of new knowledge into existing cognitive schemas) - applies an existing schema to a new object

accommodation (modification of existing schemes to incorporate new knowledge) - modifies an existing schema to fit a new object

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51
Q

What are Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A

Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational.

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52
Q

What is the age range for the sensorimotor stage?

A

Birth to 2 years old

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53
Q

What is the age range for the preoperational stage?

A

2-7 years old

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54
Q

What is the age range for the concrete operational stage?

A

7-11 years old

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55
Q

What is the age range for the formal operational stage?

A

11-12+ years old

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56
Q

What are the main characteristics of the sensorimotor stage?

A

Children learn by coordinating sensory experience with motor activity.
Learn object permanence - objects continue to exist even when they’re no longer visible.
Engage in symbolic thought - ability to use images, gestures, and words to represent objects and experiences.
Understand causality
Deferred imitation-imitating another person’s behavior after a long period of time has passed.
Symbolic play or make believe

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57
Q

What did Piaget say was the predominant type of learning during the sensorimotor stage?

A

Circular reactions - actions that are performed in order to reproduce events that initially occurred by chance.

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58
Q

Piaget noted that circular reactions changes in six substages. What are they?

A
  1. ) Reflexive schemes - birth to 1 month, use reflexes.
  2. ) Primary Circular Reactions - 1 to 4 months, attempts to repeat pleasurable events using own body like thumb sucking.
  3. ) Secondary Circular Reactions - 4 to 8 months, attempts to reproduce pleasurable events involving other people or objects.
  4. Coordinated Secondary Circular Reactions - 8 to 12 months, combines secondary circular reactions into new more complex action sequences.
  5. ) Tertiary Circular Reactions - 12 to 18 months, varies action or sequence to discovery its consequences.
  6. ) Mental Representations - 18 to 24 months, develop representational (symbolic) thought
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59
Q

What did Piaget say was the predominant type of learning during the preoperational stage?

A

More sophisticated symbolic play, but some limitations like:

  1. ) Precausal (transductive) reasoning- incomplete understanding of cause and effect. For example, magical thinking (something will actually cause an event to happen just because it occurred around the time the event happened before) and animism (attribute human characteristics to inanimate objects)
  2. ) Egocentrism-inability to see things from another person’s point of view.
  3. ) Centration-focus only on one aspect and ignore the rest.
  4. ) Irreversibility-lack of understanding that situations can be reversed
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60
Q

What did Piaget say was the predominant type of learning during the concrete operational stage?

A

Use logical operations to think about objects and events - mental operations.
1.) Conservative-ability to recognize that certain physical characteristics of an object stay the same even when outward appearance changes. This is accomplished by reversibility (processes can be reversed) and decentration-focus on more than one aspect at a time)

Horizontal decalage is used to describe gradual development of conservation abilities.

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61
Q

What did Piaget say was the predominant type of learning during the formal operational stage?

A

Abstract thinking

  1. ) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning: can identify competing hypotheses and systematically test them.
  2. ) Propositional reasoning
  3. ) Adolescent egocentrism: inability to distinguish one’s own abstract perspectives from those of others. For example, the personal fable (one is unique and not governed by the laws of others) and imaginary audience (belief the one is always the center of attention)
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62
Q

How does the information processing theories describe cognitive development?

A

Involving increasing information processing capacity and efficiency; cognitive abilities are similar at all stages of development but differ in terms of extent. Therefore, improvements are in memory capacity, enhanced processing speed, and greater automaticity.

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63
Q

What is Vygotsky’s Sociocultural Theory?

A

It is a theory of cognitive development which states that all learning is socially mediated and occurs on two levels:

  1. ) between the child and another person (interpersonal)
  2. ) within the child (intrapersonal)
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64
Q

According to Vygotsky, when is learning optimal?

A

When it falls within the child’s Zone of Proximal Development-discrepancy between the level at which the child can function independently and that of which the child can do with assistance (scaffolding).

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65
Q

What is scaffolding?

A

The assistance given to a child during the zone of proximal development. It is most effective when it involves modeling, providing cues, and encourage the child to think about alternative plans of action. Make believe is that to be helpful as well. Also, self directed speech- when child speaks to themselves to help regulate and organize their behaviors.

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66
Q

What is the Theory of the Mind?

A

Ability to make inferences about another’s representational states and to predict behavior accordingly, which is affected by a variety of factors.

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67
Q

What is metacognition and metamemory?

A

metacognition-thinking about thinking.

metamemory-ability to reflect on one’s own memory.

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68
Q

What is the synchrony effect?

A

Optimal time to complete certain task is related to circadian arousal. Morning for older adults and morning and evening for young adults.

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69
Q

What is childhood (infantile) amnesia?

A

Adults can only recall a few events prior to the age of 3 or 4 because areas of the brain essential for memory of events are not sufficiently developed prior to age 4. It may also be because of the absence of language abilities which can prevent appropriate encoding and later retrieval problems.

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70
Q

What is retention function?

A

Greater recall of recent events (usually in the last 20 years)

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71
Q

What is reminiscence bump?

A

Greater recall of events that occurred from 10-30 years of age. Usually because people experience a lot of novel things that are more likely to be remembered.

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72
Q

Increasing age has what effect on implicit and explicit memory?

A

Negative

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73
Q

What is the greatest memory decline in older adults?

A

In recent long term (secondary) memory followed by working memory of short term memory.

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74
Q

What is the nativist approach to language development?

A

Attributes language acquisition to biological mechanisms and stresses universal patterns of language.

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75
Q

What is the behaviorist approach to language development?

A

Language is acquired through imitation and reinforcement.

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76
Q

What is the interactionists approach to language development?

A

Development is the result of the interaction between biological and environmental factors.

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77
Q

What does Chomsky stance on language development?

A

He is a nativist and believed that we have an innate language acquisition device (makes it possible to acquire language just by being exposed to it)

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78
Q

What is semantic bootstrapping?

A

A children’s use of their knowledge of the meaning of words to infer their syntactical (grammatical) category

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79
Q

What is syntactic bootstrapping?

A

A children’s use of their syntactical knowledge to learn the meaning of new words.

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80
Q

What is prosodic bootstrapping?

A

Using prosody (pitch, rhythm, etc) of an utterance to make inferences about syntax.

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81
Q

What is morphological bootstrapping?

A

Use knowledge about morphemes (ending in “ing”, etc) to deduce the syntax or meaning of a word.

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82
Q

What does surface structure means in language development?

A

The organization of the words and phrases in a sentence.

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83
Q

What does deep structure means in language development?

A

Refers to the underlying meaning of a sentence.

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84
Q

What are phonemes?

A

Smallest units of sound understood in a language.

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85
Q

What are morphemes?

A

Smallest units of sound that convey meaning

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86
Q

When does cooing begin?

A

6-8 weeks

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87
Q

When does babbling begin?

A

3-6 months

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88
Q

When does children start to imitate adult speech sounds and words without understanding their meaning (echolalia)?

A

9 months

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89
Q

When do children speak their first words?

A

10-15 months and speak about 50 words by 18 months.

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90
Q

What are holophrases and when do children speak them.

A

Single words that express an entire idea and children begin them at 12-24 months.

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91
Q

What is telegraphic speech and when do children speak it?

A

A string of usually two (can be more words) to make a sentence and begins around 24 months.

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92
Q

What is underextension in language development?

A

When a child applies a word too narrowly to objects or events

93
Q

What is overextension in language development?

A

When a child applies a word to a wider range of objects or events than is appropriate

94
Q

What are the 9 dimensions Thomas and Chess used to distinguish temperament qualities?

A

Activity level, rhythmicity, approach/withdrawal, adaptability, threshold of responsiveness, intensity of reaction, quality of mood, distractibility, and persistence.

95
Q

Thomas and Chess stated the babies have three main types of temperament styles. What are they?

A

Easy: even tempered and adapt easily to new situations.

Difficult: irritable and react negatively to new situations.

Slow-to-Warm-Up: low activity levels and mildly negative reactions to new situations

96
Q

What is Thomas and Chess’s goodness of fit model?

A

Proposes that maladjustment in childhood is related to a poor fit between the child’s basic temperament and parents’ behaviors.

97
Q

What is Freud’s theory of psychosexual development?

A

The id’s libido (sexual energy) centers on a different part of the body during each stage of development and personality results from the ways in which conflicts are resolved at each stage.

98
Q

What are Freud’s psychosexual stages?

A

Oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.

99
Q

At what age is the oral stage?

A

Birth - 1 year old

100
Q

At what age is the anal stage?

A

1 - 3 years old

101
Q

At what age is the phallic stage?

A

3 - 6 years old

102
Q

At what age is the latency stage?

A

6 - 12 years old

103
Q

At what age is the genital stage?

A

12+ years old

104
Q

What is the focus of the oral stage?

A

The mouth is the focus of sensation and stimulation.

105
Q

What are the results of someone gets fixated in the oral stage?

A

Dependence, passivity, gullibility, sarcasm, and orally-focused habits like smoking, nail biting, overeating, etc.

106
Q

What is the focus of the anal stage?

A

Controlling bodily wastes and conflicts that stem from issues related to toilet training.

107
Q

What are the results of someone gets fixated in the anal stage?

A

Anal retentiveness (stinginess, selfishness, obsessive compulsive behavior) or anal expulsiveness ( cruelty, destructiveness, messiness).

108
Q

What is the focus of the phallic stage?

A

The genitals with the primary task to resolve the Oedipal conflict (desire for the opposite sex parent and a view that the same sex parent as a rival)

109
Q

What are the results of someone gets fixated in the phallic stage?

A

Phallic character - involves sexual exploitation of others.

110
Q

What are the results of a successful outcome of the phallic stage?

A

Identification with the same sex parent and development of the superego.

111
Q

What is the focus of the latency stage?

A

Libido energy is diffused and not focused on any one area of the body. Emphasis is on developing social skills rather than achieving sexual gratification.

112
Q

What is the focus of the genital stage?

A

Centered on the genitals.

113
Q

What are the results of a successful outcome of the genital stage?

A

Sexual desire is blended with affection to produce mature sexual relationships.

114
Q

How does Erikson’s personality theory differ from Freud’s?

A
  1. Stresses role of social factors (Freud: sexual)
  2. Involves psychosocial crisis (Freud: psychosexual)
  3. Places greater emphasis on the ego (Freud: Id). People are rational and behavior is due largely to the ego functioning.
  4. Process continues throughout the lifespan
115
Q

What is Erikson’s first psychosocial stage?

A

Basic trust vs. Mistrust (infancy) positive relationship with primary caregiver = sense of trust and optimism.

116
Q

What is Erikson’s second psychosocial stage?

A

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (toddlerhood): positive interactions with caregivers = sense of self/autonomy

117
Q

What is Erikson’s third psychosocial stage?

A

Initiative vs. Guilt (early childhood): good relationships = ability to set goals and devise and carry out plans without infringing on the rights of others.

118
Q

What is Erikson’s fourth psychosocial stage?

A

Industry vs. Inferiority (school age): must master certain social and academic skills.

119
Q

What is Erikson’s fifth psychosocial stage?

A

Identify vs. Role Confusion (adolescence): sense of personal identity and direction for the future.

120
Q

What is Erikson’s sixth psychosocial stage?

A

Intimacy vs. Isolation (young adulthood): development of intimate bonds of love and friendship.

121
Q

What is Erikson’s seven psychosocial stage?

A

Generativity vs.Stagnation (middle adulthood): exhibits commitment to the wellbeing of future generations.

122
Q

What is Erikson’s eight psychosocial stage?

A

Ego Integrity vs. Despair (old age): development of wisdom and sense of integrity due to coming to terms with one’s limitations and morality.

123
Q

What is Levinson’s Seasons of a Man?

A 
Lifespan divided into four periods:
Infancy through adolescence 
Early adulthood 
Middle adulthood 
Late adulthood
124
Q

What two dimensions does Baumrind parenting styles differ on?

A

Responsivity (acceptance and warmth) and demandingness (control)

125
Q

What parenting styles did Baumrind identify?

A

Authoritarian
Authoritative
Permissive indulgent
Rejecting neglecting uninvolved

126
Q

What are the characteristics of the authoritarian parenting style?

A

Parents exhibit high degrees of demandingness and low responsivity. These parents impose absolute standards of conduct, stress obedience, and use physical punishment, threats, deprivation and other power assertive techniques to gain compliance.

127
Q

What are the results of the authoritarian parenting style?

A

Person is often irritable, aggressive, mistrusting, and dependent. Person may have a limited sense of responsibility and low levels of self esteem and academic achievement.

128
Q

What are the characteristics of the authoritative parenting style?

A

Has rational control with responsivity.
Set clear rules and high standards for child.
Rely on reasoning, praise, explanations, and other inductive techniques to gain compliance. Encourage independence.

129
Q

What are the results of the authoritative parenting style?

A

Person tend to be assertive, socially responsible and achievement oriented. Person usually has high self esteem, are self confident, and obtain high grades in school.

130
Q

What are the characteristics of the permisssive indulgent parenting style?

A

Parents tend to be warm and caring, but make few demands and are non punitive. They allow child to make own decisions about what chores to complete, go to bed, etc.

131
Q

What are the results of the permisssive indulgent parenting style?

A

Person tend to be immature, impulsive, self centered, easily frustrated, low in achievement and independence.

132
Q

What are the characteristics of the rejecting neglecting uninvolved parenting style?

A

Parents exhibit low levels of responsivity and demandingness.
They may be overly hostile towards their children

133
Q

What are the results of the rejecting neglecting uninvolved parenting style?

A

Person will have low self esteem and poor self control and are often impulsive, moody, and aggressive. Also, predictive of juvenile delinquency.

134
Q

How does being the first born affect personality and behavior?

A

First born have more rapid language acquisition, achieve higher grades in school, higher scores on IQ tests, more achievement oriented and conscientious.

135
Q

How does being born later affect personality and behavior?

A

Less cautious, more rebellious, have better peer relationships, and more confident in social situations.

136
Q

How does family size and spacing of children affect personality and behavior?

A

The larger the size and the smaller the gap, the lower the children’s achievement.

137
Q

What are some of the characteristics of children whose mother was depressed?

A

They tend to have poorer outcomes, show physiological signs of distress, engage in passive noncompliance, have higher than normal aggressiveness when interacting with peers, and poorer performance on measures of cognitive linguistic functioning

138
Q

What are some of the characteristics of children whose father was depressed?

A

More father child conflict

Internalizing and externalizing symptoms in children.

139
Q

What are Stipek et al stages of self awareness?

A

Physical self recognition
Self description
Emotional responses to wrong doing

140
Q

What is the physical self recognition stage?

A

Evident by 18 months; begin to recognize self in pictures and mirror.

141
Q

What is the self description stage?

A

Occurs between 19-30 months; use neutral (eg. black hair) and evaluative (eg. good girl) terms to describe self.

142
Q

What are some characteristics of the emotional responses to wrong doing stage?

A

Has adverse (negative) reactions to caregiver’s disapproval; sign of a sense of conscience.

143
Q

What is the typical self awareness progression?

A

Description of self focus on concrete physical characteristics (ages 2-6) then on competencies (ages 6-10) to personality traits and emotions directed towards self like I’m sad because I failed the quiz (ages 10-12).

144
Q

When is gender identity established?

A

By age 3

145
Q

What is the psychodynamic perspective of gender identity?

A

The development of gender identity depends on successful resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage - identification with same sex parent.

146
Q

What is the cognitive development perspective of gender identity?

A

Gender identification involves a series of stages that coincides with the person’s cognitive development.

147
Q

According to Kohlberg, what is the cognitive development of gender identity?

A
  1. Gender identity: by age 2-3; recognize they are either male or female.
  2. Gender stability: realize gender is stable over time.
  3. Gender constancy: by age 6 or 7; gender is constant over situations and gender can’t be changed by altering external appearance or behavior.
148
Q

What is the social learning perspective of gender identity?

A

Developments as a result of a combination of differential reinforcement and observational learning.

149
Q

What is the (Bem’s) gender schema perspective of gender identity?

A

Gender identity development is due to a combination of social learning and cognitive development.

150
Q

According to Bem, what is the cognitive development of gender identity?

A

Children develop schemas of masculinity and femininity as a result of their sociocultural experiences. These schemas organize how they perceive and think about the world.

151
Q

What is the multidimensional model perspective of gender identity?

A

Consists of 5 components:

  1. Membership knowledge - knowledge of one’s membership in a gender category.
  2. Gender typicality - degree to which one feels similar to others in the same gender category.
  3. Gender contentedness - degree to which they are satisfied with their gender.
  4. Felt pressure for gender conformity - degree to which they feel pressure from others to conform to gender stereotypes.
  5. Intergroup bias - degree to which they believe that their gender category is superior.
152
Q

What is androgyny?

A

Combines masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences. It has been linked to positive outcomes like greater flexibility when coping with difficult situations, higher levels of life satisfaction, and greater comfort with one’s sexuality.

153
Q

What is Marcia’s identity stages?

A

Identity diffusion
Identity foreclosure
Identity moratorium
Identity achievement

154
Q

What are the characteristics of the identity diffusion stage?

A

Adolescent has not experienced an identity crisis or explored alternatives, and are not committed to a particular identity.

155
Q

What are the characteristics of the identity foreclosure stage?

A

Adolescents have not experienced an identity crisis, but adopted an identity that was imposed by others like an occupation.

156
Q

What are the characteristics of the identity moratorium stage?

A

Adolescents experience an identity crisis and actively explores alternative identities; exhibit a high degree of confusion, discontent, and rebelliousness.

157
Q

What are the characteristics of the identity achievement stage?

A

Adolescents resolved identity crisis and are committed to a particular identity.

158
Q

What is Gilligan’s Relational Crisis?

A

Girls about 11-12 years old experience a relational crisis due to increase pressure to fit cultural norms and stereotypes about women.

159
Q

What are some examples of the relational crisis girls experience?

A
  1. Disconnect from themselves in order to maintain relationships with others.
  2. Loss of voice - when they realize women’s opinions are not highly valued.
160
Q

What is the primary task to help girls in a relational crisis?

A

Help adolescent girls maintain a healthy resistance to disconnection.

161
Q

What are the phases children progress through as it relates to death?

A
  1. Nonfunctionality: essential features like eating, breathing, thinking, etc cease at death.
  2. Irreversibility: person can’t physically return after death.
  3. Universality: all living beings eventually die.
    All usually by the age of 10, but may have a mature understanding by 5- understanding depends on several factors.
162
Q

What is Kubler-Ross stages of grief?

A
  1. Denial and isolation
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
163
Q

What does Harlow conclude about attachment between babies and caregivers?

A

Based on his research of rhesus monkeys, attachment is due in part to contact comfort (pleasant tactile sensation provided by the caregiver).

164
Q

What is Bowlby’s theory of attachment?

A

Exposure of an infant to mother during critical period following birth produces a bond between them that helps ensure the infants survival.

165
Q

What is Bowlby’s stages of attachment?

A
  1. Preattachment
  2. Attachment in the making
  3. Clearcut attachment
  4. Formation of reciprocal relationships
166
Q

According to Bowlby’s theory of attachment, what is internal working model?

A

A mental representation of self and others that influences the child’s future relationships.

167
Q

What are some signs of attachment?

A
  1. Social referencing - looking to caregivers to determine how to respond in new or ambiguous situations; about 6 months.
  2. Separation anxiety - distress when separated from primary caregiver; about 6-8 months; peaks in intensity at 14-18 months.
  3. Stranger anxiety - distress in the presence of a stranger; about 8-10 months to about age 2.
168
Q

What are Ainsworth attachment patterns?

A
  1. Secure attachment
  2. Insecure (anxious)/ambivalent attachment
  3. Insecure (anxious)/avoidant attachment
  4. Disorganized/disoriented attachment
169
Q

What are some characteristics of secure attachment?

A

Use mother as a base and explore the environment; may cry when mother leaves but greet her enthusiastically when she returns; mothers tend to be responsive and emotionally sensitive.

170
Q

What are some characteristics of insecure/avoidant attachment?

A

Child doesn’t cry when mother leaves; avoids mother when she returns; mothers tend to be chronically unavailable and unresponsive or overstimulating and intrusive.

171
Q

What are some characteristics of insecure/ambivalent attachment?

A

Babies are anxious before mother leaves room; not easily comforted when mother returns; mothers tend to be moody, inconsistent, and unpredictable.

172
Q

What are some characteristics of disorganized/disoriented attachment?

A

Child distress when mother leaves; disoriented and confused when mother returns; these children tend to be abused or severely neglected by their caregivers.

173
Q

What are some outcomes of secure attachment?

A

Engage in more positive interactions with peers; perform well academically; have a strong sense of personal identity as adults.

174
Q

What are some outcomes of disorganized/disoriented attachment?

A

Increase risk for aggressiveness and other behavioral problems.

175
Q

What is the premise that the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) based on?

A

That there is a relationship between parents’ attachment experiences and the attachment patterns of their children.

176
Q

What does it mean to be classified as autonomous on the AAI?

A

Adults give coherent descriptions of their childhood relationships with their parents; they tend to have children who exhibit a secure attachment.

177
Q

What does it mean to be classified as dismissing on the AAI?

A

Adults provide a positive description of their childhood relationships with their parents but they are either not supported or are contradicted by specific memories; they tend to have children who often exhibit an avoidant attachment pattern.

178
Q

What does it mean to be classified as preoccupied on the AAI?

A

Adults tend to become very angry or confused when describing their childhood relationships with their parents or seem passively preoccupied with a parent; their children often exhibit a resistant/ambivalent attachment pattern.

179
Q

When does primary (basic) emotions first emerge?

A

6-8 months usually through facial expressions

180
Q

When does self conscious emotions first emerge?

A

2 years old
18-24 months show jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment
30-36 months show shame, guilt, and pride

181
Q

What is emotional contagion and when does it appear in infants?

A

It is when the infant spontaneously cries in response to the cries of another infant.
It appears in the first few weeks of birth.

182
Q

What are the two types of aggression seen in the preschool years?

A
  1. Instrumental aggression: performed in order to obtain a desired reward or advantage; aka proactive aggression.
  2. Hostile aggression: defensive response to provocation or a blocked goal and is meant to hurt another person; aka reactive aggression.
183
Q

What is Patterson’s theory of aggression?

A

It attributes aggression to a combination of poor parental monitoring and coercive family interactions.
Aka: Coercive family interaction model

184
Q

What is Perry’s view of aggression?

A

He had a social cognitive perspective.
He found that aggressive children noted it was easier to do aggressive acts than to inhibit them. They also felt that being aggressive would have positive outcomes.

185
Q

What is Dodge’s view of aggression?

A

He had a social cognitive perspective.

186
Q

What is Piaget’s stages of moral development?

A
  1. Premoral stage: before age 8; exhibit little concern for rules.
  2. Heteronomous stage: age 7-10; consider rules to be absolute and unchangeable; believes that the violation of rules leads to consequences; the greater the consequence the worse the act.
  3. Autonomous stage: begins at age 11; view rules as arbitrary, that they can be changed by mutual agreement; when judging they focus more on the actor’s intention rather than the consequences of the act.
187
Q

What is Kohlberg’s levels of moral development?

A
  1. Preconventional
  2. Conventional
  3. Post-conventional
188
Q

What are the phases of the preconventional morality stage?

A
  1. Punishment and obedience

2. Instrumental hedonism

189
Q

What are some characteristics of the punishment and obedience phase?

A

Individuals obey rules to avoid punishment; so goodness or badness of the behavior depends on its consequences.

190
Q

What are some characteristics of the instrumental hedonism?

A

Consequences of the behavior plays a minimal role; judgments are based mainly on obtaining rewards and satisfying personal needs.

191
Q

What are the phases of the conventional morality stage?

A
  1. Good Boy/Good Girl orientation

2. Law and Order Orientation

192
Q

What are some characteristics of the good boy/good girl orientation?

A

Individuals obey rules and laws to obtain approval and acceptance by others.

193
Q

What are some characteristics of the law and order orientation?

A

Individuals obey rules and laws to show respect for authority and maintain the social order.

194
Q

What are the phases of the postconventional morality stage?

A
  1. Social Contract/Individual Rights

2. Individual Principles of Conscience

195
Q

What are some characteristics of social contract/individual rights morality stage?

A

Individuals base their judgments on democratically determined laws and the welfare of the majority.

196
Q

What are some characteristics of the individual principles of conscience morality stage?

A

Individuals base their judgments on abstract, universal principles such as justice, fairness, and equality.

197
Q

According to Kohlberg, when is moral judgment and moral action strongest?

A

During the highest stages of moral development.

198
Q

What did Gilligan think about Kohlberg’s moral development theory?

A

She thought it was bias and not applicable for females.

199
Q

What is Gilligan’s theory of moral development?

A

She noted that moral development occurred in three levels

  1. Level 1 - orientation of individual survival (focus is on what is best for oneself)
  2. Level 2 - goodness as self sacrifice (sacrifice of one’s own desire
200
Q

What increases the risk for negative outcomes in children; divorce or exposure to parental conflict?

A

Exposure to parental conflict

201
Q

Immediate negative effects of divorce are worse for preschool or elementary school age children?

A

Preschool children

202
Q

Long term consequences of divorce are worse for preschool or elementary school age children?

A

Elementary school age children - less likely to understand the reason for the divorce, may blame themselves, and fear being abandoned by both parents.

203
Q

What did Wallerstein find about children and divorce?

A

Children who were 6-8 years old at the time of the divorce exhibited painful memories 10 years later and feared they themselves would have unsuccessful marriages.

204
Q

What does the research say about gender differences and divorce?

A

Mixed results; boys exhibit more problems initially; girls thought to also exhibit issues, but they are less obvious.

205
Q

What is the sleeper effect for girls who are in preschool or elementary school in relation to divorce?

A

They may not display negative consequences (decrease self esteem, noncompliant behavior, sexual promiscuity, emotional problems) until adolescence or early adulthood.

206
Q

What does the research say increases the risk for adverse outcomes for children whose parents get divorce?

A

The parental conflict rather than the divorce that increases the possibility of adverse consequences.

207
Q

What does the research say about children with a parent and step parent?

A

They tend to have worse outcomes in terms of academic performance, social relationships, mental and physical health. However, these negative outcomes can be reduced by factors such as SES of the family and the child’s preexisting adjustment problems.

208
Q

When is it a difficult time for a child to experience a parent remarrying?

A

Early adolescence

209
Q

What are the gender differences in relation to remarrying?

A

Inconsistent results; girls typically have trouble adjusting to a stepfather, but boys benefit from it.

210
Q

What does the research say about stepparents?

A

Uncertainty about parenting roles and ability to successfully parent their stepchildren; Also stepfathers tend to be more distant and disengaged.

211
Q

What does the research say about the effects of a homosexual parent?

A

The nature of the parent-child relationship is more important than a parent’s sexual orientation; No significant differences found.

212
Q

What are Parten’s nonsocial play?

A
  1. Unoccupied play: random movements that don’t seem to have a goal.
  2. Onlooker play: child watches other children play and make comments but doesn’t participate in the play behavior.
  3. Solitary play: child plays alone and independently of others.
213
Q

What are Parten’s social play?

A
  1. Parallel play: child plays alongside other children and shares same toys but doesn’t interact with them.
  2. Associative play: child interacts with other children and same toys but without organization or shared goals.
  3. Cooperative play: organized group interactions for the purpose of achieving common goals.
214
Q

Who is liking to engage in non social and social play?

A

Younger children for non social and older children for social play.

215
Q

According to Damon, how does friendship change over the lifespan?

A
  1. 4-7: friends are seen as playmates.
  2. 8-10: friends are a source of help and support; trust and assistance are important.
  3. 11 and older: friends don’t deceive, reject, or abandon you; intimacy and loyalty are important.
216
Q

What are the gender differences in peer relationships?

A
  1. Females are drawn more to the emotional and intimate aspects, males more to shared interests and activities.
  2. Females engage in more intimate self disclosure.
  3. Males have larger number of friends and spend more time participating in large groups.
217
Q

What are the characteristics of rejected aggressive children?

A

Tend to be hostile, hyperactive, and impulsive, have difficulty regulating negative emotions and taking the perspective of others.
Outcomes worse than those who were neglected.

218
Q

What are the characteristics of rejected withdrawn children?

A

High degree of social anxiety, be submissive, have negative expectations about how others will treat them, and are often victims of bullying.

219
Q

What are the characteristics of neglected children?

A

Fewer interactions with peers and rarely engage in disruptive behaviors.

220
Q

What is the socioemotional selectivity theory?

A
  1. Noted that there are motivational processes that underlie the changes in quality and quantity of social relationships over the lifespan.
  2. Social motives correspond to perceptions of time left in life as limited versus unlimited.
221
Q

What is the two main social goals according to the socioemotional selectivity theory?

A

Acquisition of knowledge

Regulation of emotions

222
Q

What happens when time is seen as unlimited according to the socioemotional selectivity theory?

A

Behavior is aimed at pursuing future oriented, knowledge based goals; preference for new novel social partners who have the potential of providing new information.

223
Q

What happens when time is seen as limited according to the socioemotional selectivity theory?

A

Present oriented, emotion based goals take priority; preference for emotionally close social partners, greater selectivity, and reduced number of social partners.

224
Q

At what age does peer conformity peak?

A

14-15 years old; most responsive to all types of peer influence.

225
Q

What did Rosenthal and Jacobsen study find?

A

Teacher’s expectations about student achievement can have a self fulfilling prophecy (Rosenthal) effect.

Those identified as academic bloomers showed greater IQ gains those who weren’t signaled out as academic bloomers.

226
Q

What are the main characteristics of Montessori schools?

A

Consider sensory perception and discrimination essential for cognitive development; adapts instruction to match the child’s developmental level; uses multi age classrooms; emphasize self directed learning.

227
Q

What does the research say about compensatory education programs like Head Start?

A

Temporary effects; children have higher self esteem and better attitudes toward school.

228
Q

Where does neurogensis mainly occur?

A

In the hippocampus and the caudate nucleus.

229
Q

Where does neurogensis mainly occur?

A

In the hippocampus and the caudate nucleus.

Psych (8 decks)

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