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Y2 - my own > MCD > Flashcards

MCD Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three causes of B12 deficiency

A 
Pernicious anaemia (Lack of intrinsic factor)
GI disorders (Crohn's affecting B12 absorption in terminal ileum). 
Dietary deficiency
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2
Q

Name x2 tests for B12 deficiency diagnosis

A

Intrinsic factor and parietal cell antibodies

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3
Q

Name x2 examples of the parenteral route

A

Intravascular/ intramuscular.

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4
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for detecting the cause of microcytic anaemia

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassaemia
Anaemia of chronic disease (ACD).

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5
Q

What are the four mechanisms of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Ineffective iron utilisation
Reduced EPO (erythropoeitin)
Reduced EPO sensitivity
Reduced Red cell survival

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6
Q

Which is the most important next step in detecting the cause of microcytic anaemia in an individual?

A

Check Serum Ferritin;

Differentiates between iron deficiency as a cause and Anaemia of chronic disease.

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7
Q

Describe transferrin levels in anaemia of chronic disease Vs. Iron deficiency

A

ACD: low/ normal

Iron deficiency: High

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8
Q

Describe ferritin levels in anaemia of chronic disease Vs. Iron deficiency

A

ACD: High

Ion deficiency: normal

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9
Q

Is it transferrin or ferritin which is high in iron deficiency?

A

Serum transferrin

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10
Q

What is the cause of pre-hepatic Jaundice?

A

Haemolysis

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11
Q

Which marker will indicate haemolysis (pre-hepatic Jaundice)?

A

LDH.

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12
Q

How will you know if microcytic anaemia is due to thalassaemia?

A

Check HbA2.

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13
Q

Which pathways inhibit the CDKs?

A

CKI - Cyclin kinase inhibitors e.g. INK4 and PIP/KIP.

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14
Q

Give x3 examples of protooncogenes

A

Ras, HER2, C-Myc.

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15
Q

Give 2 tumour suppressor genes

A

P53 and pRb.

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16
Q

What structure inhibits P53 from taking action?

A

MDM2.

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17
Q

What is alkylation?

A

Adding a methyl group. MDMT works to reverse alkylation by removing methyl group.

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18
Q

What do DNA endonucleases do?

A

Break and open up the double DNA strand.

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19
Q

What do BER and NER stand for?

A

Base excision repair
Nucleotide excision repair

(Phosphodiester bond is only broken in NER).

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20
Q

Which are the 3 most common types of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

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21
Q

What type of bacteria is Listeria?

A

Gram positive bacteria

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22
Q

Which filaments do actin form?

A

The microfilaments (not microtubules).

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23
Q

What are the two forms of actin?

A

G (globular) and F (filamentous)

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24
Q

Which is the form of energy once globular actin becomes filamentous at the positive end?

A

ATP - exchanged to ADP at negative end

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25
Q

Name the complex required in nucleation from G to F actin

A

ARP2/3

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26
Q

Name the protein necessary for motility in Listeria bacteria

A

ActA

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27
Q

Which protein is responsible for removing proteins?

A

Cofilin (required for rapid removal to ultimately allow rapid addition of proteins in nucleation).

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28
Q

What does profilin do?

A

Enhances the rate of replacing ADP with ATP and encouraging polymerisation.

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29
Q

Name the 3 components of the cytoskeleton

A

Microfilament
Microtubule
Intermediate filaments

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30
Q

Name the required components for PCR

A

Forward and backward direction Primers
dNTPs
Taq polymerase (enzymes which withstands heat during denaturing).

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31
Q

What is the purpose of PCR?

A

To amplify DNA (by elongation adding dNTPs)

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32
Q

In a 4th cycle of PCR, how many chromosome copies will we make?

A

16 double stranded copies (32 chromosomes)

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33
Q

What do we use to separate PCR products and analyse the chromosomes?

A

Electrophoresis on agarose gel (agar gel!)

34
Q

What is the temperature required for (a) denaturation (b) extension and (c) cooling

A

(a) 95 degrees celcius
(b) 72 degrees
(c) 10 degrees

35
Q

What is the purpose of ‘loading dye’ in electrophoresis?

A

Assesses the speed of DNA as it moves from negative to positive electrode; DNA is negative.

36
Q

Do smaller or bigger DNA fragments move faster in electrophoresis?

A

Smaller

37
Q

Give x2 limitations of PCR

A

Non-specific primers may bind to similar DNA sequences. This means that prior info is needed to make the correct target primers. Can only use with KNOWN pathogens
- Highly sensitive so any contamination alters results

38
Q

How would we know that an individual is infected with mycobacterium Tub. in our PCR reaction?

A

More base pairs (300bp) in the PCR product

39
Q

How can white blood cells be divided?

A

Into polymorphonuclear (granulocytes) and mononuclear cells.

40
Q

Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils are all classed as which white blood cell type?

A

Granulocytes

41
Q

Which are the mononuclear cells?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

42
Q

Describe the nucleocytoplasmic ratio in lymphocytes.

A

high

43
Q

What is the characteristic shape of eosinophils?

A

Bilobed.

44
Q

How will anaemia appear on a blood film?

A

Red blood cells far apart on film.

45
Q

What is the term for many red blood cells?

A

Polycythaemia.

46
Q

What is hypochromia?

A

Increased central pallor.

47
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

Variation in size of red blood cells.

48
Q

What is anisochromasia?

A

Variation in haemoglobin concentration.

49
Q

What may cause hyperchromia?

A

Spherocytosis

50
Q

What are spherocytes?

A

Cells which lack central pallor.

51
Q

When may elliptocytes be seen?

A

Anaemia

52
Q

Where may you see teardrop poikilocytes?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia or myelofibrosis.

53
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

Fragments of erythrocytes - small, v. irregualrly shaped cells

54
Q

When may increased staining of a blood film be seen?

A

Increased Ig concentration, myeloma,

55
Q

How can we reduce agglutination?

A

Warm blood film

56
Q

What are acanthocytes?

A

Small, dark cells with irregularly placed spicules.

57
Q

Which ‘body’ cell would you see in a hyposplenic patient with megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

58
Q

What is typical on a blood film for multiple myeloma?

A

Rouleaux formation

59
Q

an Auer rod is characteristic for which disease on blood film?

A

AML - acute myeloid leukaemia.

60
Q

Which cell could indicate whether a blood film belongs to a male or female?

A

The neutrophil; drumstick coming off lobe indicates inactivated X chromosome.

61
Q

What are the really small cells on blood film?

A

Platelets

62
Q

How would you describe the appearance of basophils?

A

Granules overlaying the nucleus

63
Q

What is the name for change in size of red blood cells?

A

Anisocytosis

64
Q

Name x3 types of anaemia.

A

Iron deficient anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, sickle cell anaemia.

65
Q

What is megaloblastic anaemia?

A

B12 deficiency.

66
Q

What is characteristic on the blood film of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils.

67
Q

Which cells are normal in iron deficient anaemia?

A

WBCs and platelets

68
Q

Which marker measures the intrinsic coagulation pathway?

A

APTT

69
Q

Which marker measures the extrinsic coagulation pathway?

A

PT

70
Q

What does APTT stand for?

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin time

71
Q

A defect in F8

A

Haemophilia A

72
Q

Which are the two main components of the extrinsic pathway?

A

Tissue Factor and F7 (FVII)

73
Q

Which marker measures the common coagulation pathway?

A

Thrombin time (TT).

74
Q

Haemophilia affects which part of the coagulation pathway? Which is therefore the best marker?

A

The intrinsic pathway; affects F8/F9. Prolonged APTT.

75
Q

What are the clinical symptoms in F12 deficiency?

A

No clinical symptoms.

76
Q

With pale stool and dark urine, what is a potential diagnosis?

A

Gallstones

77
Q

Which are the vitamin K dependent coagulant factors?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

78
Q

Why would obstructive jaundice cause vitamin K deficiency?

A

Lack of bile acid production = cannot emulsify Vit K = Vit K not absorbed. (not that it isn’t made, but isn’t absorbed).

79
Q

O- has what antigens?

A

No antigens = universal donor

80
Q

AB+ is a….

A

universal recipient

Y2 - my own (7 decks)

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