Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

cells in the olfactory bulb with no axons, hence forming dendodendritic synapses

A

Granule cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The olfactory tract splits into lateral, medial and intermediate olfactory striae in this area?

A

Anterior perforated substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Olfactory striae which projects to the piriform and entorhinal cortex and to the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus for the conscious analysis of odor

A

Lateral olfactory striae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Olfactory striae which projects to the septal area mediating the autonomic and emotional response of odors

A

Medial olfactory striae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Olfactory striae that projects to the anterior perforated substance

A

Intermediate olfactory striae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is a white matter tract connecting all three olfactory areas?

A

Diagonal band of Broca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does the olfactory information causes salivation in response to odors?

A

The stria terminalis travel to the hypothalamus then to the superior and inferior salivary nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Unilateral anosmia suggests an olfactory lesion in what area?

A

proximal to the piriform cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Condition associated with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia due to agenesis of olfactory bulbs

A

Kallmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vitamin Deficiency which may cause perversion of smell or parosmia

A

Zinc, Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The cones are tightly packed in the macula which is located at?

A

posterior pole 4mm lateral to the optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long is the optic nerve?

A

50mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Longest portion of the optic nerve

A

intraorbital (25mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

supplies the optic nerve

A

proximal part supplied by the small branches of ophthalmic artery, distal part supplied by the small branches of the ICA and ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

condition causing slow macular degeneration especially of the central cones

A

Stargardt disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa with congenital hearing loss

A

Usher syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which nerve passes through the narrow slit in the cribriform plate alongside the crista galli?

A

Anterior ethmoidal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The body of the sphenoid contains the sphenoid air sinuses which are lined by mucus membrane and communicate with the nasal cavity. What is the purpose of the sphenoid air sinuses?

A

Voice resonators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The superior orbital fissure transmits the following nerves:

A

Lacrimal, frontal, trochlear, oculomotor, nasociliary, abducent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This transmits the middle meningeal artery from the infra temporal fossa into the cranial cavity?

A

Foramen spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: the decussation of the lemnisci passes through a short distance above the level of the decussation of the pyramids

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: The nucleus of the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve lies lateral to the internal arcuate fibers

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: The anterior spinothalamic tract occupy an area lateral to the decussation of the lemnisci

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: The lateral and anterior spinothalamic tract and the spinotectal tracts are very close to one another and collectively are known as spinal lemniscus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nerves that can be seen running forward and laterally through the reticular formation

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus, cranial part of the accessory nerve, hypoglossal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: There is a shallow groove in the midline of the pons called the basilar groove which lodges the basilar artery.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F: The posterior surface is divided into symmetrical halves by a median sulcus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F: Lateral to the median sulcus is an elongated elevation, the medial eminence bounded laterally by sulcus limitans.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F: The floor of the superior part of the sulcus laminates is bluish-bray in color.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F: The medial lemniscus rotates as it passes from the medulla into the pons.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F: The basilar part of the pons contains small masses of nerve cells in which the corticopontine fibers of the crus cerebri of the midbrain terminates.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: The pontine nuclei give rise to the transverse fibers which forms the main pathway linking the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This structure connects the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate body.

A

inferior brachium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: The red nucleus is a rounded mass of gray matter situated between the cerebral aqueduct and the substantia nigra.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

This neoplasm occurring usually during childhood is the most common tumor of the brainstem.

A

Astrocytoma of the pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F: The fibers of the optic nerve are the axons of the cells in the ganglionic layer of the retina

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: The main oculomotor nucleus lies at the level of the superior colliculus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F: The trochlear nucleus receives corticonuclear fibers from both cerebral hemispheres.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The cells of the motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve supplies which muscles?

A

Muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: V1 and V2 only contains sensory fibers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F: The facial nerve has three nuclei: the main motor nucleus, the parasympathetic nucleus and the sensory nucleus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F: The sensory nucleus of the facial nerve receives taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the floor of the mouth and the palate.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F: Each lateral lemniscus consists of third order neurons from both sides.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F: The afferent impulses from the carotid sinus travel with the glossopharyngeal nerve and terminate in the nucleus of the tracts solitarius.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F: Both the left and right vagus nerve contribute to the pulmonary and esophageal plexus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F: The hypoglossal nucleus receives corticonuclear fibers from both cerebral hemispheres but the cells responsible for supplying the genioglossus muscle has only contralateral innervation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This is the smallest cranial nerve only consisting of 2400 axons and the only cranial nerve in which all axons decussate.

A

Trochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Condition of intermittent vertical diplopia and oscillopsia caused by spontaneous firing of trochlear motor units.

A

Superior oblique myokymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Largest branch of the mandibular nerve

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An onion-skin pattern of sensory loss over the lateral forehead, cheek and jaw can be localized in what region?

A

Lower medullary or upper cervical spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Characterised by unilateral oculosympathetic paresis and ipsilateral trigeminal involvement

A

Raeder paratrigeminal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bilateral enhancing cerebellopontine angle tumors are pathognomonic

A

Neurofibromatosis-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fungal organisms found in fungal meningitis which are associated with rapid clinical deterioration

A

Aspergillus and Mucor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma which is the most common and associated with EBV.

A

WHO-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A genetic disorder caused by absence of underdevelopment of CN VI and VII characterised by horizontal gaze palsy and facial diplegia

A

Mobius syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Congenital unilateral horizontal abduction deficit due to absence of the abducens nerve on one side.

A

Duane retraction syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the usual location of chordoma?

A

sacrum (50%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

It is the most common pathologic entity of the petrous apex

A

Cholesterol granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This is a horizontal bony strut separating the superior and inferior halves of the fundus of the internal auditory canal

A

Crista falciformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A surgical landmark separating CNVII from the superior vestibular nerve

A

Bill’s bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Branches arising from the mastoid segment of the facial nerve

A

Nerve to the stapedius muscle, chords tympani nerve and sensory auricular branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

It is the only vestibular nuclei which projects to the ipsilateral MLF

A

superior vestibular nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

this is characterized by the classic clinical triad of bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, ataxia and myelopathy.

A

superficial siderosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

intracranially, this is the most common site of schwanommas

A

superior vestibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

a 49-year old female presents with dysphagia and sharp right parotid pain. Parasagittal CT image shows elongated styloid process arising from the mastoid bone. What is the possible diagnosis?

A

Eagle syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the recurrent laryngeal nerve supply all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except _______?

A

cricothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This is the most common site of skull base dural AVFs?

A

transverse sinus (followed by cavernous sinus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Origin of the first-order neuron of Horner’s syndrome

A

Posterior Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T/F: There is no pharmacologic test to differentiate a first-order or second-order lesion in Horner’s syndrome

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The patient has a complete left oculomotor nerve palsy with intact pupillary function. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Diabetic Oculomotor Nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

characterized by impaired adduction of the affected side and nystagmus of the abducting contralateral eye

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

syndrome characterized by a lesion to both the ipsilateral PPRF and MLF

A

One-and-a-half syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T/F: Retrochiasmal lesions do not cause a pure relative afferent pupillary defect

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

It is considered to be the most common optic nerve disorder in patients older than 50yo.

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

T/F: The hypoglossal nerve provides innervation to all intrinsic tongue muscles and three of the four extrinsic tongue muscles (genioglossus, styloglossus and hypoglossus)

A

True

palatoglossus is innervated by the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

T/F: Each SCM is innervated by the ipsilateral motor cortex whereas each trapezius is innervated by the contralateral motor cortex.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Responsible for the tactile sensation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue

A

Trigeminal nerve

taste-facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Parasympathetic source to head and neck

A

Superior salivatory nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

This provides innervation to the parotid gland by the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Inferior salivatory nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where is the nuclei for baroreceptor reflex located?

A

Caudal nucleus solitarius

taste sensation-rostral nucleus solitarius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

T/F: Crossed aphasia is very rare occurring in only 1% of cases.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Hallmark of conduction aphasia

A

The patient is unable to repeat what is said to him despite relatively adequate comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Localisation of repetition

A

Perisylvian area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A patient with non-fluent Broca’s aphasia with no difficulty in repetition has this condition

A

Transcortical motor aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The patient is wordless but the inner speech and writing is undisturbed.

A

Aphemia (pure word mutism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The inferior surface of the hypothalamus bulging downward from the floor of the 4th ventricle

A

Tuber cinereum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Main blood supply to the posterior pituitary

A

Inferior hypophyseal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

T/F: More than half of the thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is found outside the hypothalamus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A basic peptide that is synthesized in the liver exerting feedback control of GH by inhibiting the pituitary somatotropes and stimulating the release of somatostatin.

A

Somatomedin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Part of the hypothalamus that is reportedly smaller in the homosexual male

A

Interstitial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The hypothalamus is involved in approximately how many percent of patients with sarcoidosis?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

This is a state of polyuria with dilute urine and polydipsia that results in the loss of action of ADH

A

Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Satiety center of the hypothalamus

A

Ventromedial nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Appetite center of the hypothalamus

A

Ventrolateral nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Weight of the brain when suspended in CSF.

A

50g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Main cation of the CSF

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

T/F: the pressure in the CSF compartment is highest in the ventricles and diminishes successively along the subarachnoid pathways.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The arachnoid villi is most numerous in this region

A

Both sides of the superior sagittal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The change in ICP for a given change in intracranial volume

A

Intracranial elastance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The normal curve begins its steep ascent at what ICP level?

A

25 mmHg

101
Q

Therapeutic target when monitoring the ICP

A

Below 15-20 mmHg

102
Q

Ventricular enlargement because of failure of development of the brain

A

Colpocephaly

103
Q

T/F: The ventricle closest to the obstruction enlarges the most.

A

True

104
Q

Characterized by retracted upper eyelids, eyes turned down and paralysis of upward gaze.

A

Setting-sun sign

105
Q

CSF pressure in NPH

A

150-200 mmH2O

106
Q

T/F: the gait derangement of NPH is fairly obvious by the time memory function is substantially impaired.

A

True

107
Q

Most common form of pseudotumor cerebri

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

108
Q

T/F: In pseudotumor cerebri, central acuity is spared initially.

A

True

109
Q

The most dependable treatment in intracranial hypotension

A

Blood patch

110
Q

Consequence of repeated contamination of the meninges by blood

A

Superficial siderosis of the meninges

111
Q

Phylogenetically the oldest area of the cerebral cortex

A

Hippocampus

112
Q

Part of the Broca’s area responsible for the production of spoken words

A

Pars opercularis

113
Q

First branch of the ICA as it enters the brain

A

Ophthalmic artery

114
Q

Most common type of neuron in the nervous system

A

Multipolar cells

115
Q

Astrocyte regulate this electrolyte concentration

A

Potassium

116
Q

The only paired circumventricular organ

A

Area postrema

117
Q

Cation with the greatest amount in the CSF

A

Sodium

118
Q

Major energy substrate of the brain

A

Glucose

119
Q

Rate of production of the CSF

A

0.35 ml/min (about 500 ml/day)

120
Q

T/F: In the absence of exposure to neurotrophins, p75 receptor activation promotes neuronal death.

A

True

121
Q

Motor protein involved in fast axonal transport

A

Kinesin (dynein in slow axonal transport)

122
Q

Most superficial retinal layer

A

Ganglion cell layer

123
Q

Rate limiting step in the synthesis of acetylcholine

A

Uptake of choline

124
Q

Neurotransmitter that does not depend primarily on reuptake for inactivation

A

Acetylcholine

125
Q

Refers to the belief that the strangers are identified by the patient as familiar

A

Fregoli syndrome

126
Q

Part of the inferior frontal gyrus which are referred to as the Broca’s speech area

A

Pars triangularis and pars opercularis

127
Q

It represents a cortical association area where multisensory signals form the adjacent parietal, temporal and occipital regions converge

A

Inferior parietal lobule

128
Q

Surface opening leading to the insular region

A

Limen insula

129
Q

Portion of the parietal lobe caudal to the paracentral lobule and rostral to the parieto-occipital sulcus

A

Precuneus

130
Q

Main output center of amygdala

A

Central nuclear group

131
Q

Border of the Guillain-Mollaret triangle (myoclonic triangle)

A

Red nucleus, inferior olivary nucleus and contralateral dentate nucleus

132
Q

Syndrome of sustained muscle contractions producing abnorml postures or repetitive movements involving different distributions.

A

Dystonia

133
Q

Refers to the reflexive upturning of eyes upon forced closure of the eyelids

A

Bell phenomenon

134
Q

T/F: the bell phenomenon and the ability to converge are lost eventually in PSP.

A

True

135
Q

Presents with the applause sign

A

PSP

136
Q

T/F: each climbing fiber may contact up to 10 Purkinje cells but each Purkinje cell has contact with only one climbing fiber.

A

True

137
Q

Deepest of all cerebellar fissures

A

Primary fissure

138
Q

It is a result of powerful contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles followed immediately laryngeal closure

A

Hiccup

139
Q

Anatomical interface between the brain and the anterior pituitary

A

Median eminence

140
Q

Provide a structural and functional link between the CSF and the perivscular space of the pituitary portal vessels

A

Tanycytes

141
Q

It lies between the primary and posterolateral fissures of the cerebellum

A

Posterior lobe (neocerebellum)

142
Q

Deepest of all cerebellar fissures

A

Primary fissure

143
Q

Cerebellar layer which contains basket and stellate cells

A

Molecular layer

144
Q

T/F: A cerebellar glomerulus is a synaptic cluster in which two types of presynaptic fibers enter into a complex relationship with one postsynaptic element.

A

True

145
Q

Cerebellar nucleus which has the most extensive thalamic projections.

A

Dentate nucleus

146
Q

T/F: The medial surfaces of thalami on each side of the third ventricle are partially fused in about 80% of human brains.

A

True

147
Q

Medial+Lateral geniculate bodies are called

A

Metathalamus

148
Q

Chief integrating and tuning mechanism of the neuraxis

A

Thalamus

149
Q

A small, relatively clear area dorsal and rostral to the subthalamic nucleus

A

Zona incerta

150
Q

Two hormones responsible for synthesizing melatonin from serotonin

A

N-acetyltransferase and hydroxyindole-o-methyltransferase

151
Q

This large nuclear mass overhangs the geniculate bodies and dorsolateral surface of the midbrain.

A

Pulvinar

152
Q

Larger subdivision of the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

A

Pars oralis

153
Q

Largest primary somatic sensory relay nucleus of the thalamus and is referred as the ventrobasal complex

A

Ventral posterior nucleus

154
Q

A thin neuronal shell which surrounds the lateral, superior and rostroinferior aspects of the dorsal thalamus

A

Thalamic reticular nucleus

155
Q

Best documented thalamic neurotransmitter

A

GABA

156
Q

Synaptic base of a rod cell

A

Spherule

157
Q

Synaptic base of a cone cell

A

Pedicle

158
Q

Chief subcortical center for the regulation of both sympathetic and parasympathetic activities.

A

Hypothalamus

159
Q

T/F: The anterior thalamus is sensitive to increases in blood temperature while the posterior hypothalamus is sensitive to conditions of decreasing body temperature.

A

True

160
Q

Band of white fibers which constitutes the main efferent fiber system of the hippocampal formation

A

Fornix

161
Q

T/F: the hippocampus has an exceedingly low threshold for seizure activity

A

True

162
Q

Generally accepted as the most widely distributed excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS

A

Glutamate and Aspartate

163
Q

Segment of the ICA with no branches arising from it

A

Cervical, clinoid

164
Q

Large anterior radicular artery at level T12-L2

A

Artery of Adamkiewicz

165
Q

CNS structures most sensitive to anoxia

A

Cerebellar purkinje cells, dentate nucleus, globus pallidus, hippocampus (CA1 pyramidal cells), cerebral cortex layers III and V

166
Q

Infarction in the midbrain tectum

A

Nothnagel’s syndrome

167
Q

T/F: Thrombosis of the vein of Labbe causes infarction of the underlying superior temporal lobe and occlusion of the vein of Trolard implicates the parietal cortex

A

True

168
Q

The greatly thickened band of Bailarger in Layer IV of the calcarine cortex

A

Line of Gennari

169
Q

Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release this neurotransmitter

A

Norepinephrine

170
Q

T/F: The brain are relatively richer in muscarinic sites while the spinal cord has a preponderance of nicotinic sites.

A

True

171
Q

T/F: Unlike AMPA and Kainate receptors, all NMDA receptors are highly permeable to Ca2+ as well as to Na+ and K+.

A

True

172
Q

Neurons which exclusively produce histamine in the CNS

A

Neurons in the tuberomammilary nucleus

173
Q

Fine, pial remnant thread extending from end of conus medullaris to the end of the dural sac

A

Filum terminale

174
Q

Separates the dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal cord

A

Denticulate ligaments

175
Q

T/F: Pain is common in Cauda equina syndrome.

A

True

176
Q

Only excitatory cells in the cerebellum

A

Granule cells

177
Q

Part of the motor cortex which codes for the force of movement

A

Primary motor cortex

178
Q

T/F: Tic Douloreux rarely involves the ophthalmic division of the fifth cranial nerve.

A

True

179
Q

Arises from C5 nerve root and supplies the major and minor rhomboid muscles

A

Dorsal scapular nerve

180
Q

Arises from C5-C7 roots and supplies the serratus anterior muscle

A

Long thoracic nerve

181
Q

Foramen where the median nerve travels inside created by a tendinous band that runs between the humerus and the medial epicondyle

A

Ligament of Struthers

182
Q

Induced by tapping over median nerve at the wrist

A

Tinel’s sign

183
Q

Spinal root with no sensory component

A

C1

184
Q

T/F: The sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal cord via the ventral roots.

A

True

185
Q

T/F: All sympathetic postganglionic neurons are adrenergic and release norepinephrine except those innervating the sweat glands and a few vasodilator neurons.

A

True

186
Q

Associated with emotional and motivational aspects of sexual arousal

A

Orbitofrontal cortex

187
Q

“Slow twitch” muscle fibers with less predisposition to muscle fatigue with repeated activation

A

Type 1 fibers

188
Q

Transverse hollow tubular structures formed by invagination of sarcolemma

A

T tubules

189
Q

Largest cell in the CNS

A

Motor neurons

190
Q

Smallest cell in the CNS

A

Granular neurons

191
Q

Structural protein that maintains the shape and supports the mechanical strength of astrocytes

A

Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

192
Q

Swollen astrocytes in hepatic encephalopathy

A

Alzheimer Type II astrocytes

193
Q

The most abundant water channel in the CNS

A

Aquaporin 4

194
Q

Neurons damaged by hypoxia or trauma discharge

A

Glutamate

195
Q

Specialized ependymal cells of the third ventricle with basal processes extending between astrocytic processes to form an endfoot on blood vessels

A

Tanycytes

196
Q

T/F: 55% of the corticospinal tract terminates in the cervical cord.

A

True

197
Q

Brodmann area adjacent to the primary somatosensory tongue representation and the insular cortex motor areas for salivation and gastrointestinal motility

A

Brodmann area 43

198
Q

Neurotransmitter synthesized from glutamate by glutamic acid dehydrogenase (GAD)

A

GABA

199
Q

T/F: D1 receptors may be important in mediating dystonia while D2 receptors may contribute to chorea.

A

True

200
Q

Membranous organelles move toward terminals and back toward the cell body by what transport

A

Fast axonal transport

201
Q

Caused by lesions that produce complete vision loss, typically affecting the bilateral medial occipital lobe

A

Anton syndrome

202
Q

Caused by bilateral lesions of the lateral occipitoparietal cortex typically after watershed infarction presenting as simultanagnosia and ocular apraxia

A

Balint syndrome

203
Q

A lesion on the visual radiation between the left lateral geniculatr body and the lingual gyrus will produce this type of visual defect

A

Right upper quadrantanopsia

204
Q

A lesion on the visual radiation between the left lateral geniculate body and the cuneus will produce this type of visual defect

A

Right lower quadrantanopsia

205
Q

Segment at the junction of pedicle and lamina

A

Pars interarticularis

206
Q

Amaurosis fugax usually arises because of disease in what artery

A

Internal carotid artery

207
Q

Association fibers which has connection to all major lobes of the cerebrum

A

Superior longitudinal fasciculus

208
Q

Decerebrate rigidity can be abolished by transection of what tract?

A

Vestibulospinal tract

209
Q

The hippocampus of the temporal lobe can make connection with the mamillary bodies via this structure

A

Fornix

210
Q

The confluence of the sinuses in the brain

A

Torcula heterophile

211
Q

Primary neurotransmitter of post ganglionic sympathetic neurons for the sweat gland

A

Acetylcholine

212
Q

Eye position information reaches the abducens nucleus from neuronal integrator neurons coming from the

A

Nucleus prepositus hypoglossi (afferents coming from the flocculus)

213
Q

The gaze-holding neural integrator for vertical gaze is located in the

A

Interstitial nucleus of Cajal

214
Q

Represent the most massive collection of precerebellar nuclei and constitute the most important relay in the conduction of impulses from the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum

A

Pontine nuclei

215
Q

Appears to be the only part of the cerebellum that does not receive a pontine projection

A

Nodulus

216
Q

The only cerebellar afferent of the superior cerebellar peduncle

A

Ventral spinocerebellar tract

217
Q

Neurotransmitter of the climbing fibers

A

Glutamate

218
Q

The only efferent fibers from the cerebellar cortex come from

A

Axon of the purkinje cells

219
Q

Most common location of neurogenic gastrointestinal ulceration after an acute hypothalamic lesion

A

Lower esophagus

220
Q

Constitute the largest component of the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

Crossed olivocerebellar fibers

221
Q

The portion of the parietal lobe caudal to the paracentral lobule and rostral to the parieto-occipital sulcus

A

Precuneus

222
Q

This cistern is of importance because it contains the great vein of Galen

A

Cisterna ambiens

223
Q

The primitive neuroectodermal cells are generally found in what layer?

A

Subependymal matrix

224
Q

T/F: the dorsal zona compacta contains melanin pigment while the ventral zona reticulata contains iron compounds

A

True

225
Q

Region of the brain considered to have the lowest seizure threshold

A

Hippocampus

226
Q

T/F: Area 17 is a typical homotypical cortex but is unique in that its fourth receptive layer is divided into two granular cell laminae by a greatly thickened band of myelinated fibers.

A

True

227
Q

Remnant of the anterior neuropore in the adult brain

A

Lamina terminalis

228
Q

Remnant of the notochord in the adult

A

Nucleus pulposus

229
Q

The two thalami are connected across the midline (massa intermedia) in how many percent of individuals?

A

80%

230
Q

T/F: The corpus striatum consists of the putamen, the caudate nucleus and the globus pallidus

A

True

231
Q

Efferent impulses from the basal nuclei will have to exit via

A

Globus pallidus interna and substantia nigra pars reticulata

232
Q

Cranial nerves represented by the facial colliculus

A

CN VI and VII

233
Q

Arterial supply of the choroid plexus of the fourth ventricle

A

PICA

234
Q

Arterial supply of the deep cerebellar nuclei

A

SCA

235
Q

T/F: The venous drainage from the portal system of the hypothalamus is to the petrosal sinus where hormone levels can be sampled.

A

True

236
Q

Inhibits the effect of Oxytocin

A

Alcohol

237
Q

This structure caps the Sylvian fissure

A

Supramarginal gyrus

238
Q

The venous couterpart of the posterior cerebral arteries that loop around the midbrain

A

Basal vein of Rosenthal

239
Q

It is the most frequently injured cranial nerve

A

CN VI

240
Q

T/F: Projections originating from the nucleus gracilis are located ventrally in the medial lemniscus and those from the nucleus cuneatus are dorsal.

A

True

241
Q

Serves as a precursor of melatonin in the pineal gland

A

Serotonin

242
Q

Brainstem control for somatic motor and cognitive behavior

A

Pedunculopontine nucleus

243
Q

T/F: Visceral motor and sensory components of the facial nerve do not make a loop around the abducens nucleus

A

True

244
Q

Monoamine originating from the tuberomamillary nucleus

A

Histamine

245
Q

The circle of Willis is complete in how many percent of the population?

A

20%

246
Q

Comprises the most massive striatal afferents

A

Corticostriate projection

247
Q

Extracerebellar target from all deep cerebellar nuclei

A

Hypothalamus

248
Q

It is the axonless neuron of the retina

A

Amacrine cells