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Pathology 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

0
Q 
Which of the following causes ascending paralysis and may be associated with a Campylobacter jejuni infection? (p. 798-789)
A.  Diabetic neuropathy 
B.  Myasthenia gravis 
C.  Guillain–Barré syndrome 
D.  Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease
A

C. Guillain-Barré syndrome

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1
Q

A polyneuropathy is most likely to have a __________ distribution. (p. 798)
A. Unilateral
B. Symmetric

A

B. Symmetric

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2
Q

Diabetic neuropathy primarily affects the most distal _______ axons and causes paresthesias. (p. 799)
A. Sensory
B. Motor

A

A. Sensory

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3
Q 
Myasthenia gravis results from disruption of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ receptors. (p. 800)
A.  Presynaptic acetylcholine 
B.  Postsynaptic acetylcholine 
C.  Presynaptic calcium 
D.  Postsynaptic calcium
A

B. Postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors

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4
Q 
The clinical features of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ involve ptosis and diplopia? (p. 800)
A.  Duchenne muscular dystrophy 
B.  Myasthenia gravis 
C.  Guillain–Barré syndrome 
D.  Becker muscular dystrophy
A

B. Myasthenia Gravis

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5
Q 
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is caused by autoantibodies that inhibit \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and causes myasthenia of the legs and arms. (p. 801)
A.  Presynaptic calcium channels 
B.  Postsynaptic calcium channels 
C.  Presynaptic acetylcholine receptors 
D.  Postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
A

A. Presynaptic calcium channels

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6
Q 
Prolonged disuse of an fractured arm, while casted, will primarily affect \_\_\_\_\_\_ muscle fibers. (p. 802)
A.  Type I 
B.  Type II 
C.  Type III 
D.  Type IV
A

B. Type II

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7
Q 
Which dystrophinopathy is most common? (p. 802)
A.  Glucocorticoid dystrophinopathy 
B.  Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C.  Myasthenia gravis 
D.  Becker muscular dystrophy
A

B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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8
Q 
Which of the following conditions is associated with a complete absence of dystrophin? (p. 803)
A.  Duchenne muscular dystrophy 
B.  Becker muscular dystrophy 
C.  Myasthenia gravis 
D.  Guillain–Barré syndrome
A

A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

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9
Q 
Acute renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis secondary to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 806)
A.  Statin medications 
B.  Dystrophin mutations 
C.  Chronic glucocorticoids exposure 
D.  Binge drinking
A

D. Binge drinking

Ethanol myopathy

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10
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are a hallmark for which condition? (p. 806)
A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Neurofibromatosis type 2
D. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors

A

C. Neurofibromatosis type 2

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11
Q 
Which type of neurofibroma is virtually pathognomonic for neurofibromatosis type 1? (p. 807)
A.  Localized cutaneous 
B.  Plexiform 
C.  Diffuse 
D.  Galápagian
A

A. Localized cutaneous

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12
Q

Approximately 50% of all cases of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors develop within individuals with _________. (p. 808)
A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
B. Neurofibromatosis type 2

A

A. Neurofibromatosis type 1

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13
Q 
A reactive proliferation of Schwann cells, which produce a painful nodule, is most likely to be a\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 808)
A.  Schwannoma 
B.  Neurofibroma 
C.  Ethanol myopathy 
D.  Traumatic neuroma
A

D. Traumatic neuroma

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14
Q 
Reversible axonal injury leads to cell body enlargement and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 811)
A.  Pyknosis 
B.  Keratinization  
C.  Karyorrhexis 
D.  Central chromatolysis
A

D. Central chromatolysis

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15
Q

The “red neurons” in the image shown to the right indicate the presence of a(n) ____________________. (p. 811-812)
A. Reversible axonal injury
B. Irreversible axonal injury

A

B. Irreversible axonal injury

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16
Q 
Which cells are primarily responsible for gliosis within the central nervous system? (p. 811-812)
A.  Astrocytes
B.  Ependymal cells
C.  Oligodendrocytes
D.  Nissl cells
A

A. Astrocytes

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17
Q 
Which 3 morphological changes are associated with severe cerebral edema? (p. 812)
A.  Flattening of the gyri 
B.  Hydrocephalus ex vacuo 
C.  Compression of the ventricles 
D.  Narrowing of the sulci
A

A. Flattening of the gyri
C. Compression of the ventricles
D. Narrowing of the sulci

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18
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to develop following severe neurodegeneration? (p. 813)
A.  Communicating hydrocephalus 
B.  Subfalcine (cingulate) herniation 
C.  Hydrocephalus ex vacuo 
D.  Noncommunicating hydrocephalus
A

C. Hydrocephalus ex vacuo

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19
Q

What is the name of the specific cerebral herniation identified via the
black arrow in the picture shown to the right?
A. Tonsillar herniation
B. Transtentorial (uncinate)
C. Subfalcine (cingulate)
D. Arnold-Chiari malformation

A

C. Subfalcine (cingulate)

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20
Q 
Which 2 of the following are mechanisms of cerebrovascular disease? (p. 814)
A.  Thrombotic occlusion of vessels 
B.  Lexy body deposition 
C.  Vasculitis 
D.  Vascular rupture
A

A. Thrombotic occlusion of vessels

D. Vascular rupture

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21
Q 
A “flame-shaped” hemorrhage inside the pons, following a severe transtentorial (uncinate) herniation, is known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 814)
A.  Arnold-Chiari malformation 
B.  Duret hemorrhage 
C.  Neural tube defect 
D.  Syringomyelia (syrinx)
A

B. Duret hemorrhage

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22
Q 
The leukocytes present at the site of a cerebral infarction are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which surround intact vessels. (p. 815, Figure 22-6 A)
A.  Macrophages 
B.  Oligodendrocytes 
C.  Astrocytes 
D.  Leukocytes
A

A. Macrophages

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23
Q

Focal cerebral ischemia is the result of arterial occlusion and is most commonly caused by a(n) ____________. (p. 816)
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism

A

B. Embolism

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24
Q 
The most common cause of non-traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (p. 817)
A.  Chronic hypertension
B.  Rupture of a saccular aneurysm
C.  Motor vehicle accident
D.  Cerebral edema
A

B. Rupture of a saccular aneurysm

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25
Q 
The leading cause of a primary brain parenchymal hemorrhage is  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 817)
A.  Hypertension 
B.  Polyarteritis nodosa  
C.  Neuronophagia 
D.  β-amyloid plaque
A

A. Hypertension

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26
Q 
Which of the following is the most common vascular malformation of the brain? (p. 818)
A.  Cavernous angioma 
B.  Capillary telangiectasia 
C.  Isolated fistula 
D.  Arteriovenous malformation
A

D. Arteriovenous malformation

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27
Q

Health care providers should order a rapid brain MRI for patients who they suspect may have recently developed a concussion. (p. 821)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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28
Q

Epidural hematomas involve the disruption of ___________, while subdural hematomas involve the disruption of ___________. (p. 821)
A. Veins, arteries
B. Arteries, veins

A

B. Arteries, veins

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29
Q 
Spina bifida occulta and myelomeningocele are associated with maternal folate deficiency and are considered to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 822)
A.  Posterior fossa anomalies 
B.  Neural tube defects 
C.  Traumatic vascular injuries 
D.  Perinatal brain injuries
A

B. Neural tube defects

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30
Q 
A fluid-filled cavity located within the spinal cord is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 823)
A.  Syringomyelia (syrinx) 
B.  Hydromyelia 
C.  Arnold-Chiari malformation 
D.  Anencephaly
A

A. Syringomyelia (syrinx)

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31
Q 
Which of the following is the most common mechanism for a central nervous system infection? (p. 824)
A.  Direct implantation 
B.  Local extension 
C.  Hematogenous spread 
D.  Retrograde extension via the PNS
A

C. Hematogenous spread

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32
Q 
Which form of meningitis demonstrates extremely high neutrophil counts on a CSF examination? (p. 825)
A.  Aseptic meningitis 
B.  Acute pyogenic meningitis 
C.  Tuberculous meningitis 
D.  Spirochetal meningitis
A

B. Acute pyogenic meningitis

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33
Q 
Which 2 of the following microbes may cause spirochetal infections of the CNS? (p. 826)
A.  Staphylococcus aureus 
B.  Human immunodeficiency virus 
C.  Treponema pallidum 
D.  Borrelia burgdorferi
A

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Borrelia burgdorferi

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34
Q 
Relapsing and remitting episodes of neurologic impairments are characteristically associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 833)
A.  Huntington disease 
B.  Parkinson disease 
C.  Multiple sclerosis 
D.  Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A

C. Multiple sclerosis

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35
Q

Your (future) 31-year-old female patient reports a rapid onset of: pain near her right suboccipital region, unilateral visual impairment, and 2 episodes of urinary incontinence in the past 48 hours. Which of the follow-up will provide you with the most information regarding her risk for multiple sclerosis? (p. 833)
A. An eye exam for papilledema
B. A 3-view cervical spinal x-rays series
C. Asking about a family history of MS
D. A Tensilon test

A

C. Asking about a family history of MS

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36
Q 
Gastric carcinoma and chronic alcoholism are commonly associated with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ deficiency and may cause confusion, ataxia, and profound memory disturbances. (p. 835)
A.  Vitamin B12 
B.  Thiamine 
C.  Zinc 
D.  Hyperglycemia
A

B. Thiamine

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37
Q 
Large deposits of β-amyloid are most likely to be present in the brains of individuals suffering from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 837)
A.  Vitamin B12 deficiency 
B.  Botulism  
C.  Parkinson disease 
D.  Alzheimer disease
A

D. Alzheimer’s disease

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38
Q 
Motor disturbances that are the result of damaged dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra are most likely to be attributed to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 839)
A.  Alzheimer disease 
B.  Parkinson disease 
C.  Thiamine deficiency 
D.  Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
A

B. Parkinson’s disease

39
Q 
Intracellular Lewy body inclusions indicated the presence of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 839)
A.  Alzheimer disease  
B.  Rabies virus 
C.  Cytomegalovirus 
D.  Parkinson disease
A

D. Parkinson’s disease

40
Q 
Which of the following is a neurodegenerative condition that develops following the inheritance of a CAG trinucleotide repeat expansion, which causes severe cerebral atrophy? (p. 840)
A.  Huntington disease 
B.  Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 
C.  Alzheimer disease 
D.  Oligodendroglioma
A

A. Huntington disease

41
Q 
Which of the following causes upper and lower motor neuron death? (p. 841)
A.  Vitamin B12 deficiency 
B.  Dementia 
C.  Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 
D.  Parkinson disease
A

C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

42
Q 
Which of the following is the most aggressive type of diffuse astrocytoma? (p. 842)
A.  Anaplastic astrocytoma 
B.  Glioblastoma 
C.  Medulloblastoma 
D.  Primary CNS lymphoma
A

B. Glioblastoma

43
Q 
Which tumor of the CNS is most likely to develop along the central canal of the spinal cord? (p. 844)
A.  Well-differentiated astrocytoma 
B.  Anaplastic astrocytoma 
C.  Ependymoma 
D.  Medulloblastoma
A

C. Ependymoma

44
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to develop along the dura and may invade into the overlying bone? (p. 846)
A.  Ependymoma 
B.  Glioblastoma 
C.  Medulloblastoma 
D.  Meningioma
A

D. Meningioma

45
Q 
Which of the following are most likely to metastasize to the CNS? (p. 846)
A.  Carcinomas 
B.  Sarcomas 
C.  Hemo-mo-momas 
D.  Never-mets-to-da-CNS-omas
A

A. Carcinomas

46
Q 
The tunica media is separated from the tunica adventitia by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 327)
A.  Endothelium 
B.  Tunica intima 
C.  Internal elastic lamina 
D.  External elastic lamina
A

D. External elastic lamina

47
Q

Which of the following causes more clinically significant vascular disorders? (p. 327)
A. Arterial lesions
B. Venous lesions

A

A. Arterial lesions

48
Q 
Atherosclerosis is most likely to involve which of the following? (p. 327)
A.  Arterioles 
B.  Large elastic arteries 
C.  Postcapillary venules 
D.  Collecting venules
A

B. Large elastic arteries

49
Q 
Which layer of the vessel wall contains endothelial cells? (p. 327)
A.  Tunica intima 
B.  Tunica media 
C.  Tunica adventitia 
D.  External elastic lamina
A

A. Tunica intima

50
Q 
Which percentage of the general population are hypertensive? (p. 332)
A.  5% 
B.  25% 
C.  55% 
D.  85%
A

B. 25%

51
Q 
Without appropriate treatment, \_\_\_\_\_\_ of hypertensive individuals will die from a stroke?  (p. 332)
A.  1% 
B.  33% 
C.  50% 
D.  99%
A

B. 33%

52
Q 
Which of the following is a standard response following vascular injury? (p. 334)
A.  Medial thickening 
B.  Intimal thickening 
C.  Intimal narrowing 
D.  Adventitial narrowing
A

B. Intimal thickening

53
Q 
Which of the following is not a category of arteriosclerosis? (p. 335)
A.  Arteriolosclerosis 
B.  Mönckenberg medial sclerosis 
C.  Endotheliosclerosis 
D.  Atherosclerosis
A

C. Endotheliosclerosis

54
Q 
Following vascular injury, extracellular matrix and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ accumulate within the tunica intima. (p. 335)
A.  Edema 
B.  Smooth muscle cells 
C.  Transudate 
D.  Skeletal muscle cells
A

B. Smooth muscle cells

55
Q 
Metabolic syndrome is not characterized by the presence of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 338)
A.  Insulin resistance 
B.  Dyslipidemia 
C.  Abdominal aortic aneurysm 
D.  Central obesity
A

B. Dyslipidemia

56
Q

The 2 key features of atheroma development are intimal thickening and lipid accumulation. (p. 340)
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

57
Q 
Virtually everyone older than \_\_\_\_\_\_ years will demonstrate the presence of fatty streaks (p. 340)
A.  15 
B.  30 
C.  45 
D.  60
A

A. 15

58
Q 
Which of the following are not a component of a atherosclerotic plaque? (p. 341)
A.  Smooth muscle cells 
B.  Necrotic debris 
C.  Macrophages 
D.  B cells
A

D. B cells

59
Q 
Which of the following is not considered to be major clinical consequences of atherosclerosis? (p. 342)
A.  Myocardial infarction 
B.  Neovascularization  
C.  Peripheral vascular disease 
D.  Aortic aneurysm
A

B. Neovascularization

60
Q 
Which of the following individuals is at the greatest risk for developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm? (p. 345)
A.  A 22-year-old male 
B.  A 31-year-old female 
C.  A 48-year-old male 
D.  A 62-year-old male
A

D. A 62-year-old male

61
Q 
When blood plays apart the laminar planes of the media to form a blood-filled channel within the aortic wall, it is termed a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 346)
A.  True aneurysm 
B.  False aneurysm 
C.  Saccular aneurysm 
D.  Vascular dissection
A

D. Vascular dissection

62
Q 
An abdominal aortic measuring 5.7 cm in diameter is at a(n) \_\_\_\_\_ risk of rupture each year. (p. 346)
A.  1% 
B.  11% 
C.  33% 
D.  66%
A

B. 11%

63
Q 
The mortality rate for elective AAA surgery is \_\_\_\_, while the rate for emergency surgery is 50%. (p. 346)
A.  5% 
B.  40% 
C.  60% 
D.  95%
A

A. 5%

64
Q 
The 2 most common pathogenic mechanisms of vasculitis are immune-mediated inflammation and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 348)
A.  Physical trauma 
B.  Exposure to toxins 
C.  Irradiation  
D.  Direct vascular infection
A

D. Direct vascular infection

65
Q

Which type of aortic dissection is the most severe and the most common? (p. 348)
A. Type A
B. Type B

A

A. Type A

66
Q 
The abrupt onset of ocular symptoms is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?  (p. 351)
A.  Giant cell arteritis 
B.  Takayasu arteritis 
C.  Polyarteritis nodosa 
D.  Kawasaki disease
A

A. Giant cell arteritis

67
Q 
Fibrinoid necrosis is most likely to be associated with which 2 of the following conditions? (p. 352)
A.  Polyarteritis nodosa 
B.  Abdominal aortic aneurysm 
C.  Giant cell arteritis 
D.  Kawasaki disease
A

A. Polyarteritis nodosa

D. Kawasaki disease

68
Q 
Buerger disease occurs almost exclusively in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 354)
A.  Females 
B.  Obese individuals 
C.  Older adults (>55 years) 
D.  Smokers
A

D. Smokers

69
Q 
Kaposi sarcoma is a lymphatic neoplasm associated with which microbial agent?  (p. 360)
A.  Escherichia coli 
B.  Cytomegalovirus 
C.  Human herpesvirus 
D.  Epstein-Barr Virus
A

C. Human herpes virus

HHV8; defining disease of AIDS patients

70
Q 
The development of hepatic angiosarcomas is commonly associated with exposure to which of the following? (p. 362)
A.  Carbon monoxide 
B.  Halogens  
C.  Lead 
D.  Polyvinyl chloride
A

D. Polyvinyl chloride

71
Q 
Which of the following is a common end point for various cardiac pathologies? (p. 365)
A.  Congestive heart failure 
B.  Myocardial infarction 
C.  Ventral septal defect 
D.  Neurohumoral activation
A

A. Congestive heart failure

72
Q 
Which mechanism is most likely to cause an increase in intraventricular pressure? (p. 365)
A.  Conduction disorder 
B.  Obstruction to flow  
C.  Regurgitant flow 
D.  Rupture of a great vessel
A

B. Obstruction to flow

73
Q 
Increased stroke volume that is produced in response to over stretching cardiac muscle tissue is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 366)
A.  Congenital heart failure 
B.  Neurohumoral activation 
C.  Frank-Starling mechanism 
D.  Purkinje neurofascilitation
A

C. Frank Starling mechanism

74
Q

Systemic hypertension will causes _________ thickening of the left ventricular wall with reduced lumen size. (p. 366-367)
A. Concentric
B. Eccentric

A

A. Concentric

75
Q 
What is the most common cause of left-sided cardiac failure? (p. 367)
A.  Aortic valve stenosis 
B.  Physiologic hypertrophy 
C.  Weight lifting 
D.  Ischemic heart disease
A

D. Ischemic heart disease

76
Q 
Right-sided heart failure resulting from pulmonary hypertension is termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. (p. 368)
A.  Angina pectoris 
B.  Bradycardia 
C.  Cor pulmonale 
D.  Tachycardia
A

C. Cor pulmonale

77
Q 
Congenital heart disease accounts for \_\_\_\_\_\_ of all birth defects. (p. 368)
A.  2% 
B.  30% 
C.  75% 
D.  98%
A

B. 30%

78
Q 
Which of the following is a condition that is most likely to interfere with cardiac embryogenesis? (p. 369)
A.  Pertussis 
B.  Teratogens  
C.  Mumps 
D.  Rubella
A

B. Teratogens

79
Q

Shunting of blood from the __________ is most likely to result in cyanosis. (p. 370)
A. Left-to-right ventricle
B. Right-to-left ventricle

A

B. Right to left ventricle

80
Q

Which pattern of aortic coarctation is most likely to have a patent ductus arteriosus? (p. 373)
A. Infantile (preductal)
B. Adult (postductal)

A

A. Infantile (preductal)

81
Q 
What percentage of all cases of ischemic heart disease are associated with the presence of coronary artery atherosclerosis? (p. 374)
A.  3% 
B.  25% 
C.  75% 
D.  90%
A

D. 90%

82
Q 
Anginal symptoms typically begin when there is obstruction of greater than \_\_\_\_\_ of a coronary artery. (p. 375 & 376)
A.  5% 
B.  20% 
C.  70% 
D.  90%
A

C. 70%

83
Q 
Which 2 of the following are valuable laboratory markers to diagnose a myocardial infarction? (p. 382)
A.  Inflammasome 
B.  Cardiac troponins 
C.  Cardiac-specific lysosomes 
D.  Creatine kinase
A

B. Cardiac troponins

D. Creatine kinase

84
Q

The symptoms associated with myocardial infarction are commonly relieved by nitroglycerin and rest. (p. 382)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

85
Q

Patients experiencing an acute myocardial infarction will commonly demonstrate a rapid and scarcely palpable pulse. (p. 382)
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

86
Q 
Failure of a cardiac valve to open completely is termed \_\_\_\_\_.  (p. 388)
A.  Cor pulmonale 
B.  Insufficiency 
C.  Stenosis 
D.  Thrills
A

C. Stenosis

87
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to cause acute cor pulmonale? (p. 388)
A.  Deep vein thrombosis 
B.  Kawasaki disease 
C.  Mitral valve stenosis 
D.  Pulmonary embolism
A

D. Pulmonary embolism

88
Q

Calcific aortic stenosis commonly causes eccentric cardiac hypertrophy. (p. 390)
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

Concentric left ventricular hypertophy

89
Q

Acute endocarditis involves a _______ heart valve. (p. 393)
A. Previously normal
B. Previously abnormal

A

A. Previously normal

90
Q 
When acute rheumatic fever develops within adults, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the predominant clinical feature. (p. 391)
A.  Arthritis 
B.  Carditis 
C.  Weakness 
D.  Dyspnea
A

B. Carditis

91
Q 
Which of the following is most likely to result following the development of friable mitral valve vegetation? (p. 393)
A.  Deep vein thrombosis 
B.  Pulmonary embolism 
C.  Systemic embolism 
D.  Right ventricular hypertrophy
A

C. Systemic embolism

92
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy commonly involves an increase _________ of up to 3 times. (p. 398)
A. Stroke volume
B. Diameter of the right ventricular wall
C. Weight
D. Diameter of the left ventricular wall

A

C. Weight

93
Q 
What is the fundamental cardiac defect in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy? (p. 398)
A.  Amyloid deposition 
B.  Diastolic dysfunction 
C.  Ineffective contraction 
D.  Arrhythmia
A

C. Ineffective contraction

94
Q 
Which of the following is the most common primary tumor of adult cardiac tissue? (p. 404)
A.  Leiomyoma 
B.  Myxoma 
C.  Angiosarcoma 
D.  Lipoma
A

B. Myxoma

Pathology 2 (4 decks)

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