Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Define liberation

A

Liberation is the first step of absorption.

Liberation is the separation of a drug from its vehicle.

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2
Q

Why does atropine cross the BBB while glycopyrolate does not?

A

Atropine is neutral

Glycopyrolate is + charged and thus can’t cross the BBB

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3
Q

Compare and contrast intrathecal morphine vs. fentanyl

A

Morphine = hydrophilic –> persists in circulation

Fentanyl = hydrophobic –> binds quickly to surrounding fat and protein affecting nearby nerve roots

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4
Q

Compare and contrast the alpha and beta phases of elimination

A

Alpha - distribution phase of a drug from central circulation to the periphery right after a bolus

Beta - elimination, metabolism + excretion

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5
Q

Define volume of distribution of a drug

A

Volume = dose (mg) /concentration (ml)

Volume of distribution exceeds total body volume in fat soluble or highly protein bound drugs

Children have larger volumes d/t larger intravascular and extracellular volumes

Dec protein in elderly, anemia and hypoalbuminemia = lower volume

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6
Q

What is the Law of Mass Action?

And why rocuronium has a quicker onset than equipotent vecuronium?

A

Larger dose = faster onset

= use a greater quantity of a less potent drug

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7
Q

How many half lives of an oral drug to reach steady-state?

A

4-5

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8
Q

Explain 1st order elimination

A

Rate of elimination is proportional to the concentration of the drug. A constant proportion of the drug is eliminated

Exponential decay process:
8-4-2-1

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9
Q

How does an antagonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Shift curve to the right

• Antagonist – block other drugs but cause no activity
 Competitive – physically displace agonist w/o blocking
 Non-competitive – irreversibly bind to receptor

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10
Q

How does a noncompetitive antagonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Shift to right and reduce max efficacy

Non-competitive – irreversibly bind to receptor

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11
Q

How does a partial agonist effect the dose response curve?

A

Sub maximal response

• Partial agonist – partially activate even at [high]

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12
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A

TD50 / ED50

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13
Q

GABA receptor belong to what receptor type?

A

Ligand-gated ion channel

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14
Q

Drug potency is determined by what factors?

A

Affinity to the receptor
And receptor response to drug binding

Higher potency = lower ED50

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15
Q

What type of agonist/antagonist decreases receptor response to a level below baseline response observed?

A

Inverse agonist

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16
Q

What type of ligand effect does buprenorphine exhibit?

A

Partial mu agonist

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17
Q

What type of drug will decrease efficacy of an agonist w/o affecting its potency?

A

Noncompetitive antagonist

18
Q

Explain 0 order elimination

A

Cleared at a constant rate, irrespective of the plasma concentration.

Ex: alcohol

19
Q

Explain context-sensitive half-life

A

Fat soluble drugs accumulate over time –> Half-life increases over time.

A continuous infusion has to be dialed back in long cases to prevent overdoses.

However other drugs like remifentanil don’t.

20
Q

What are the two major plasma proteins that affect drug protein binding?

A
  1. Albumin

2. alpha-1 acid glycoprotein (acute phase reactant)

21
Q

Which plasma protein binds acidic drugs and basic drugs most readily?

A

Acidic = Albumin

Basic = (alpha-1)(narcotics, amines)

22
Q

Would a weak acid or a weak base more readily cross the cell membrane?

A

Weak acid

  • it donates H+ becoming non-ionized and can easily cross
23
Q

What is the pKa of a drug?

A

The pH at which half the drug is in its ionized form and half in its non-ionized form.

  • The lower the pH relative to the pKa, the greater the fraction of drug in the ionized form.
  • Local anesthetics are weak bases, infected tissue is acidic –> LA becoming ionized and unable to penetrate the membrane to exert their action
24
Q

Compare the solubility of high blood: gas coefficient gases to low blood: gas coefficient gases

A

High blood: gas = more soluble = passes easily from air to blood

25
Q

What factors make a molecule transfer across cell membrane more quickly?

A

low degree of ionization
low molecular weight
high lipid solubility
high concentration gradient

26
Q

What causes the initial decline in drug concentration of a lipophilic drug and what is it dependent on?

A

Redistribution
Dependent on cardiac output - high CO tissues = faster equilibrium

CO is based on LEAN body mass

27
Q

What drugs are metabolized by CYP3A4?

A

Tylenol, dexamethasone, lidocaine, midazolam, methadone, fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, little bit of propofol

28
Q

Name inhibitors of CYP3A4

A
grapefruit juice
anti-fungals
protease inhibitors
“mycins”
SSRIs
29
Q

Name inducers of CYP3A4

A
Rifampin
rifabutin
tamoxifen
glucocorticoids
carbamazepine
barbiturates
St. John’s Wort
30
Q

What drugs are metabolized by CYP2B6?

A

Propofol, codeine, oxycodone, hydrocodone

31
Q

What class of drugs inhibits CYP2B6?

A

SSRIs

32
Q

What drugs are metabolized by plasma esterases?

A

Remifentanil, succinylcholine, esmolol

Succinylcholine – pseudocholinsterase or butylcholinesterase can be cleared slowly with genetic defect

33
Q

What drugs are extensively really cleared?

A

Steroidal muscle relaxants

85% pancuroniu
20-30% vecuronium
10-20% rocuronium

34
Q

What is the formula for calculating CrCl?

A

Cockroft-Gault
(140-age) x weight (kg) / 72 x serum Cr (mg%)

Women are this x 85%

Old people with normal Cr STILL have lower clearance

35
Q

What drugs utilize the Ligand-gated type receptor?

A
Propofol
midazolam
thiopental
ketamine
muscle relaxants
36
Q

Define tolerance

A

reduction in the pharmacologic response to a drug following exposure to the drug or a similar drug

Inc amounts to produce same effect

37
Q

What are the types of drug tolerance?

A
  1. Innate - genetic predisposition that renders one less sensitive to a drug = Opioid receptor gene polymorphisms
  2. Acquired - increased metabolism as a result of liver enzyme induction (barbiturate and ketamine), receptor down-regulation (opioids) or desensitization (a reduction in the efficacy of a receptor-bound drug to produce its effect).
38
Q

What are the mechanisms for tolerance?

A
  1. receptor down-regulation
  2. desensitization
  3. enzyme induction
39
Q

What is tissue tolerance?

A

increasing quantities of opioids are required to produce analgesia, euphoria, and respiratory depression, but tolerance to miosis and constipation does not develop

40
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

Acute tolerance

41
Q

What is one mechanism for the development of tachyphylaxis?

A

depletion of neurotransmitter stores

42
Q

Name 5 drugs associated with tolerance and tachyphylaxis besides opioids.

A

ephedrine (depletion of norepinephrine stores)

nitrates (depletion of sulfhydryl groups)

succinylcholine (prolonged ion channel opening)

desmopressin (depletion of both Factor VIII and vWF)

Epidural lidocaine