Neuropathology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A: Describe [Radicular Root Pain]

B: What causes it (2)

C: What, associated with this, causes a [dull & local pain]?

A

A: [LSS Pain-Lightning/Stabbing/Shooting Pain] that situates itself in the dermatomal distribution of a dorsal root

B:

  1. Inflammation of [Dorsal Root]
  2. Extramedullary compression of [Dorsal Root]

C: The extramedullary lesion itself

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2
Q

A: Clinical sensory deficits correlate to the ____[vertebrae / spinal cord] level

B: Which between the two listed above extends down longer?

A

A: Clinical sensory deficits correlate to the Spinal Cord level

B: Vertebral column becomes longer than spinal cord during development

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3
Q

Describe the sensory signs for Spinothalamic Tract lesions (3)

A
  1. Contralateral deficit of pain and temp
  2. [Sacral Sparing during intramedullary lesions] (since sacral fibers are far lateral)
  3. [Deficit is up to dermatomal level in EXTRAmedullary lesions]
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4
Q

A: Clinical Manifestation for [ANT Spinal Artery Occlusion] (3)

B: What types of things cause this?

A

A:

1) Sudden Hyperreflexic spastic paraparesis
2) Loss of Pain/Temp inferior to the lesion
3) Preserved [2TVP-2point/Touch/Vibration/Position]

B:

  • Atherosclerotic aortic Dz
  • Aortic Surgery
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5
Q

A: Describe [SuB ACute Combined Degeneration] (2)

B: What are the causes (3)

A

A: [Demyelinating lesions] in Posterior and Lateral Columns (usually at thoracic level) –>

  • loss of [2TVP- 2point discrimination/Touch/vibration/position] of LE
  • but with…*
  • intact Pain and Temp

B: [SuB ACute Combined Degeneration]

1) B12 Deficiency
2) Copper Deficiency
3) AIDS/HIV

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6
Q

A: Describe [ALS-Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis]

B: Clinical Manifestation (3)

C: Prognosis and Tx

D: Issue with diagnosing ALS

E: Breathing Evaluation (2)

A

A: Progressive Degeneration of [UMN Pyrimidal Betz Cells] AND [LMN ANT Horn cells <–AFFECTED MORE!] –> Spheroid lesions

B:

1) Weakness affecting speech/chewing/breathing and eventually proximal limb atrophy = LMN sign
2) Fasciculations Diffusely = LMN sign
3) [Exaggerated Reflexes + Babinski] = UMN sign

C: Fatal but can give [Riluzole (glutamate blocker)] since glutamate over exites motor neurons

D: UMN signs may be first confused with a cervical spinal cord lesion!

E: many pts fear respiratory failure. Mitigate with:

  • Aggressive = [Tracheostomy Mechanical Ventilation]
  • Supportive= [CPAP vs. BiPAP]
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7
Q

Motor Neuron Disease

A: ALS-Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Pgn

B: Mode of Inheritance

A

A: Progressive Degeneration of [UMN Pyrimidal Betz Cells] AND [LMN ANT Horn cells <–AFFECTED MORE!] –> Spheroid lesions & has the WORST PGN OF ALL MOTOR NEURON DISORDERS (50% Die within 3 years from respiratory failure or profound weakness)

B: [RARELY FAMILIAL (Chromo 21 Superoxide Dismutase Gene mutation) but affects more Males]

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8
Q

Clinical Manifestation of Tabes Dorsalis (4)

A

1st) Lightning pain from [initial dorsal root lesion] (from loss of DRG and dorsal root)
2nd) Loss of [2VP-2point discrimination/vibration/position] from dorsal column degeneration –> [Romberg] + [Stomping Gait] + [Charcot Joints]
3rd) Loss of ALL SENSES (from loss of DRG and dorsal root)
4th) [Areflexia but Preserved Strength]

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9
Q

A: Describe the 3 main sx for [Brown Sequard Syndrome]

B: Causes (3)

A
  1. Contralateral STT Loss of Pain/Temp
  2. Ipsilateral DCP Loss of 2TVP-2point/Touch/Vibration/[Position Proprioreception]
    * 3.* Ipsilateral CST Loss –> Muscle Weakness

B:

[(Extramedullary Tumor] vs. Trauma vs. (Herniated Disc)]

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10
Q

A: Pathophysiology of Myasthenia Gravis

B: When does it onset? Describe the 2 types.

C: What things are preserved in this dz? (2)

D: What is Myasthenic Fatigue

A

A: Autoimmune Dz that blocks and INC degradative turnover of [postsynpatic nicotinic ACh Receptors]]

B: [Generalized (more common) vs. Ocular] and occurs at ANY AGE!

  1. Generalized= P DDD WF

[Ptosis/[Diplopia from Disconjugate gaze]/Dysarthria/Dysphagia/ [Weakness(Respiratory and limbs)/ Fatigue-especially with certain activities] ]

  1. Ocular= [Ptosis/Diplopia] after 2-3 years of dx

C: Sensation and Reflexes

D: Exercise normally DEC ACh release but is compensated by the saftey factor.

During Myasthenia Gravis, this DEC ACh during exercise PLUS the [Loss of EPP-End Plate Potential]–> Loss of muscle depolarization –> Myasthenic Fatigue

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11
Q

A: 3 ways to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis

B: Which test is most specific

A
  1. Elevated [Serum Antibody against (postsynpatic nicotinic ACh Receptors)] = MOST SPECIFIC
  2. Positive [Tensilon Edrophonium] : short acting AChEsterase inhibitor. If after IV injection, pt feels better = they have Myasthenia Gravis
  3. EMG showing evidence of abnormal Neuromuscular junction transmission (i.e. repetitive nerve stimulation)
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12
Q

Myasthenia Gravis Tx (4)

A
  1. AntiCholinesterase drugs –> allows ACh to stick around longer
  2. Thymectomy (remove part of Thymus that contains ACh Receptor-like material)
  3. Immunosuppresants

  • -[Azthioprine vs. Mycophenolate Mofetil]*
  • -Cyclosporine*
  • -Corticosteroids*
    4. [Plasmapheresis vs. IV Immunoglobulin]= Transient but potent fixes
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13
Q

A: Pathophysiology of [Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome]

B: Clinical Manifestation (3)

C: Dx (3)

D: What CA is this syndrome associated with?

A

A: [Autoimmune attack against (Presynpatic Ca+ channel)–> No ACh release]

B:

  • Fatigable weakness of Proximal limbs and trunk that mimic myopathy
  • Improved briefly by exertion
  • Autonomic sx (Dry mouth & Orthostasis)

C: [Nerve Stimulation test vs. EMG vs. Ab Detection]

D: usually associated with SOLC-Small Oat cell Lung Carcinoma

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14
Q

[Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome] tx (3)

A
  1. Tx underlying CA
  2. Drugs to enhance ACh release (Guanidine vs. Diaminopyridine)
  3. Immunosuppresants
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15
Q

A: What is Mononeuropathy

B: Pathophysiology

C: Dx (2)

D: Examples (3)

A

A: Single Major “named” nerve is involved (sensory vs. motor vs. Both)

B: [Trauma or Compression] —> focal demyelination of a nerve and possibly axonal damage if lesion is severe

C: Diagnosed with EMG and nerve testing

D: Ex:

  1. [Carpal Tunnel Median mononeuropathy] = most common!
  2. Ulnar mononeuropathy from leaning on elbow
  3. Peroneal mononeropathy from [lateral knee injury]
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16
Q

A: [Carpal Tunnel Median mononeuropathy] pathophysiology

A2: What do severe cases of this lead to?

B: Tx (3)

A

A: is a compression mononeuropathy that occurs when [inflammed flexor tendons/fluid retention (pregnancy) / swelling] all compress the Median nerve in the carpal tunnel –> Tingling Numbness.

A2: Severe cases = Thenar atrophy–> weakness

B: Tx

  • Anti-Inflammatory
  • Local Rest
  • Surgery vs. Splint
  • MOST COMMON MONONEUROPATHY*
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17
Q

What is Wallerian Degeneration?

A

When the peri and epineurium are preserved after the nerve trauma the axons undergoes Wallerian Degeneration. The perserved scaffolding allows sufficient axonal sprouting and regeneration within the PNS

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18
Q

A: Pathophysiology of [Peripheral Polyneuropathy]

B: Clinical Manifestation of [Peripheral Polyneuropathy] (4)

A

A: [Disorder of multiple, major AND small n.] caused by -axonal degeneration(will DEC EMG amplitude) and -secondary demyelination(will DEC EMG velocity). Both due to inadequate axoplasmic flow–>

B: 1. [early sensory loss of distal limbs (i.e. feet)]–> eventually [motor loss of distal limbs] –> atrophy–> weakness. (longest sensory cells are affected 1st)

  1. [Early loss of muscle stretch reflexes]
  2. Paresthesia= spontaneous tingling
  3. Dysesthesia= Unpleasant sensation from non-noxious stimulus
    * eventually hands are affected as well*
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19
Q

A: Causes of [Peripheral Polyneuropathy] (4)

B: Dx (3)

A
  1. Hereditary
  2. Toxic (Drugs vs. Occupation)
  3. Other Multiple Mononeuropathies or autoimmune pathologies (DM vs. SLE vs. Guillain Barre)
  4. Idiopathic= MOST COMMON

B: EMG vs Blood testing vs. Nerve biopsy

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20
Q

Describe the EMG

A

Needle Electromyography. Electrical activity of muscles within 1 motor unit to be assessed for nerve damage and muscle dz

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21
Q

A: Describe Guillain Barre Syndrome

B: What Pt demographic is mostly affected by this

A

A: Acute Polyneuropathy manifesting as inflammation and demyelination of [peripheral n. and roots] –> [ascending NON-reflexic paralysis (includes respiratory paralysis)] –> [little sensory loss but some paresthesia and eventually reflex loss]

B: Occurs at any age, but 50% of pts have [Viral URI] prior to getting Guillain Barre

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22
Q

Guillain Barre Syndrome

A: Dx (2)

B: Pgn

C: What tx would help accelerate recovery?

A

A: Dx

1) EMG testing that reveals demyelination
2) Elevated CSF Protein and possible WBC

B: Pgn = GOOD!

C: [Plasmapheresis vs. IVIG] may shorten illness

Remember that Guillain Barre is a type of Polyneuropathy

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23
Q

[Chronic Acquired Polyneuropathies]

Causes (8)

A

[Chronic Acquired Polyneuropathies] : takes months-years to actually develop

May Destroy ​NITRIC

  1. Metabolic/Endocrine (Uremia vs. hypOthyroid)
  2. DM
  3. Nutrition (Vitamin B Deficiency)
  4. Infection (Leprosy = MOST COMMON WORLDWIDE)
  5. Toxins (alcoholism vs. lead)
  6. Rheumatological (RA vs. Lupus)
  7. Idiopathic
  8. CA (myeloma)
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24
Q

Hereditary Neuropathies

A: Pathophysiology

B: When does it onset

C: Clinical Manifestation and tx

A

A: known or unknown metabolic vs. genetic disorders –> [Distal sensorimotor deficits with little to no paresthesia/dysesthesia]

B: Childhood

C: Orthopedic Deformities (scoliosis/hammertoes/pes cavus): Give assistive devices, but otherwise NO TX

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25
Q

A: Myopathy Clinical Manifestation (3)

B: Dx (4)

A

A:

1) Proximal Limb (shoulders/hips) weakness and atrophy
2) LATE loss of reflexes after muscular atrophy onsets
3) Intact sensation

B:

  • Family hx of muscualar dystrophy
  • Elevated Creatinine Kinase (muscle enzyme)
  • EMG
  • Muscle Biopsy
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26
Q

A: Polymyositis (Describe and List causes (4))

B: Clinical Manifestation (2)

C: Dx

D: Tx

A

A: A type of myopathy involving multiple muscles and caused by:

1) Autoimmune= MOST COMMON IN USA
2) Viral
3) Drugs
4) CA= rare

B:

  • Proximal weakness over weeks to months
  • Dermatomyositis: Rash around eyes or fingers

C: *[Inflammation-mononuclear inflammatory infiltration]/necrosis on biopsy

D: Corticosteroids

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27
Q

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy

A: pathophysiology

B: Onset

C: Clinical Manifestation (2)

A

A: [X-linked disorder] –> Absence of the [dystrophin muscular structural protein]–> [Cardiac / Respiratory / Proximal Limb Weakness]

B: Boyhood

C:

1) Calf Pseudohypertrophy (from muscle being replaced by fat & connective tissue)
2) Cardiorespiratory Death by Age 30

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28
Q

A: Describe Motor Neuron Disease

B: MOD for sub-type: Spinal Muscular Atrophy

  • Clinical Manifestation
  • Infant type: Name and MOD
  • Teen/Adult type: Pgn
A

A: Degeneration of UMN, LMN, or both –> varying serverity and rate of degeneration

B: [Spinal muscular atrophy] = specifically [ANT Horn Cell degeneration] from [Chromo 5 SMN1 and 2 gene mutations]–> LMN signs of FAW- Weakness/[atrophy & areflexia] /Fasciculations

*Infantile onset = (Werdnig Hoffman) –> [AutoRecessive terminal condition –> Floppy Baby from defuse [Distal muscle atrophy]

*Milder childhood/adult onset types –> [Non-fatal Chronic Disability]

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29
Q

A: Clinical Manifestation of Olfactory Nerve lesion (3)

B: How are these lesions associated with Head Trauma?

A

A:

1) [Sinusitis vs. URI] (most common)
2) Anosmia
3) Orbitofrontal Tumor (rare)

B: Shears nerve branches in Cribiform Plate

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30
Q

A: Describe the difference between Binocular Diplopia and monocular Diplopia

B: Lesion of [CN 3/4/6] produces what type of Diplopia?

A

A:

Binocular= single image appears when 1 eye is covered

vs.

monocular= DOUBLE image appears when 1 eye is covered (comes from Psych dz vs. [ocular pathology i.e. dislocated lens])

B: Binocular Diplopia

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31
Q

A: Clinical Manifestation of Pineal Tumors

B: Mechanism of Dz

C: Other Causes with same manifestation (2)

A

A: Pupil constricts with near reflex but not with light

B: Selective disruption of [light reflex pathway] in [Pretectal Midbrain]

C:

1) Neurosyphilis (Argyll Robertson pupil)
2) [Dorsal midbrain lesions] (Pineal tumors- Parinaud’s Syndrome - will also have poor upgaze

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32
Q

A: What is [MLF-Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus] syndrome AKA?

B: Clinical Presentation (3)

C: What causes MLF syndrome in younger vs. Older pts?

A

A: Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

[MIOS-MLF Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia Syndrome]

B:

*[Impaired ADDuction of affected eye]

+

[Normal ADDuction of affected eye during [near reflex convergence]

+

*[Nystagmus of UNaffected eye when attempting to ABduct]

C:

1) Younger pts= Multiple Sclerosis
2) Older pts= Ischemic infarction

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33
Q

What are the 4 common HA

A
  1. Tension
  2. Migraines
  3. [Fever/Hunger provoked]
  4. HEENT related
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34
Q

HA Red Flags:

What [signs & sx concomitant with Acute onset HA] make you suspect [Aneurysmal SubArachnoid Hemorrhage] or [Cerebellar Hematoma] (5)

A
  1. Split second / unexpected
  2. Worst or not previously encountered
  3. Loss of Consciousness
  4. Vertigo
  5. Vomiting
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35
Q

HA Red Flags:

[Fever & Skin Rash] with Acute Onset HA may indicate what HA Dx?

A

Meningitis

(keep in mind that Acute Meningitis evolves rapidly, including impaired consciousness / nuchal rigitidity / NV)

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36
Q

HA Red Flags:

[Immunocompromised pts] with Acute Onset HA may indicate what HA Dx? (2)

A
  1. CryptoSporidium Meningitis
  2. Toxoplasmosis
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37
Q

HA Red Flags:

[Coagulopathy / anticoagulation] with Acute Onset HA may indicate what HA Dx?

A

[SubDural vs. intradural Hematoma]

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38
Q

A: What are the 3 Clinical Questions that help to diagnose Migraine?

B: Migraine General Characteristics (6)

A

A:

1) Have nausea when u have HA?
2) HA exacerbated with light?
3) HA limit you from everyday functioning?

B: “DUCAP gives me Migraines, and Migraines gives me PANTOS​”

Periodic

Activity-limiting

[Diminishes in freq. throughout life] (Rare for older pts to have migraines for 1st time)

Unilateral & Pulsating usually

Childhood-late vs. early adult onset

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39
Q

Name 5 Migraine triggers

A
  1. Stress
  2. Sleep Deprivation
  3. Hunger vs. Foods
  4. Alcohol/nitrates
  5. Fumes/smoke
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40
Q

Migraine Phases:

Prodrome

A: Duration

B: Sx (6)

A

A: Prodrome: [6-48 hour duration] occuring BEFORE Migraine

Right In Front of DDangerous HA

[Rhinorrhea vs. Lacrimation]

Irratilibility

Fatigue

Depression and Drowsiness

Hunger (Cravings for chocolate/nuts/bananas)

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41
Q

Migraine Phases:

Aura

A: Duration

B: Define Acephalgic Migraine

C: Describe Aura

A

A: Aura: [Before >during>> after] Migraine. [Migraine HA] onsets within an hour after experiencing Aura, but Aura last no longer than 1 hour.

B: Aura May not be present with Migraine. = Acephalgic Migraine

C: [Visual sx (most common)= blind spot near center of vision w/flashing & pulsating bands of light spreading across + diplopia

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42
Q

Migraine Phases:

PAIN

A: Location (3)

B: Duration

C: Associated sx (7)

A

A: Pain: [Head > Abd > Precordial]

B: _[(_minutes to hour gradual onset) with (Hours to Days duration)]

C: “DUCAP gives me Migraines, and Migraines gives me PANTOS

  • [PhoTophobia vs. PhoNophobia]
  • [Aphasia + Dizziness (Cortex involvement)]
  • N/V
  • Thermophobia
  • Osmophobia (fear of odors)
  • Sensorimotor deficit (Tingling)
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43
Q

Migraine etx ; How are theTrigeminal nerves associated-2

A

Genetic [GainOfFunction mutation in excitatory NMDA receptor]–>burst of cerebral activity when triggered—>hyperemia (usually occipital lobe)–> sx. Burst is followed by ⬇︎ cortical activity= Cortical Depression tht has slow but deliberate forward advance –> Triggers Trigeminal pathway

Trigeminal afferents :

  1. send impulses–>Brain Stem & hypothalamus–> Nausea/Photophobia/Phonophobia
  2. retroactively depolarize–>release of substance P –> neurogenic inflammatory pain + vasoDilation
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44
Q

Migraine Phases:

PostDrome

A: Duration

B: Sx (3)

A

A: PostDrome: [last several hours after]

B:

  • Mood change (euphoria vs. fatigue)
  • concentration problems
  • Scalp/muscle tenderness
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45
Q

Migraine

A: Tx (5)

B: 3 things to keep in mind when treating Migraine

C: Alternative Tx (5)

A

A: [Effective Dose NSAID] > Triptans > [Butalbital (habit forming) > DHE > Ergotamine

B:

  • Treat EARLY (including Associated sx)!
  • Less is Best!
  • Px should be used when attacks> 2-3/month, severe and abortive therapies have failed

C: Botox vs. Butterbur vs. [St.John’s Wort] vs. Ginger vs. VitB2

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46
Q

Triptans Rx

A: MOA

B: When are these indicated (2)

C: When is the pt relieved of pain?

A

A: [5HT1B/D Receptor Agonist] –> vasoconstriction–> relieves Migraines

B:

  1. Pt fails to respond to [Effective Dose NSAID]
  2. Pt has Moderate-to-Severe Migraine Pain

C: 2 (more common) vs. 24 Hours

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47
Q

Triptans Rx

A: Cx (6)

B: Side Effects (2)

  • Description and location
  • Duration
A

A: Contraindications:

  1. Vascular Risk Factors (Ischemic Heart Dz / uncontrolled HTN / Renal Dz)
  2. Pregnancy
  3. [Basilar or Hemiplegic Migraine]
  4. Avoid within 24 hours of Ergotamine
  5. Pts taking [MAOI]
  6. Renal or Hepatic impairment (Ergotamine Cx)
  7. Age > 60 (Ergotamine Cx​)

B: Side Effects =

  1. Triptan Sensations
    - [Pressure/Pain/Tightness/Warmth/Tingling] commonly in [Face/Limbs/Chest] but can occur anywhere

**Short duration and resolve spontaneously

+

  1. Serotonin Syndrome (excessive 5HT1a and 2 receptor activation)–> [Dysautonomia (Diarrhea / lacrimation)] + Encephalopathy
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48
Q

A: Ergotamine

  • Route of Administration
  • SE (2)

B: DHE

-Route of Administration (3)

A

Migraine specific Rx

A: Ergotamine (arterial vasoconstrictor)

  • Route of Administration = Suppository ONLY
  • [Severe Nausea] vs. Uterine Contractions

B: DHE (arterial & venous vasoconstrictor)

-Route of Administration = [IV vs. SubQ vs. Nasal Spray]

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49
Q

A: Botulinum Toxin Indication

B: Onset & Duration

A

A: [Chronic Migraine HA] AFTER pt has failed other meds (works by relaxing muscles)

B: Takes a week to onset but will last up to 12 weeks

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50
Q

A: Cluster HA Dx Criteria

B: location

C: Demographic

D: Tx (5)

A

A: Rapid onset (15-30 min) of([1-4 Attacks/day] each lasting [20 min - 3 Hr] x [6-12 weeks]

B: ALWAYS UNILATERAL

C: [Men during spring & fall]

D:

  • Inhaled O2 100%
  • Injectable Sumatriptan vs. Nasal Triptan
  • Nasal Lidocaine
  • Nasal DHE
  • Prednisone
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51
Q

A: Describe Tension HA

B: Associated sx

C: Clinical Presentation

D: Common Causes (3)

A

A: [Classic Everyday Bilateral HA]= Most common HA

B: PhoNophobia vs. PhoTophobia (NOT AT SAME TIME)

C: [Pressing or Tightening Band head pain] lasting [4-6 Hr] maybe brought about by:

  • TCA rx
  • sleep deprivation
  • depression
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52
Q

A: Describe Trigeminal Neuralgia

B: Tx

C: Most common Cause

A

A: SEVERE Paroxysmal attacks of jaw-radiating pain lasting [

B: [Carbamazepine 200-1200 mg/day]

C:

[Young people with Multiple Sclerosis]

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53
Q

A: Describe Pseudotumor Cerebri

B: Demographic

C: Clinical Presentation (2)

D: Tx (3)

A

A: HA that can make (mostly young Female) pts go Blind!

B: Overwt young female taking BCP

C: Papilledema + [High ICP(>250) confirmed with spinal tap]

D: Topiramate(will also –> Wt loss :-) ) vs. Acetazolamide vs. Surgery

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54
Q

A: Clinical Presentation of Multiple Sclerosis (3)

B: Demographic

C: Associated Causes (4)

A

A: “Charcot had MS and thought it was a SIN

Charcot’s Triad

  1. Nystagmus
  2. [Intention Tremor]
  3. [Scanning Speech]

B: Mostly [Young White Female] but can be anyone especially those with [low Vitamin D/sun exposure]

C:

  1. Genetic Contribution (HLA & SNP) but MS is not Genetic Dz
  2. Lack of Sun –> low Vitamin D
  3. Viral: EBV / [Canine Distemper Virus]
  4. Tobacco
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55
Q

A: Multiple Sclerosis MOD

B: Clinical Course (4)

A

A: Activated [Autoreactive T Cells] travel from peripheral lymph node to CNS–>break down BBB w/interleukins that induce inflammation—> then secrete inflammatory cytokines –> [myelin destruction and neuronal death of White mater]

B: [Sx>24 hrs from demyelination]–> [remission (complete vs. partial ​improvmnt)] –> [Relapses every 1-2 years x 5-10 years] –> [Progressive sx with no more relapses/new lesions]

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56
Q

Name the 5 most common syndromes associated with Multile Sclerosis

A
  • Optic Neuritis
  • Afferent Pupillary Defect
  • [Brainstem Syndromes (Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia / Ataxia / Trigeminal Neuralgia)
  • [Spinal Cord Syndromes]
  • Romberg (MS lesions “love” dorsal column destruction)
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57
Q

Optic Neuritis is a syndrome highly associated with Multiple Sclerosis

B: Sx (3)

C: Other phenomena Opitc Neuritis my be associated with (2)

A

Unilateral Optic Disc Swelling on fundoscopic

  1. [Scotoma Blindspot] vs. [Complete Blindness]
  2. Eye mvmnt pain
  3. DEC [Red/Green]

C:

  • [Marcus Gunn Afferent Pupil defect]
  • Uhthoff Phenomenon (heat intolerance after being placed in hot tube)
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58
Q

Brainstem Syndromes is a syndrome highly associated with MS

B: What’s the biggest example

A

B: [MIOS-MLFInternuclearOphthalmoplegiaSyndrome]

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59
Q

Spinal Cord Syndromes is a syndrome highly associated with MS

B: Classic signs (4)

C: How do you differentiate this from Guillan Barre

D: Description of location of spinal cord MS lesions

A

Pts w/”Sensory Level” should be assumed to have Spinal Cord Lesion until proven otherwise. Not MS

B:

  • Deafferented Hand
  • Urinary sx + Erectile Dysfunction
  • Progressive Asymmetric spastic paraplegia

C: [Guillain Barre Pts] do NOT get numb in torso

D: small, located in cord periphery (especially in dorsal columns). Begin at pial surface.

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60
Q

A: Dx Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis (4)

B: Location of MS lesions (5)

C: Which location lesion is shown in image?

D: Which Radiography is used for dx? (2)

A

Dx of MS is a clinical dx + radiographic corroboration

A:

  • [2 or more separate parts of CNS involved]
  • [2 or more worsening episodes (separated by 1 month or more and each lasting 24 hrs)]
  • Radiography: [Periventricular White Matter lesion (> 3mm) disseminated in time & space] = Dx of Exclusion
  • CSF Fluid with [Oligoclonal bands] + [DEC Cell count] + [IgG abnormalitites] + [Normal Glucose & Protein] = NOT MANDATORY

B: [Corpus Callosum] / [Optic Radiation] / [Brainstem abutting 4th vt] / [T1 = Black Holes] / [Dawson’s Finger on T2W (shown in image)]

C: [Dawson’s Finger on T2W (shown in image)]

D: [MRI: T2W vs. FLAIR] (will have Hyperdense/High Signal)

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61
Q

Common other DDx of [MS​-like presentation] include [Neuromyelitis Optica] vs. [ADEM] vs. [PML]

  • Describe Neuromyelitis Optica*
  • B: Clinical Presentation (3)*
A

Longitudinally extensive spinal cord lesion (>3 vertebrae) –> Bilateral optic neuritis

B:

  • Hic-coughs
  • Normal Brain
  • [NMO IgG Ab Positive] - aquaporin 4 channel
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62
Q

Common other DDx of [MS​-like presentation] include [Neuromyelitis Optica] vs. [ADEM] vs. [PML]

  • Describe [ADEM-Acute Disseminated EncephaloMyelitis]*
  • A: Onset*
  • B: Associated sx (3)*
  • C: Demographic*
A

A: Post-meningoencephalitis/infectious [Large FLUFFY Multifocal] lesions

B:

  • HA
  • Vomiting
  • Drowsiness
  • Meningism

C: Children

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63
Q

Common other DDx of [MS-like presentation] include [Neuromyelitis Optica] vs. [ADEM] vs. [PML]

  • Describe PML-Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy*
  • B: Location (2)*
  • C: How is PML related to the drug, Natalizumab?*
  • D: Demographic*
  • E: Histology (3)*
A

Opportunistic infection 2º to [John Cunningham PolyomaVirus]—-> [multiple white matter lesions] (Hyperintense Flair signal on radiology) –> Death vs. Severe Neuro injury

B: [SubCortical Hemispheric White Matter] or [Cerebellar Peduncles]

C: Also can be caused by Rare Side Effect of Natalizumab (MS drug) in pts who are also JC Virus positive

D: HIV pts (reversal of immunosuppresion stops viral progression)

E: “PML’s HISTO is like a MOB

  • Myelin Loss (with axonal sparing)
  • Bizarre astrocytes
  • Oligodendroglial inclusions (–> focal discoloration in white matter & Ground glass appearance)
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64
Q

A: Multiple Sclerosis Tx (4)

B: Which one is used for [Acute MS Relapses]?

A

A: Tx

  1. [IV vs. Oral Methylprednisolone] (IV is preferred)
  2. ACTH
  3. Plasmapharesis
  4. IVIG

B: [IV vs. Oral Methylprednisolone] (IV is preferred)

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65
Q

Name the 5 major causes of Meningitis and descriptions of each

A
  • Bacterial= Acute
  • Fungal= affects Immunocompromised
  • Amebic(Parasitic) & TB= Granulomatous
  • Viral= [ASEPTIC meningitis] & [self-limiting]
  • Non-Infectious= Chemical vs. [Meningeal Carcinomatosis]
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66
Q

Acute Bacterial Meningitis

What common bacteria affect ages…

A: Neonates

B: 1-12 months (2)

C: 1 - 16 years (3)

D: 16 - 50 years (2)

E: Age Extremes (2)

A

A: Neonates:- [E.Coli] vs. [Group B Strep]

B: 1-12 months: [Strep Pneumo] vs. [H.Flu]

C: 1 - 16 years: [Neisseria meningitis] vs. [H.Flu] vs. [Strep Pneumo]

D: 16 - 50 years:[Neisseria meningitis] vs. [Strep Pneumo]

E: Age Extremes: [Listeria Monocytogenes] vs. [Pseudomonas Aeruginosa]

67
Q

Describe CSF findings for Bacteria Meningitis

A: Fluid Quality

B: Cells Present

C: Protein level

D: Glucose (relative to plasma)

E: Pressure

F: Tx if Bacteria Meningitis is suspected (2)

A

A: Cloudy

B: PMNs

C: VERY HIGH PROTEIN

D: Low Glucose

E: HIGH PRESSURE

F: 1st: [Emergent IV Dexamethasone (in adults) + Broad Spectrum Abx] —–> [specific abx after identification]

68
Q

Describe CSF findings for Viral Meningitis

A: Fluid Quality

B: Cells Present

C: Protein level

D: Glucose (relative to plasma)

E: Viral Causes (2)

A

A: Clear

B: [Lymphocytes with lymphocytic extension along Virchow-Robin spaces]

C: Slightly High Protein

D: Normal Glucose

E:

1) Enterovirus = Most Common
2) Arbovirus (West Nile)

69
Q

Describe CSF findings for TB Meningitis

A: Fluid Quality

B: Cells Present

C: Protein level

D: Glucose (relative to plasma)

A

A: N/A

B: Lymphocytes

C: Moderately High Protein

D: Mildly Low Glucose

70
Q

List the 4 causes of Chronic Meningitis

list examples

B: Demographics (3)

C: Presentation (2)

A

Evolves over weeks to months

  1. TB–> necrotizing Granuloma (PCR testing needed)
  2. Fungal (Cryptococcus neoformans vs. Histoplasma vs. Coccidioides immitis)
  3. Parasitic (Treponema Pallidum vs. Borrelia Burgdorferi) = RARE
  4. Non-Infectious (Neurosarcoid)

B: Elderly vs. Malnourished vs. Immunosuppresed

C: Subtle sx of HA and/or confusion with no obvious meningeal signs

71
Q

In addition to Fungal Meningitis, fungus can also cause ______, _______ and [secondary vasculitis]

B: Clinical Manifestation of [secondary vasculitis] (2)

C: Microscopy

D: Stains used for dx (3)

A

In addition to Fungal Meningitis, fungus can also cause encephalitis, Brain Abscess and [secondary vasculitis]

B:

1) Vascular invasion–> infarct
2) Mycotic aneurysm–> Hemorrhage

C: Granulomatous Mononuclear infiltrate (overlaps with TB)

D:

[PAS vs. Mucicarmine vs. GMS]

72
Q

Fungal Meningitis

A: Which are Hyphal & Pseudohyphal (4)

B: Which are Yeast (3)

A

A: CAZF

[Candida/Aspergillus/Zygomycetes/Fusarium]

B: [Histoplasma/Blastomyces/Cryptococcus]

73
Q

Cysticercosis / Toxoplasmosis / Amoebiasis all can cause Parasitic CNS infections

A: Describe Cysticercosis

B: Geography (2)

A

MOST COMMON CEREBRAL PARASITE acquired via [Taenia solium Pork cestode]

B: [SW states] and Mexico

74
Q
A

Taenia Solium Pork Cestode

75
Q

Cysticercosis / Toxoplasmosis / Amoebiasis all can cause Parasitic CNS infections

A: Describe Toxoplasmosis

B: Acquisition (2)

C: Radiology

D: Congential Toxoplasmosis is part of _____

E: Dx (2)

A

Protozoan that crosses placenta (pregnant women should avoid changing cat litter)

B: Cysts in meat or [cat feces oocyst]

C: Brain Abscess (MRI Ring Enhancing Lesion)

D:

-Congenital Toxo is part of TORCH (Toxo/Others/Rubella/CMV/Herpes)

D2: Dx = Serology vs. Biopsy

76
Q

Cysticercosis / Toxoplasmosis / Amoebiasis all can cause Amoebiasis CNS infections

What 3 organisms are associated with Amoebiasis?

A
  1. [Naegleria Fowleri Free living Amoeba] –> [Fulminant Acute Meningoencephalitis]
    * Image shows Trophozoites of Naegleria Fowleri*
  2. Entamoeba Histolytica
  3. Balamuthia Mandrillaris
77
Q

Viral Encephalitis

A: Major pathogens of [Summer/Early Fall] (3)

B: [Fall and Winter]

C: [Winter and Spring]

D: [Any Season] (5)

A

A: Summer/Early Fall = Arboviruses (West Nile Virus) vs. Enterovirus vs. Rocky Mountain(mimics viral encephalitis)

B: [Fall and Winter] = LCMV (Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus)

C: [Winter and Spring] = Mumps

D: [Any Season] = HSV1/ EBV / CMV / Mycoplasma / Leptospira

78
Q

Viral Encephalitis

A: Affects White or Grey Matter?

B: Histology (4)

A

A: Affects more Grey Matter (diffuse vs. focal)

B:

1) [Perivascular Lymphocytic inflammation]
2) [Leptomeningeal Lymphocytic inflammation]
3) [Microglial cluster nodules]
4) Neuronophagia

79
Q

A: Polio Encephalitis MOD

B: Dx

C: Which pathogen can this be confused with?

D: Clinical Presentation

A

A: [Fecal-Oral transmitted] virus that replicates in [oropharynx & small intestine] & ultimately–> [ANT horn LMN destruction in brainstem/spinal cord]

B: Recovered from stool or throat

C: Can mimic [West Nile ArboVirus] & vice versa

D: [Asymmetrical LMN signs = Asymmetrical FAW = Fasciculations/[Atrophy & areflexia] / Weakness]

80
Q

A: Describe MOD for Rabies and what virus causes it

B: Incubation period?

A

Rhabdovirus

A: Rabies= Exposure to rapid dogs (also bat/raccoon/skunk) —> [Prodrome of flu-like sx] + [Negri body cytoplasmic inclusions] seen in brainstem/hippocampus/[Cerebellar Purkinje cells]

B: [10 days to a year] depending on bite location

81
Q

A: Herpes Encephalitis MOD

B: Where does this Virus remain Latent?

C: Histology

D: What does the [Burnt Out Herpes Encephalitis] refer to?

E: Tx

A

Most commonly recognized and devastating

A: HSV1 (transmitted via saliva) –> [(Hemorrhage—>Cavitation & Atrophy) / Acute Necrosis/ Edema] of [Medial Temporal & Frontal lobe]

B: Trigemial ganglion

C: [Owl’s Eye Intranuclear inclusion]

D: Chronic Phase= Cavitation and Atrophy with shrivelled/brown color in long term survivors

E: Acyclovir (should be started even if suspected)

82
Q

A: CMV MOD

B: Demographic (2)

B2: Describe the Clinical Manifestation for each Demographic

C: General Microscopy (2)

A

A: Opportunistic Virus (Especially in AIDS and neonate pts) that is is part of TORCH (Toxo/Others/Rubella/CMV/Herpes)

B: AIDS and neonate pts

B1) Adults = Dilated CSF Ventricles and calcifications within periventricular region

B2) Postnatal infection = [multiple microglial nodules] + [occasional cytomegalic cellular inclusions]

C:

  • Meningoencephalitis
  • [Cytomegalic cellular inclusions] mostly in periventricular regions
83
Q
A

[loss of myelin] and Atypical Astrocytes consistent with

PML-Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

84
Q

HIVE

HIV Encephalopathy

B: Describe 2 other neuro conditions associated with HIV

C: What Dx should you suspect in a Young HIV Pt witih Dementia? Pgn?

A

Widespread [microglial nodule GREY MATTER ENCEPHALITIS] —> [multinucleated giant cells]

*Also causes (Meningitis–>Persistent Pleocytosis & neuro sx) and Dementia via Direct Viral invasion vs. inDirect inflammation

C: AIDS Dementia= slow cognitive & behavioral decline with poor pgn. Note: This presentation is Similar to [SubAcute Combined Degeneration]

HIV LeukoEncephalopathy is the same thing but with White matter instead

85
Q

HIV LeukoEncephalopathy

A: clinical presentation

B: Histology

C: Which brain cells are NOT affected by this?

A

A: Subacute onset with cognitive impairment and apathy

B: [Diffuse WHITE MATTER myelin pallor with microglial nodules and (multinucleated giant cells)

C: Oligodendrocytes are NOT infected

Unknown Etiology

86
Q

Vacuolar Myelopathy

A

Spastic Paraparesis with hyperreflexia and ataxia caused by vacuolation of [Spinal Cord White Matter]

87
Q

Brain Abscess

A: Solitary or Multifocal

B: Cause and [Dx method (3)]

C: Tx (2)

D: How are Brain Abscess related to CA

A

A: Usually Solitary (can be multifocal) within epidural or subdural of brain/spinal cord–> 20% Mortality

B: Caused by CNS infection that has to be indentified with [biopsy vs. aspiration vs. CT/MRI]. (LUMBAR PUNCTURE MAY CAUSE HERNIATION. Only use if concurrent with meningitis or ventriculitis)

C: Surgical Excision vs. Abx

D: Multiple Abscess can mimic [Metastatic CA]

88
Q

Brain Abscess

A: Causes (4)

B: Common locations (2)

A

A:

1) Direct infection from elsewhere (otitis/sinusitis/dental/cellulitis): {also mechanism for Bacterial Meningitis}
2) Hematogenous from distant infectious site (Endocarditis/Osteomyelitis/Lung): {also mechanism for Bacterial Meningitis}
3) [Trauma vs. surgery] Direct organism introduction
4) [DM / EtOH]

B:

  • [Grey-White Junction]
  • [White Mater where collateral circulation is poor]
89
Q

Brain Abscess

Describe the Evolution of Brain Abscess

A

1st: Early Cerebritis-granulation & early fibrous capsule formation (Day 1-3 )
2nd: Confluent Necrosis (Day 2-7 )
3rd: Early Encapsulation (Day 5-14 )
4th: Late Encapsulation ( > 2 weeks )

90
Q

A: How do Adults acquire and present after Lead Poisoning?

A: How do Children acquire and present after Lead Poisoning​?

A

A:

Adults: [Workplace paint vs. lead battery] –> Peripheral neuropathy

B: Children: [ingeting lead paint flakes] –> [Encephalopathy + Abd pain]

C:

-[Chemical Plant vs. Glue sniffing] –> [Peripheral neuropathy] or [Encephalopathy]. Dx is clinical

91
Q

Bacteria Meningitis

A: Complications (4)

A

A:

1) Hydrocephalus (from pus obstructing CSF pathway)
2) 2º inflammation and edema of Cortex = meningoencephalitis
3) Thrombosis of inflamed superficial cortex vessels & spinal cord –> Infarct
4) deafness (espeically in children)

92
Q

Encephalitits

A: General Sx (4)

B: Onset time

C: Tx (2)

A

A: [Focal Edema] —>

  • [Change in Behavior/Consciousness (specific for Encephalitis)]
  • High Fever
  • HA
  • [Seizures & Focal Neuro Deficits]

B: Hours to Days

C: [[IV Dexamethasone] vs. Sedatives] (For INC ICP and seizures)

93
Q

West Nile Arbo​virus Encephalitis

B: MOD

C: Which animal was subject to the West Nile Arbovirus prior to humans?

D: Which other pathogen can this be confused with?

A

West Nile Arbovirus

B: Affects Peripheral n. vs. [ANT Horn Cells] (similar to Polio virus) –> Weakness and Encephalitis

C: Birds

D: Polio Virus

94
Q

A: Prion Dz MOD (2)

B: What is the Prion Dz manifestation in animals called?

C: What is the Prion Dz manifestation in HUMANS called? Describe the Clinical Presentation (2)

A

A: [Infectious Proteins! from human graft tissue or dirty neurosurgical instruments] induce conformational change in [normal neuronal proteins]–> neuronal death without inflammation –> [transmissible spongiform encephalopathies]. Also can be Hereditary.

B: Mad Cow Dz in Cows!

C: [CJD- Creutzfeldt Jakob Dementia] In Humans

*Rapidly progressive dementia with [prominent myoclonus] + [CST vs. extraCST vs. Cerebellar vs. LMN signs]–> Fatal in Weeks-Months!

spongiform encephalopathy shown in image

95
Q

A: Identify and Describe pathology shown below

B: Cause

A

OPTIC ATROPHY

A: [Pale Optic Disc with Sharp Distinct Margins] associated with residual [scotoma blindspot] or [loss of acuity]

B: Occurs weeks after Optic N. Lesion, which destroys [Retinal ganglion axons]–> OPTIC ATROPHY

96
Q

A: Identify and Describe pathology shown in image

B: Cause and PGN

C: Which eye does this typically occur in?

A

A. Papilledema = [Bilateral Swollen Discs] with vessels mound over blurred Optic Disc margins.

B: Results from INC ICP –> normal vision initially but will impair vision if untreated

C: BILATERAL

97
Q

A: Clinical Course (Visual manifestations) for Pituitary Tumor (2)

B: What other sx is typically associated

C: Pituitary Tumor MOD

A

1st: [BiTemporal Upper Quadrantanopia] (since compression starts from below initially) –>
2nd: [BiTemporal Heteronymous Hemianopsia]

B: Hormonal Dysfunction

C: Arises within [Sella Turcica] and compresses Optic Chiasm from below at first –> entire thing

98
Q

A: Describe the difference between Sensorineural and Conductive Deafness

B: List causes for Sensorineural (4) and Conductive (2) Deafness

A

A:

-Sensorineural Deafness = [HIGH tone loss] from [Hair cells vs. Auditory n.] degeneration (causes: loud noise / drugs / ischemia / Trauma)

vs.

-Conductive Deafness = [Low tone loss] from impaired air conduction (causes: wax / ossicle lesion)

99
Q

A: Benign Positional Vertigo MOD

A2: Clinical Presentation

B: Demographic

C: Tx (2)

A

A: [Degenerated Ca+ Crystals Otoliths] lodge around cilia of [semicircular canal hair cells] –> oversensitivity.

A2: Minor mvmnts of head (getting out bed vs. bending over) –> vestibular impulses–> [Benign Positional Vertigo]

B: Elderly

C:

1) Intermittent Benzodiazepine vs. Antihistamine
2) Head-positioning exercises

100
Q

Acute Labyrinthitis also COMMONLY causes Vertigo

A. Causes (2)

B. Clinical Manifestation (5)

C: Tx (3)

A

Acute Labyrinthitis also COMMONLY causes Vertigo.

A. Viral Infection vs. [Inflammation of inner ear labyrinth] both resolving in days to weeks.

B: [Vertigo / NV / (Unilateral Deafness) / Gait ataxia / (Asymetrical Nystagmus)]

C:

  1. Benzodiazepine
  2. Antihistamine
  3. Antiemetic
101
Q

Meniere’s Dz

A. Sx (3)

B. MOD

C. Complication

A

Meniere’s Dz= [Recurrent Vertigo] + tinnitus + deafness

B. [membranous labyrinth rupture –> intermixing of Endolymph and Perilymph –> loss of ionic gradient within semicircular canals. This causes Degeneration of vestibular & cochlear hair cells could–> Permanent Deafness

C: Permanent Deafness

102
Q

A: MRI is best used for what (2)

B: Cons (4)

C: Contrast agent used

D: Brief MOA

A

A: Multiple Views (axial vs. sagittal vs. coronal) of Brain and Spinal Cord with no radiation

B: Longer scanning time / [images degraded by pt mvmnt] / [contraindicated with pacemakers or certain metal] / [Tight Enclosed space]

C: Gadolinium

D: [Spinning protons in water of living tissue] act as small magnets and are affected by [External Magnetic fields] induced by MRI. Serial RadioFrequencies from excited tissue generate the MRI image.

103
Q

CT scan

A: Which views can be seen and how is this disadvantageous

B: How long is the scan

C: Contrast agent used

D: Cons (2)

A

A: Axial views (CT requires image reformatting for other views). All Axial views are computed –>Composite scan.

B: Shorter scanning time

C: Iodine-based

D:

  • Radiation (Multiple X-ray images are taken as X-ray tube rotates in circular path around brain/spinal cord)
  • requires image reformatting for other views
104
Q

MRI

A1: T1W. Highlights _____. [CSF is ___ in color with ___ signal]

A1: T2W. Highlights _____. [CSF is ___ in color with ___ signal]

B: What is FLAIR?

C: Lesions appear _____[dark vs. bright] on T2W and FLAIR

A

MRI

A1: T1-Weighted = Highlights Anatomy. [CSF isDarkwith low signal] (Ais1st letter)

A2: T2-Weighted = Highlights PATHOLOGY. [CSF is WHITE with HIGH signal]

B: FLAIR = FLuid AttenuatIon Recovery: Similar to T2W but [visually distracting HIGH signal from CSF] is removed :-)

(Most lesions appear _BRIGHT_* *onT2WorFLAIR**. Lesions appear Dark on CT )

105
Q

A: Which Radiographic Scan should be used for Acute Hemorrhage

B: Describe the Clinical Course of Acute Hemorrhage with this Scan (3)

C: Why does this change in Clinical Course occur?

A

A. CT scan

B. Radiographic course of Acute Hemorrhage([SubDural Outside] vs. [SAH inside])

1st: HYPERdense (Very White) = Acute
2nd: Isodense as time passes and edema subsides = SubAcute
3rd: hypOdense (very dark) on CT = Chronic

C: Hemorrhage density changes as iron content of Hematoma changes from HgB–>[met-HgB]__–>hemosiderin

106
Q

A: Which Radiographic scan is best for Acute Infarction? Why?

B: Lesions appear ____ or ____ in color on CT

B2: What are 2 reasons why CT is not efficient for Acute Infarction

A

A: [MRI-Diffusion Weighted Imaging]

A2: Water diffusion is impaired in ischemic brain = best scan for earliest infarct detection

B: Lesions appear [**Dark-low signal] or [Lucent if in vascular area] on CT.

B2:

  • Early infarcts may NOT be visibleor show subtle effacement
  • Small lacunar infarcts may NOT be detected at all!
107
Q

A: Contrast function (2)

B: What does Contrast enhance (2)

A

A Delineate [Tumor or Abscess] amidst surrounding edema.

B: Contrast Enhances [lesions with leaky blood brain barrier] and Normal Vascular Structures

108
Q

C: Edema mainly involves ____ matter and spares _____

How does Edema appear on CT (2) as compared to [MRI T2W / FLAIR]

A

C: Edema mainly involves White matter and spares [cortical gyri fingers]: It appears…

CT= [hypOdense dark-low signal] vs. [lucent when in vascular areas]

[MRI T2W / FLAIR]= HYPERdense-High signal

109
Q

A: Describe Hydrocephalus

B: List the Causes and which structures are affected in each Cause (2)

A

A: Ventricular enlargement without loss of brain tissue related to impaired CSF flow

B:

1) Aqueductal Stenosis –> [ONLY 3rd Vt enlargement]
2) [Blockage/Scarring of SubArachnoid Vili] –> [3rd AND 4th Vt enlargement]

110
Q

Describe these Brain Tumor Processes

A: [Primary Brain Tumor] (3)

B: [Metastatic Brain Tumor] (3)

C: [Epidural Spinal Cord Metastasis]

A

A: “HIS primaries were tumor-like!”

[Solitary / [Irregularly shape] / [Hemorrhagic vs. heterogenous]

B: M for MSG

Metastatic= [( Multiple OR Solitary) / Spherical / [Gray-white junction]

C: Arises from [vertebral body] and encroaches upon spinal cord

111
Q

Spondylosis: Degenerative Spine Dz

A: MOD

B: Radiographic scan used for Dx (2)

A

A: [Herniated Disc–>Torn Annulus and then eventually–>Toothpaste sign / [Elevated ligaments] and [Spinal Cord Stenosis]

B:

1st line: MRI:T2W

2nd choice: [Spinal CT that may require [intrathecal myelogram contrast] (outlines spinal cord and n.roots)]

Thecal Sac contains SubArachnoid Space

Image below shows

112
Q

A: 5 major UMN signs

B: Asymmetrical Reflexes are ____ (normal vs. abnormal)

C: Major causes of Altered Mental System (2)

A

A: Weak MESH

  • Weakness
  • Spasticity
  • [Exaggerated Reflexes (Babinski)]
  • Mental Status change
  • Hemiplegia

B: Asymmetric Reflexes = ALWAYS ABNORMAL

C: (can come from Intracranial Pressure changes)

1) Bilateral Hemisphere damage
2) Damage to RAS - Reticular Activating System

113
Q

A: Compare the Pupil response differences between Compression and Ischemia of [Oculomotor CN3]

A

A:

  • Compression of [Oculomotor CN3] –> Pupil DILATION (since Parasympathetic fibers are outside the [Oculomotor CN3 nerve fiber]
  • -*Ischemia of [Oculomotor CN3] –> Pupil Stasis
114
Q

Define the 3 Functional Groups of the Thalamus

A

A- [Specific Relay nuclei]= bidirectional inputs & projections to SPECIFIC motor/sensory Cortex

B- [Association nuclei]= bidirectional connections to association areas of Cortex & subcortical structures

C- [Non-specific nuclei]= NON POINT-TO-POINT connections in intralaminar & midline that “awaken/prepare” cortex for receipt

115
Q

B: Specific inputs to the Thalamus use ____ as a NTS

C: What’s Internal Capsule Blood Supply? (3)

D: Internal Capsule Function

A

A: **PCA**
Postetrior Cerebral A.
——————————————————————————
B: Specific inputs to the Thalamus use GLUTAMATE as a NTS

C:

  • *Internal Capsule** Blood Supply:
    1. [lateral striate a.] from MCA
  1. [Recurrent a. of Heubner] from the ACA
  2. [ANT Choroidal a.]

D: Transmits [Cerebral Cortex [Forebrain/Brainstem/Spinal Cord]]

116
Q

A: What Afferents travel TO the Thalamic [Thalamic RETICULAR nucleus] (2)

B: Where does the Efferent fibers of the Thalamic [Thalamic RETICULAR nucleus] project to?

C: What type of Thalamic nucleus is the [Thalamic RETICULAR nucleus]

D: What is Different of this Thalamic nucleus from the others?

A

[Thalamic RETICULAR nucleus]

A: Aff= Thalamus & Cortex—–> nc

B: Eff= nc—> ONLY other Thalamus nuclei

C: [Non-Specific nuclei]

D: Aside from this [Thalamic RETICULAR nucleus], All OTHER thalamic nuclei “decide” where info should go in Cerebral cortex

117
Q

[SUP Cerebellar Peduncle] is the main ______[input/Output] pathway for the Cerebellum

A

[SUP Cerebellar Peduncle] is the main OUTPUT pathway for the Cerebellum

118
Q

A: In what 2 instances do you see a POSITIVE Babinski Sign

B: Why is the interpeduncular Fossa significant? Where is it located?

A

POSITIVE Babinski Sign

  1. [UPPER Motor Neuron] damage –> {Weak MESH} sx
  2. infants

B: The interpeduncular Fossa is significant because [Oculomotor CN3] runs out of it. It is found in the MIDBRAIN between the 2 [Crus Cerebri Cerebral Peduncle}

119
Q
  1. Which 2 tracts cross in Medulla?
  2. Sympathetics are found in the ____
  3. Medial and Lateral motor nuclei are related to the ____ Tract
  4. Which 2 tracts uses the [inferior Cerebellar peduncle] (ICP)?
  5. DSCT uses ___ Nucleus before going to _____
  6. ___, ____ and ____ tracts all cross in the Spinal Cord
  7. Medial Lemniscus uses the ____ _____ pathway
  8. Nucleus Proprius is related to the ___ ____ Tract
A
  1. CST and DCP = cross in Medulla
  2. Sympathetics are found in the [Lateral Horn/IML]
  3. Medial and Lateral motor nuclei are related to the CORTICOSPINAL TRACT (CST)
  4. DSCT & CCT use ICP [Remember: VSCT uses SCP]
  5. DSCT uses Clark’s Nucleus before going to ICP
  6. VSCT / [ANT CST]/ STT all cross in the Spinal Cord
  7. Medial Lemniscus uses the [Dorsal Column Pathway]
  8. Nucleus Proprius is related to the [Spinal Thalamic Tract]
120
Q

A: Most common cause of Senile Dementia > 65 y/o

B: Describe the Genetic Associations with the Early onset type (3)

C: Describe the Genetic Associations with the LATE onset type (2)

A

A: Alzheimer’s Dz (Familial Auto Dominant type= early onset) vs. (Sporadic type= late onset)

B:

  1. [APP (Amyloid Precursor Transmembrane Protein) - Chromosome 21: Down Syndrome] - APP undergoes many proteolytic cleavages
  2. [Presenilin 1 Chromo 14]
  3. [Presenilin 2 Chromo 1]

C:

*[ApoE4 Chromo 19]

*[ApoE2: Protective]

121
Q

Describe Gross Histology for Alzheimer’s (4)

A

A: [Generalized Cerebral Atrophy (starts w/temporal)]–>

  1. [Gyri Narrowing]
  2. [Sulci Widening]
  3. [DEC Brain Weight]
  4. [Dilated Vt with Hippocampus Atrophy]
122
Q

A: Describe microscopic Histology for Alzheimer’s (2)

B: Which Stain is used to identify these changes (2)

A

A:

  • [Intracell Neurofibrillary Tangles] = Intracell filamentous inclusions made of [Hyperphosphorylated Tau Protein] = [insoluble axon microtubule protein]
  • [Extracell Amyloid Plaques] - [Found in Subarachnoid space & superficial cortex]. Also found in senile plaques.

B: Use [Bielschowsky Silver Stain] and H&E to identify.

Image shows [Intracell Neurofibrillary Tangles**]

123
Q

CNS Tumor

A: Location: Adult vs. Children

B: Why are Benign Lesions still a problem in the CNS

C: Describe CNS Tumor Metastasis

A

A: [Adult CNS Tumor = supratentorial] vs. [Child CNS Tumor = infratentorial]]

B: Benign lesions can have FATAL outcomes from location alone! [Note: Malignant vs. Benign is harder to differentiate in CNS]

C: Although [ CNS Tumor metastasis] to other places is rare… [SubArachnoid space] may allow spread –> [Medulloblastoma]. (2° CNS Tumors ARE MORE COMMON & come from metastatic spread TO brain FROM other places using via blood)

124
Q

A: Cause of Death from CNS Tumors (2)

B: What happens to infants who have CNS Tumors

C: General Sx for CNS Tumors (4)

A

A: [Internal Herniation] and [Compression of vital centers (Medullary Cardiopulmonary Center)]

B: Head enlarges –> Fontanelles bulges –> Head Circumference INC

C: [HA / NV / Neuro deficits/ Seizures (superficial tumors)] from INC ICP

125
Q

A: Most common [1º CNS Tumors] in Adults (3)

B: Most common [1º CNS Tumors] in Peds (3)

C: Which [1º CNS Tumor] is the MOST Malignant Astrocytoma?

A

A: GMS: [Glioblastoma (Grade 4)] / Meningioma / Schwannoma]

B: PEDs

  • [Pilocytic Astrocytoma (Grade 1)]
  • Ependymoma
  • MeDulloblastoma

C: [Glioblastoma (Grade 4)]

126
Q

A: Describe Astrocytoma

A

A: Astrocytoma is the most common glioma and so can occur anywhere in brain and to any age

127
Q

The WHO has assigned 4 Grades of Histology for CNS Tumors

GRADE 1

A: Pgn

B1: Example

B2: Where is this Example located in the CNS (2)

B3: Radiographic description of Example

B4: Histology of Example (2)

A

A: [Low proliferative potential and slow growth] = Least malignant and can undergo [surgical resective cure]

B: Pilocytic Astrocytoma (common in PEDs)

B2: Cerebellum and Brainstem

B3: [Cyst with mural nodule]

B4:

  • Rosenthal Fibers
  • [Piloid cells with Hairlike processes]
128
Q

The WHO has assigned 4 Grades of Histology for CNS Tumors

Decsribe GRADE 2 (3)

A
  • [No mitosis / necrosis / vascular proliferation]
  • [Infiltrative nature]
  • [low level proliferative activity often recurs]
129
Q

The WHO has assigned 4 Grades of Histology for CNS Tumors

A: Decsribe GRADE 3

B: Tx

A
  • [Malignant tumor without microvascular proliferation/necrosis]

B: Radiation/Chemo

130
Q

The WHO has assigned 4 Grades of Histology for CNS Tumors

GRADE 4

A: Example and Pgn

B: Name the 4 Sub-Grades

A

A: GLIOBLASTOMA = MOST MALIGNANT ASTROCYTOMA = POOR PGN!

B: image

131
Q

Glioblastoma

A: Statistics

B: Location

C: Radiographic findings (2)

D: Histology (5)

E: Tumor marker

A

A: Most common [Malignant CNS Tumor] in Adults

B: Cerebral Hemispheres but may be multicentric (Diffusely infiltrating)

C: [[May cross Corpus Callosum] –> [MRI Butterfly lesion]] + [Midline shift from lateral vt compression]

D: CREEPY

  • Yellow necrosis
  • Reddish brown hemorrhage
  • Cystic Change
  • Pseudopalisading Necrosis on Histo
  • Endothelial Cell Hyperplasia on Histo

E: GFAP positive

132
Q

OligoDendroglioma

A: Pgn

B: Location

C: Radiographic Findings

D: Histology (3)

A

A: Better pgn than Astrocytoma of a similar grade

B: Most frequent Frontal lobe

C: [CT Intratumoral Calcifications]

D: “Oli -goes to store to get fried eggs to eat Chicken out of his Front house Satellite dish”

*[Perinuclear halos - “fried egg” appearance]

*[Chicken Wire Capillary pattern]

*[Satellitosis in 2° structures]

133
Q

A: Describe Rosettes

B: Where are the nuclei for these located?

A

A: [Spoke-wheel arrangement of cells around central core which may be empty or filled w/cytoplasm. Cytoplasm is wedge shaped & directed toward core] resembles rose windows

B: peripherally positioned and form a ring around the hub

134
Q

A: Identify

B: Describe the core of this structure

A

A: [MHW- MeDulloblastoma Homer Wright Rosette]

B: [delicate neuropil fibrils]

M for Meaty Core!

135
Q

A: Identify

B: Describe the core of this structure

A

A: [RFW-Retinoblastoma Flexner Wintersteiner Rosette]

B: EMPTY

136
Q

A: Identify

B: Describe the core of this structure

C: Name and describe the counterpart to this structure

A

A: [Ependymoma Perivascular Pseudorosette] vs.

B: Halo of tumor cells around blood vessel

C: [EpendymomaTRUE ​rosette] is shown in image below = [Halo of tumor cells around EMPTY blood vessel]

137
Q

Ependymoma

A: Demographic

B: Location (2)

C: What structures are lined by Ependymal cells (2)

A

A: Any age but most frequent in kids

B: [4th Ventricle which may–> Hydrocephalus] vs. [Spinal in adults]

B: Ventricles and [Spinal Cord Central Canal]

138
Q

Medulloblastoma

A: Where does it arise from

B: Location: Children vs. Adults

C: Tx

D: Histology

A

MeDulloblastoma / MHW

A: [Undifferentiated NeuroEctodermal cells]

B: [Children: Cerebellum/4th ventricle] vs. [Adults: Hemispheric]

C: Radiation tx sensitive :-)

D: [small blue cell tumor] composed of [Undifferentiated cell sheets] with scanty cytoplasm and dark nuclei

139
Q

MeninGioma

A: Arises from what cells

B: Demographic

C: Location (2)

D: Sx (2)

E: Tx

A

“Men in Gio:”

A: Arachnoid Meninges

B: [Benign tumor of mid-aged Females]

C: [ExtraAxial = Outside Brain Parenchyma - common in convexities and parasagittal regions]

D:

  • MOSTLY ASX
  • [possible seizures/focal neuro deficits depending on location]

E: [Resection +/- radiation]

140
Q

Name the 4 characteristics of MeninGioma

A

” Men in Gio sat in PEWS

  1. Psammoma body laminated calcifications
  2. Whorls
  3. Syncytial Appearance
  4. [Elongated cells with collagen deposition]
141
Q

Craniopharyngioma

A: Demographic

B: What is this CNS Tumor often confused with? What are the sx (4)?

C: What cells does it arise from?

D: Histology

A

A: [Benign Childhood tumor]

B: [Pituitary Adenoma!] since it causes:

  • Endocrine dysfunction
  • Visual sx
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Calcifications

C: Rathke’s Cleft (Rathke’s pouch remnants) —> [Rathke’s Cleft Cyst]

D: Wet Keratin contained in complex epithelium

142
Q

A1: Identify

A2: Malignant or Benign?

B: Location (2)

C: Sx (2)

D: Which associated dz has [Bilateral Acoustic Neuromas]?

E: Which Stain is used for dx

A

A1: Schwannoma

A2: Benign (involves cranial OR spinal nerves)

B: [CerebelloPontine Angle] and [Vestibulocochlear CN8 = Acoustic Neuroma]

C: [(Loss of Hearing) + Tinnitus]

D: [Neurofibromatosis Type 2]

E: S100 protein

143
Q

A: [2° CNS Metastatic Brain Tumors] come from which organs mostly? (5)

B: Which of these organs –> Hemorrhagic Metastases (3)

C: Characterization of [2° CNS Metastatic Brain Tumors] (3)

A

A: Lung > Breast > melanoma > kidney > GI

B:

  • Lung
  • Breast
  • kidney

C: MSG - [Multi vs. single] / Spherical / [Gray White Jxn]

144
Q

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

A: Genetic Cause

B: Characteristics (6)

C: Which characteristic is Pathognomonic of NF1

D: Pgn

A

A: [17q11 mutation]–> [Neurofibromin-GTPase activating protein] dysfunction

B: “CLAP ON type 1!”

  1. Neurofibroma
  2. Acoustic Schwannoma
  3. [Optic n. Glioma]
  4. Lisch nodules
  5. [Cafe Au Lait Spots]
  6. [Plexiform Neurofibroma]

C: Plexiform Neurofibroma

D: HIGH chance of Malignancy

145
Q

Neurofibromatosis Type 2

A: Genetic Cause

B: Clinical Manifestation (2)

A

A: [22q12 mutation of a tumor suppresor gene–> (Merlin cytoskeletal protein)]

B:

  • [Bilateral Acoustic Schwannomas]
  • Multiple Meningiomas
146
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis

A: Genetic Cause and Manifestation

B1: Sx (5)

B2: Which are the triad?

A

A: ([Hamartin C1 9q] and [Tuberin C2 16p])–> [Cortical & Subependymal Hamartomatous lesions] such as [SEGA-SubEpendymal Giantcell Astrocytoma] which may –> hydrocephalus

B: SAM ASh

  1. Adenoma Sebaceum (Facial angiofibroma) = triad sx
  2. Seizures = triad sx
  3. Mental Retardation = triad sx
  4. [Ash Leaf hypOmelanotic macules]
  5. [SHagreen forehead patches]

(Note: TS affects multiple organs)

Front image: Red = Tubers /// Blue = SEGA nodules

147
Q

Von Hippel Landau Dz

A: Genetic Cause

B: How does it manifest in the CNS

A

A: [Tumor cells lose [Chromo 3 VHL Tumor suppressor gene] –> [INC VEGF from Hypoxia Inducible Factor]

B: [CNS Cerebellar Hemangioblatoma]

148
Q

A: Define Seizure

B: How is it associated with LOC? How is it associated with Epilepsy?

C: What 2 Neuron Types are responsible for the MOD in Seizure

D: Demographic (2)

A

A: Clinical Event consisting of Paroxysmal episodes of [excessive neuronal discharge] that manifest physically based on area of brain affected.

B: NOT always associated with LOC and is NOT the same as epilepsy

C:

-[INC excitatory NMDA Glutamate (propagates seizure)] + [DEC inhibitory GABA (terminates seizure)]

D: [Neonates/Kids] & [Older Adults] = Bimodal

149
Q

A: Define Epilepsy

B: Is it provoked by anything?

A

A: Syndrome that includes Recurrent Seizures, in the absence of an extra-cerebral cause

B: NOT directly provoked by infection/drug withdrawal/metabolics/fever

150
Q

Seizures can be grouped into Classifications:

A: Describe Partial Seizure Types (3)

B: What’s a good way to differentiate between pts with Seizure vs. Syncope

A
  1. Simple Partial= Focal onset but with NO change in consciousness
  2. Complex Partial= Focal onset with impaired consciousness
  3. [Grand Mal Tonic-Clonic Seizures] = Generalized onset that –> Bilateral convulsive seizure

B:

*pt last memory is waking up on floor = syncope

*pt last memory is ambulance/ER = seizure

151
Q

Partial Seizures: Temporal lobe

Clinical Presentation (3)

A
  1. Epigastric Aura (fear / deja vu / olfactory & gustatory sensation)
  2. [Unresponsive Staring]
  3. CTL Limb posturing
    * TEMPORAL LOBE IS MOST COMMON LOCATION*
152
Q

Partial Seizures: Frontal lobe

Clinical Presentation (4)

A

” I NV JC for being in Front

  1. Night onset
  2. Versive mvmnt (pt Frontal Eye fields turns their head & eyes away from the seizure location)
  3. [Jacksonian March + (Post-ictal Todd’s Paralysis)]
  4. Complex mvmnts (bicycling/fencing)
    * TEMPORAL LOBE IS MOST COMMON LOCATION*
153
Q

A: Partial Seizures: Parietal lobe Clinical Presentation (2)

B: Partial Seizures: Occipital lobe Clinical Presentation

A

A: Uncommon seizures manifesting as [Lip/Finger/Toe] paresthesia + visual hallucinations

B: [Darkness with RED Light flashes] (easily confused with migraines)

154
Q

Absence Seizures

A: Demographic

B: Clinical Manifestation

C: Dx

D: Tx

A

A: [4-10 y/o]

B: Brief ( < 10 seconds) but frequent ( >10/day) [unresponsive staring spells]

C: EEG with 3 Hz spike-and-wave pattern

Young child who does poorly in school and noted to be frequently staring off into space = Typical Presentation

D:

  1. ethoSUXimide (Silent seizures SUX)
  2. [AED Peds Tx] ONLY when benefits outweigh Side Effects from a 2nd seizure. “1st seizure is for free = no tx”
155
Q

Myoclonic Seizures

A: Demographic

B: Clinical Manifestation

C: Precipitants (2)

D: Tx (2)

A

A: Teenagers (occurs in morning after waking up)

B: Myoclonic jerks (shock-like contractions of muscle groups)

C: [Alcohol vs. Sleep Deprivation]

D:

  1. Valproic Acid
  2. [AED Peds Tx] ONLY when benefits outweigh Side Effects from a 2nd seizure. “1st seizure is for free = no tx”
156
Q

Atonic Seizures

A: Clinical Manifestation (2)

B: Body parts involved (2)

C: Tx

A

A: [Sudden loss of tone] + [brief LOC]

B: [Focal (Head Drop) or ALL MUSCLES]

D: Tx resistant :-(

157
Q

[Grand Mal Tonic-Clonic Seizures]

A: Describe

B: Clinical Presentation (4)

A

A: Classic Seizure referred to as Grand Mal

  • Tonic: extension & arching
  • Clonic: Alternating contraction & relaxation

B: “FIME sounds Sublime and Grand!”

  1. [Flexion of trunk IMPROMPTLY]
  2. [Mouth opening]
  3. [Eye deviation upward]
  4. [Ictal cry at onset and post-ictal confusion]
158
Q

PseudoSeizures

A: Description

B: What Clues may Hint you to this Dx vs. True Seizures? (4)

A

A: [NON-EPILEPTIC Seizures, psychiatric in nature but tht can occur in pts with true epilepsy

B: Pt exhibits….

  • Pelvic Thrusting
  • Absent [post-ictal confusion]
  • [To-and-From movements and INC Respiratory Rate]
  • Elevated serum prolactin 10-20 min post event
  • TYPICALLY DX OF EXCLUSION*
159
Q

Seizures

Dx (4)

A
  • EEG (brain wave test)
  • [CT / MRI]
  • Labs (glucose / electrolytes / prolactin / CBC)
  • Spinal Tap (if concerned for infection)
160
Q

FEBRILE Seizure

A: MOD

B: Characteristics of Seizure (Location/Freq./Duration)

C: Demographic

D: Pgn (4)

E: Tx

A

A: Pace of Temperature development (Fever > 38.4 C)–> [Simple Febrile Seizure]

B:

  • [Generalized & non-focal]
  • Freq. = [less than 2/ day]
  • Duration= [less than 15 min. episodes]

C: [3 months - 5 y/o (most before age 3)]

D: Typically outgrown BUT does INC risk for Adult Epilepsy if at least 2 factors are present:

[Fam Hx of non-febrile seizures] / [Abnormal neuro exam] / [Focal seizures +/- Todd’s paralysis] / Prolonged seizures

E: DO NOT NEED TO TREAT but can give [Rectal Diazepam]

161
Q

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

A: CLINICAL PRESENTATION

B: CAUSES (2)

C: EVALUATION OF THE PT (4)

A

NEUROLOGICAL EMERGENCY!

A: Continuous Seizure (>5 min) that has long term consequences if > 30 min. Pt fails to regain consciousness in between episodes!

B:

  1. Med Non-compliance
  2. New-onset from [infection/trauma/SAH/Drugs/stroke]

C: AGLI the pt!

1st: ABC (Airway / Breathing / Circulation)
2nd: Check Blood Glucose and give Thiamine
3rd: IV [Lorazepam & then–> Phenytoin]
4th: ICU admission for propofol vs. [IV midazolam]
* DO NOT STICK THINGS IN [STATUS EPILEPTICUS PT] MOUTH!*

162
Q

Describe the Treatment Approach for Seizures

A
163
Q

Delirium

A: General Definition

B: Cause

C: Clinical Presentation (3)

A

A: Abrupt Acute Confusional state which alternates between agitation & obtundation.

B: CNS damage (Direct vs. Indirect)

C:

  • [fluctuating attention and consciousness]
  • memory/mood/language impairment]
  • [Tremors/Dysarthria/Myoclonus]
164
Q

Alzheimer’s Dz

Tx (2)

A

No Curative Tx!

  1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (Donepezil / Rivastigmine / Galantamine)
  2. Memantine (Aspartate Blocker)