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NBE I > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is pannus formulation

A

granulation tissue of Rheumatoid arthritis (Des affected)

Bilateral, symmetrical erosions fo ulnar styloid

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2
Q

What antibodies are made to double stranded DNA

A

SLE (malar rash, photophobia, kideny failure)

Feltys Syndrome, chronic RA increase

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3
Q

What antibodies are made to Ach receptors

A

Myasthenia Gravis, afternoon, end of day

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4
Q

What are the name of the nodes at the distal interphalangeal joints in RA

A

Heberdings

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5
Q

DIP, PIP, MCP

A

Heberdings (DIP), Buschards (PIP), Haygaurd (MCP)

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6
Q

What is it called when there is too much aldosteron

A

Chans?

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7
Q

What is it called when they is claudication in the legs of young men and heavy smokers

A

Buergers Disease (thromboangina obliterans)

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8
Q

What is it called when there is multilaminated onion skin of the periosteum

A

Ewings sarcoma (inc. in children)

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9
Q

What is the deficincy in Vitamin B1 called

A

Beri Beri

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10
Q

Human Leukocyte Antigen positive

A

Reiters Disease

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11
Q

What is the most common symptom of carcinoma

A

painless blood hematuria

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12
Q

What is another name for Ebstein Bar Virus

A

mononucleosis

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13
Q

What hypertrophy does emphysema cause

A

Right Ventricular hypertrophy

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14
Q

What disease is caused by hyperplasia and decreased T cells for thymus

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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15
Q

What cells are the most radiosensitive

A

Bone marrow

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16
Q

What vitamin is responsible for failure of thrombocytes to function properly

A

Menadione, Vitamine K3

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17
Q

A streptococcal organism is most likely to produce pathological effects on which cardiac valve

A

mitral valve

Mcullen’s patch

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18
Q

Huntingtons chorea affects caudate nucleus and _____

A

putamen

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19
Q

What do you call the caudate and putamen nuclei

A

Corpus striatum

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20
Q

What do you call the putamen and globus pallidus

A

lentiform nucleus

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21
Q

What is the only sense that does not go to the thalamus

A

Smell (lymbic system)

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22
Q

When do you see claw hand due to tight skin

A

scleroderma

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23
Q

What causes scalded skin syndrome

A

Staph

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24
Q

Describe the following tests, HLVA 27, ANA, and Latex test

A

HLVA 27: genetic test
ANA: blood test
Latex test: blood test _> sero(+)

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25
Q

What causes the crystals in pseudogout

A

calcium

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26
Q

What is another name for pseudogout

A

Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disorder (CPDD)

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27
Q

What makes up the crystals found in gout

A

uric acid

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28
Q

What WBC elevates in Listeria monocytogenes

A

neutrophils

eiosinophils-parasite

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29
Q

What WBC elevates in vacclria? (pox virrus)

A

Lymphocytes

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30
Q

Platybasia is observed in what condisiton

A

Osteitis Deformans (Paget’s)

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31
Q

What WBC elevates in Trypanosomiasis

A

Eosinophil (its a parasite)

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32
Q

Paralysis with loss of esophageal muscle tone is a finding in what condition

A

Achalasia (loss of muscle tone)

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33
Q

Which of the following is responsible for production of old age pigment

A

Lipfuscin

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34
Q

What is characterized as a form of metaplasia

A

Myositis ossifigon?

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35
Q

What is characterized as a form of dysplasia

A

Barrets

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36
Q

What bone tumor is associated with pain

A

osteoid osteoma (pain at night, relieved by aspirin)

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37
Q

What causes pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles

A

Duchennes Dystrophy

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38
Q

What condition is esophageal varices and portal hypertension commonly seen in

A

Alcoholism (Mallory Weiss Syndrome)

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39
Q

What does Tetrology of Fallot not include

A

Atrial septal defect

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40
Q

What is another name for enchondromatosis

A

Olliers Disease

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41
Q

When do you get Caisson’s disease

A

Benz from snorkling

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42
Q

What condition is linked to alpha-1-trypsin

A

Emphysema

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43
Q

Is Huntington’s Disease autosomal dominant or recessive

A

Dominant

44
Q

Is Hemophilia autosomal dominant or recessive

A

Recessive

45
Q

What sign/symptom is found with dermatomyositis

A

proximal muscle weakness

46
Q

Infection of blood vessels is most commonly seen in what condition

A

Hepatitis C (bloodborn screening)

47
Q

What are kidney stones most common from

A

calcium oxalate

48
Q

What is the mechanism by which digitalis (drug for heart failure) changes frunction in the body

A

Calcium influx

49
Q

Charcot Marie tooth disease is what kind of disease

A

Hereditary

50
Q

Where is the most common location for rhabdomyoma

A

heart (striated)

51
Q

What is the most common cause of death at the work place

A

Falls

52
Q

If a patient exhibits both intentional tremors and nystagmus, what part of the brain is dysfunctional

A

Cerebrum (brain)

53
Q

What is an onion bulb tumor of foot called

A

Mortons Neuroma

54
Q

What is the shock that is most common in burn victoms

A

Hypovelemic

55
Q

What is the leading cause of infertility in women

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome

56
Q

Which type of thrombus forms on the wall of the heart

A

Mural endothelial on the wall of vein

57
Q

Necrosis of brain tissue results in:

  • Coagulative degeneration
  • Liquefactive degeneration
  • Caseous degeneration
  • Enzymatic degeneration
A

Liquefactive degeneration

58
Q

Enlargement of airspaces primarily caused by smoking can result in:

  • chronic bronchitis
  • asthma
  • emphysema
  • pneumothorax
A

Emphysema

59
Q

This 5 yo boy has SPK 300 times, pseudohypertrophy of the calf muscles and his prognosis is very poor:

  • Erb-Duchenne
  • Becker
  • Facioscapulohumeral
  • Myotonic
A

Erb-Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

60
Q

All of the following are characteristics of myasthenia gravis except:

  • autoimmune disease of ACH receptors
  • Symptoms include ptosis and diplopia
  • Primarily affects females
  • Primarily affects males
A

EXCEPT: Primarily affects males

61
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy Syndrome:

  • Also known as Landry’s Paralysis
  • Caused by fluid filled cavities, present at birth
  • Causes staccato speech, intention tremors and nystagmus
  • Causes anhydrosis
A

Causes anhydrosis

62
Q

Wallerian degeneration of axon occurs:

  • segmentally
  • proximal to distal
  • distal to proximal
  • proximal only
A

distal to proximal

63
Q

Where would you find the tophi of gout patient:

  • knee only
  • hands only
  • helix of the ear
  • buccal mucosa
A

Helix of the ear

64
Q

A patient that present with a “pannus” formation has:

  • RA
  • Degenerative arthrits
  • Osteoarthritis
  • arthrosis
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

65
Q

Which of the following malignant tumors presents with a “sunburst” periosteal reaction:

  • Ewing’s sarcoma
  • glioblastoma
  • Krukenberg’s tumor
  • osteosarcoma
A

Osteosarcoma

66
Q

Which of the following is most common primary malignancy of bone

  • multiple myeloma
  • osteogenic sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing’s Sarcoma
A

Multiple myeloma

67
Q

Which of the following is most common primary malignancy of bone in children

  • multiple myeloma
  • osteogenic sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
  • Ewing’s Sarcoma
A

Osteogenic sarcoma

68
Q

Which of the following antibodies activates the classic complimentary pathway, is the first response and largest immunoglobulin:

  • IgA
  • IgG
  • IgE
  • IgM
A

IgM

69
Q

The MOST clinically significant progression of Osteitis Deformans is:

  • Ivory white vertebra
  • Osteosarcoma
  • Canal stenosis
  • Hearing loss
A

Osteosarcoma

70
Q

This malignancy is found in a child’s kidney

  • Glioblastoma
  • Wilm’s tumor
  • Krukenberg’s tumor
  • Medulloblastoma
A

Wilm’s Tumor

71
Q

Longstanding RA is termed:

  • Still’s disease
  • Charcot Joint
  • CPPD
  • Felty’s Syndrome
A

Felty’s syndrome

72
Q

Prinzmetal angina is caused by:

  • activity
  • emotional excitement
  • increased cardiac work
  • vasospasm of the coronary artery
A

vasospasm of the coronary artery

73
Q

The patient is very tall, has arachnodactyly hyperextensibility, and aortic arch fragility:

  • Sydenham’s Chorea
  • Cerebral palsy
  • marfans
  • Hyperadrenalism
A

Marfans

74
Q

Patients with a pheochromocytoma would:

  • Exhibit “sympathetic rushes”
  • Need a referral to an oncologist
  • have excruciating bone pain
  • show difficulty in balance while standing
A

Exhibit “sympathetic rushes”

75
Q

All of the following can cause pelvic inflammatory disease EXCEPT:

  • Neisseria gonorrhea
  • E. coli
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Anthracosis
A

Anthracosis

76
Q

One cell type changing to another is termed:

  • anaplasia
  • hyperplasia
  • metaplasia
  • aplasia
A

metaplasia

77
Q

“Skip Lesions” are associated with which of the following diseases:

  • Celiacs
  • Whipples disease
  • Regional enteritis
  • IBS
A

Regional enteritis “Chron’s”

78
Q

Multiple Myeloma has which of the following periosteal responses:

  • onion skin
  • sunburst
  • parrallel
  • no response
A

NO response

79
Q

Which of the following leukocytes increases with a viral infections:

  • neutrophil
  • basophil
  • eosinophil
  • lymphocyte
A

Lymphocyte

80
Q

An increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone will cause a moon face, hirsutism, purple striae and a buffalo hump:

  • Grave’s
  • Addison’s
  • Myxedema
  • Cushing’s
A

Cushing’s

81
Q

Hypoadrenocorticotropic hormone can result in bronze skin and hypotension:

  • cushing’s
  • addison’s
  • Myxedema
  • Graves
A

Addison’s

82
Q

Which of the following is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex?

  • Aldosterone
  • epinephrine
  • cortisol
  • serotonin
A

Aldosterone

83
Q

What does aldosterone absorb? Excrete?

A

Absorbes-sodium

Excretes-potasium

84
Q

Damage to the liver can lead to:

  • decrease lipid and protein metabolism
  • decreased lipid digestion
  • decreased lipid metabolism
  • decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulation
A

decreased lipid digestion and synthesis, and impaired blood sugar regulation

85
Q

Which of the following are the quickest adapters:

  • Pacinian corpuscle
  • Meissner’s corpuscle
  • Merkel’s corpuscle
  • hair follicles
A

Pacinian corpuscles

86
Q

Which of the following is “inhibitory”:

  • norepinephrine
  • glutamate
  • nitric oxide
  • dopamine
A

dopamine

87
Q

Decreased intrapleural pressure causes:

  • expiration
  • inspiration
  • hypoventilation
  • hyperventialaion
A

Inspiration

88
Q

What controls the pace of the heart

  • AV node
  • SA node
  • purkinje fibers
  • Myocardium
A

SA node

89
Q

What produces the first beat of the heart:

  • Semilunar valve closing
  • AV valves opening
  • AV valves closing
  • Semilunar valve openins
A

AV valves closing

90
Q

What is the function of surfactant:

  • Increase surface tension
  • Decrease surface tension
  • Reduce intrapleural pressure
  • increase tidal volume
A

Decrease surface tension

91
Q

Oxytocin stimulates:

  • milk let down and growth of the corpus luteum
  • milk let down and breast development in pregnancy
  • Milk let down and secondary sexual characteristics
  • Milk let down and uterine contraction
A

milk let down and uterine contraction

92
Q

According to the Frank-Straling law, the critical factor controlling stroke volume is:

  • Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract
  • heart rate
  • stroke volume amplitude
  • autonomic nervous system regulation
A

Degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle cells just before they contract

93
Q

What point on the myosin protein does ATPase attach

  • Tail
  • head
  • body
  • hillock
A

head

94
Q

Vital capacity includes:

  • Function respiratory capacity and tidal volume
  • Inspiratory capacity and residual volume
  • inspiratory reserve and residual volume
  • inspiratory reserve and tidal volume and expiratory reserve
A

inspiratory reserve and tidal volume and expiratory reserve

95
Q

Which of the following characteristics are similar for smooth and skeletal muscle:

  • length of actin filaments
  • Contracts in response to action potentials, which begin following stimulation by motor neurons
  • Calcium ions are crucial to contraction
  • Strength of contraction per cross sectional area of muscle
A

Calcium ions are crucial to contraction

96
Q

The myocardium plateau is due mainly to the:

  • delayed influx of calcium
  • calmodulin present in myocardium
  • sodium-calcium exchange channels
  • summation of repetitive action potentials from the sinoatrial node
A

Sodium-calcium exchange channels

97
Q

In which portion of the renal tubules does the majority of absorption take place:

  • Collecting duct
  • loop of Henle
  • Proximal convoluted tubule
  • Distal convoluted tubule
A

Proximal convoluted tubule

98
Q

An influx in sodium causes:

  • repolarization
  • hyperpolarization
  • depolarization
  • no polarzation
A

depolarization

99
Q

What blood test finding best describes respiratory acidosis:

  • Increased pH
  • no change in pH
  • decreased pH
  • very little change in pH
A

Decreased pH

100
Q

Post synaptic contraction of skeletal muscle is due to:

  • Release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • calcium influx into the cell at the myo-synaptic junction
  • influx of sodium
  • efflux of potassium
A

Release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum

101
Q

The juxtagolmerular apparatus releases renin in response to:

  • decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole
  • constriction of the efferent arteriole
  • decreased sodium in the proximal convoluted tubules
  • decreased potassium in the proximal convoluted tubules
A

decreased pressure in the afferent arteriole

102
Q

Chromaffin cells are developed from___ and are associated with the ___ part of the autonomic nervous system:

  • Neural crest; parasympathetic
  • neural crest; sympathetic
  • mesoderm; sympathetic
  • mesoderm; parasympathetic
A

neural crest; sympathetic

103
Q

Hyperventilation will cause:

  • respiratory alkalosis
  • respiratory acidosis
  • metabolic acidosis
  • metabolic alkalosis
A

respiratory alkalosis

104
Q

The peptide believed to be an import CNS neurotransmitter in pain sensation pathways is:

  • bradykinin
  • enkephalin
  • substance P
  • dopamine
A

substance P

105
Q

Stenosis of the mitral valve can result in hypertrophy of the ____, due to increased mechanical resistance during contraction:

  • Left atrium
  • Right atrium
  • Left ventricle
  • Right ventricle
A

Left atrium

106
Q

All of the following are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT:

  • Sudoriferous glands
  • exocrine glands
  • mucosal glands
  • sublingual glands
A

Sudoriferous glands

NBE I (6 decks)

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