Amino Acids: Disposal of Nitrogen. Flashcards

1
Q

What is the chemical formula for ammonia?

A

NH3.

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2
Q

What is the chemical formula for ammonium?

A

NH4+.

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3
Q

What kind of food products are amino acids found?

A

In proteins.

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4
Q

Why do amino acids differ from other dietary foods?

A

Because they contain nitrogen which cannot be stored in the body.

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5
Q

What does the metabolism of amino acids require?

A

For nitrogen to disposed of in a non toxic way.

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6
Q

What can aminos acids be used to make?

A

Proteins.

Energy.

Specialised products.

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7
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

10 essential amino acids.

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8
Q

Where do we obtain our essential amino acids from?

A

From the diet.

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9
Q

How many non essential amino acids are there?

A

10 non-essential amino acids.

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10
Q

What does the body use dietary proteins for?

A

To synthesise body proteins.

They can also be used to make specialised products.

They can be used as a source of energy.

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11
Q

What specialised products does the body use proteins to make?

A

Heme.

Neurotransmitters.

Nucleotides.

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12
Q

Can amino acids be used as precursors for gluconeogenesis?

A

Yes.

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13
Q

What is the most common amino acid that is used as a precursor for gluconeogenesis?

A

Alanine.

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14
Q

How can alanine be used to form pyruvate?

A

It is converted to a keto acid and then to pyruvate.

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15
Q

How much of a standard American diet comes from protein?

A

Around 20%.

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16
Q

What element does the metabolism of amino acids produce?

A

Nitrogen.

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17
Q

Can nitrogen be stored in the body?

A

No.

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18
Q

Why is nitrogen not stored in the body?

A

Because it can easily form ammonia which is very toxic, especially to the nervous system.

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19
Q

Are the proteins that make up the body ever degraded?

A

Yes.

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20
Q

An adult human will turnover how many grams of protein per day?

A

Around 400g.

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21
Q

What happens to the proteins that are turned over by the body?

A

They are combined with dietary proteins and are broken down to create a pool of amino acids.

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22
Q

What percentage of turned over amino acids are recycled by the body?

A

Around 80%.

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23
Q

What are the amino acids that are recycled by the body used for?

A

To synthesise proteins.

Energy production.

To specialised products.

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24
Q

What is very important to maintain in protein degradation and synthesis?

A

Balance.

This is called nitrogen balance.

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25
Q

Do all proteins have the same lifetime?

A

No.

Different proteins have different life spans, some can last for years and others for days or even minutes.

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26
Q

How many signals do are used for protein degradation?

A

3 signals.

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27
Q

What do the signals for protein degradation depend on?

A

The structural aspect of the protein.

Post translational modification.

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28
Q

What are the 3 signals for protein degradation?

A

Oxidation.

PEST sequences.

Ubiquitination.

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29
Q

What is the oxidation signal for protein degradation?

A

It is a generic signal that occurs if the protein has been damaged by oxidation and needs to be destroyed.

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30
Q

What is the PEST signal for protein degradation?

A

Many proteins have sequences containing 4 amino acids that form the acronym PEST in their primary structures.

These proteins have a very short half-life as their sequences are a signal for the body to destroy the protein.

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31
Q

What amino acids make up the PEST sequence used for protein degradation?

A

Proline Glutamate Serine Threonine

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32
Q

What is the ubiquitination signal used for protein degradation?

A

It is a mechanism where cellular proteins are tagged with a small protein called ubiquitin.

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33
Q

What happens to cellular proteins that are tagged with ubiquitin?

A

They enter a special organelle called a proteasome and the protein will be degraded.

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34
Q

Are enzymes destroyed by ubiquitination?

A

Yes.

Enzymes such HMG-CoA are de-activated by ubiquitination.

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35
Q

What are the macronutrients that make up our diet?

A

Carbohydrates.

Proteins.

Fats.

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36
Q

What is the caloric contribution of each of the macronutrients from the diet?

A

Carbs. 4 kcal/gram.

Protein. 4 kcal/gram.

Fat. 9 kcal/gram.

Alcohol. 7 kcal/gram.

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37
Q

What micronutrients are consumed in the diet?

A

Essential fatty acids.

Essential amino acids.

Vitamins.

Minerals.

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38
Q

What % of the diet do carbs, fats and proteins make up in a standard diet?

A

Carbs. 50%.

Proteins. 20%.

Fats. 10%.

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39
Q

What molecules make up carbohydrates?

A

Polysaccharides. (Starch).

Disaccharides. (Sucrose and lactose).

Monosaccharides. (Glucose, fructose, galactose).

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40
Q

What molecules make up proteins?

A

Proteins.

Amino acids.

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41
Q

What molecules make up fats?

A

Triacylglycerol.

Fatty acids (90%).

Phospholipids.

Cholesterol.

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42
Q

What are the major catabolic pathways that involve carbohydrates?

A

Glycolysis.

Pyruvate dehydrogenase.

TCA cycle.

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43
Q

What are the major catabolic pathways that involve fats?

A

Beta oxidation.

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44
Q

How much energy will the body take from food?

A

It will take all the energy it needs and will store the rest.

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45
Q

What forms will the body use to store energy?

A

Fats.

Glycogen.

Proteins.

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46
Q

What happens to the fats glycogen and proteins that are stored in the body?

A

They are stored until their energy needs to be released.

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47
Q

How much fat does the average human body have and how much energy does the body store in fat?

A

15 Kg of stored fat = 135,000 Kcal.

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48
Q

How much protein does the average human body have and how much energy does the body store as protein?

A

6 Kg of stored protein = 24,000 Kcal.

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49
Q

How much glycogen does the average human body have and how much energy does the body store as glycogen?

A

0.2 Kg of stored glycogen = 800 Kcal.

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50
Q

Which stored form of energy can be created straight to energy?

A

Fats can be converted directly to energy via beta oxidation.

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51
Q

What must glycogen and amino acids be converted to before they can give energy?

A

Protein must be converted to amino acids.

Glycogen must be converted to glucose.

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52
Q

What is the glucose that is made in the fasting state used to power?

A

Certain tissues that cannot run on fatty acids such as the brain and red blood cells.

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53
Q

Will nitrogen containing molecules ever be stored in the body?

A

Nitrogen containing molecules will never be stored in the body.

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54
Q

What are excess amino acids used for?

A

For protein synthesis, energy or specialised products.

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55
Q

What is the protein input and output in an adult?

A

The input of proteins is equal to the output of proteins.

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56
Q

Will any humans have a positive nitrogen balance?

A

Children have a positive nitrogen balance as they take in more than they excrete.

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57
Q

Why do children need to eat more nitrogen than they excrete?

A

Because of the increased protein synthesis that is involved in growth.

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58
Q

What is a negative nitrogen balance usually caused by?

A

A larger output than input.

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59
Q

A negative nitrogen balance is usually caused by what?

A

Trauma which causes stress hormones to degrade amino acids in muscle leading to a loss of nitrogen.

Or by inadequate consumption dietary protein.

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60
Q

What is the worst type of negative nitrogen balance?

A

The lack of an essential amino acid.

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61
Q

What will the lack of an essential amino acid result in?

A

If 1 essential amino acid is missing then a protein cannot be synthesised.

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62
Q

What will diets that are low in protein result in?

A

A deficiency of essential amino acids which results in a breakdown of tissue protein.

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63
Q

What will a long term low protein diet cause?

A

Kwashiorkor syndrome.

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64
Q

What are the symptoms of Kwashikor syndrome?

A

The distended belly that is seen in famine victims.

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65
Q

What effects does Kwashikor syndrome have on the body?

A

The body cannot recycle its proteins so it will begin to excrete them leading to loss of muscle.

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66
Q

How does the body deal with amino acids that are obtained in a high protein diet?

A

The ammonia is removed and excreted.

The carbon skeleton is stored as fat or converted to glucose.

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67
Q

What enzyme will break down proteins in the stomach?

A

A protease enzyme called pepsin.

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68
Q

What does pepsin break proteins down to?

A

To form smaller peptides and amino acids.

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69
Q

What must happen to large proteins before they can be broken down?

A

They must be hydrolysed.

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70
Q

Does the digestion of proteins occur in the small intestine?

A

Yes.

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71
Q

How do the enzymes that break down proteins in the small intestine enter the small intestine?

A

As zymogens.

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72
Q

Where are the zymogens that are secreted into the small intestine made?

A

In the pancreas.

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73
Q

What are the active enzymes that break down proteins called?

A

Trypsin and chymotrypsin.

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74
Q

What enzyme found in in the intestinal mucosal cells will also help to break down proteins?

A

An enzyme called amino-peptidase.

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75
Q

How is trypsin activated from its zymogen form of trypsinogen?

A

Enteropeptidase cleaves trypsinogen to form trypsin

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76
Q

What process is used to activate trypsin from trypsinogen?

A

Proteolytic cleavage.

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77
Q

What is responsible for activating all of the zymogens other than trypsin?

A

Trypsin perform proteolytic cleavage on the other zymogens to activate them.

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78
Q

What is the zymogen pepsinogen activated to?

A

Pepsin.

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79
Q

What is the zymogen chymotrypsinogen activated to?

A

Chymotrypsin.

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80
Q

What is the zymogen proelastase activated to?

A

Elastase.

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81
Q

What is the zymogen procarboxypeptidases activated to?

A

Carboxypeptidases.

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82
Q

What do proteins form once they have been broken down in the small intestine?

A

Free amino acids or dipeptides.

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83
Q

What parts of a digested protein will cross into the intestinal epithelial cell?

A

Free amino acids and dipeptides.

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84
Q

What happens to dipeptides once they enter the intestinal epithelial cell?

A

They are cleaved to amino acids by amino peptidase.

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85
Q

What happens to the individual amino acids once they enter the intestinal mucosal cell?

A

They enter the bloodstream.

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86
Q

What is the only component of dietary proteins that enters the bloodstream?

A

The individual amino acids.

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87
Q

Where are the individual amino acids that enter the bloodstream taken to?

A

The liver.

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88
Q

What happens to the amino acids in the blood once they reach the liver?

A

They are metabolised or are released back into circulation.

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89
Q

What must amino acids form so that they can be used for energy?

A

Either a carbon skeleton or a keto-acid.

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90
Q

The formation of a carbon skeleton or keto acid from an amino acid involves the removal of what from the amino acid?

A

The removal of the amino group from the amino acid.

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91
Q

What is the amino group replaced with when it is removed to form a keto acid?

A

A ketone group.

92
Q

Does every amino acid have a corresponding keto acid that can be derived from it?

A

Yes.

93
Q

The keto acid of what amino acid will always give a pyruvate molecule?

A

The keto acid of alanine will always give a pyruvate molecule.

94
Q

The keto acid of alanine can be used in what glucose making process?

A

Gluconeogenesis.

95
Q

If an amino acid is to be catabolised what must it be converted to?

A

A keto-acid.

96
Q

What is the process of converting an amino acid to a keto-acid called?

A

Transamination.

97
Q

What are the usual products of transamination?

A

An alpha keto-acid and glutamate.

98
Q

What can the glutamate that is made via transamination be used for?

A

It can donate its amino group to the synthesis of new amino acids or it can be oxidatively deaminated.

99
Q

What kind of molecules carry out transamination?

A

Transaminases.

100
Q

The transfer of the amino group to new amino acids is carried out by what molecules?

A

Aminotranferases.

101
Q

Which amino acids can take part in transamination?

A

All amino acids except lysine and threonine.

102
Q

What enzymes are involved in the transamination of alanine and aspartate are called?

A

Alanine transaminase (AST).

Aspartate amino transferase (ALT).

103
Q

Is the term transaminase and transferase synonymous with each other?

A

Yes.

104
Q

What happens when a transamination reaction is carried out?

A

The amino group is transferred from an amino acid to an acceptor keto acid.

105
Q

Are transamination reactions always reversible?

A

Yes.

106
Q

What coenzyme does transamination always need?

A

Vitamin B6.

107
Q

What is alanine transaminase abbreviated to?

A

ALT.

108
Q

What is alanine transaminase also known as?

A

Glutamate-pyruvate transaminase.

109
Q

Where in the body is ALT found in high concentrations?

A

In the liver.

110
Q

What reaction is catalysed by alanine transaminase?

A

The transfer of the amino group from alanine to alpha keto-gluterate to form pyruvate and glutamate.

111
Q

What amino acid is said to collect nitrogen from other amino acids?

A

Glutamate.

112
Q

What do many amino acids use as a keto acid in their transaminase reactions?

A

Alpha-ketogluterate.

113
Q

What does alanine transaminase use as a coenzyme?

A

Vitamin B6.

114
Q

Is the transamination of alanine to pyruvate reversible?

A

Yes.

115
Q

Will ALT work with any other amino acids other than alanine?

A

No.

116
Q

Alanine + alpha-ketogluterate and ALT gives what?

A

L-glutamate + pyruvate.

117
Q

What is AST also known as?

A

Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase.

118
Q

Where in the body is AST found?

A

In high concentrations in a variety of tissues as well as in high concentrations in the liver.

119
Q

What reaction does AST catalyse?

A

The donation of the amino group from glutamate to AKG to form aspartate and oxaloacetate.

120
Q

What transaminase reaction is the exception where AKG is converted to form glutamate?

A

The aspartate transaminase reaction.

121
Q

What coenzyme does the aspartate transaminase reaction use?

A

Vitamin B6.

122
Q

Is the formation of aspartate and oxaloacetate by aspartate transaminase reversible?

A

Yes.

123
Q

What cycle can the aspartate formed by the aspartate transaminase reaction enter?

A

The urea cycle.

124
Q

Glutamate + alpha-ketogluterate and AST gives what?

A

Aspartate + oxaloacetate.

125
Q

What does the donation of amino groups from various amino acids to AKG form?

A

A surplus of glutamate.

126
Q

What must happen to the surplus of glutamate that is formed by the transamination of amino acids?

A

It is oxidatively deaminated.

127
Q

What is the process of oxidative de-amination?

A

A process where the nitrogen is removed from glutamate by an enzyme called glutamate dehydrogenase.

128
Q

Where is glutamate dehydrogenase found?

A

In the mitochondria.

129
Q

What does the removal of ammonia from glutamate form?

A

It will re-form alpha keto gluterate.

130
Q

What can metabolic process can alpha keto gluterate be used in?

A

The TCA cycle.

131
Q

What co-enzyme does glutamate dehydrogenase require to convert glutamate to AKG and ammonia?

A

NAD+ or NADP+ which will be reduced to NADH or NADPH.

132
Q

Is the reaction that is catalysed by glutamate dehydrogenase reversible?

A

Yes.

This means that glutamate can be synthesised this way.

133
Q

What is the process of the synthesis of glutamate from oxaloacetate and ammonia called?

A

Reductive amination.

134
Q

Is the synthesis of ammonia by glutamate dehydrogenase the only way that ammonia can be synthesised?

A

No.

135
Q

Does oxidative amination add or remove ammonia?

A

It removes ammonia to from oxaloacetate and ammonia.

136
Q

Does reducttive amination add or remove ammonia?

A

It adds ammonia to form glutamate.

137
Q

What coenzymes doe glutamate dehydrogenase require?

A

NAD+ or NADP+.

138
Q

What is the breakdown of glutamate activated by?

A

Low energy molecules (ADP/GDP).

139
Q

What is the synthesis of glutamate activated by?

A

High energy molecules (ATP/GTP).

140
Q

Most of the amino acids in the body are what kind of stereo isomer of amino acids?

A

L-amino acids.

141
Q

What is the steroisomer of the L amino acid?

A

The D-amino acid.

142
Q

How do D-amino acids sometimes enter the body?

A

Via the diet.

143
Q

Are D-amino acids metabolised in the same way as L-amino acids.

A

No.

144
Q

What enzyme metabolises D-amino acids?

A

D-amino acid oxidase.

145
Q

What co-enzymes does D-amino acid oxidase use?

A

FAD+ and vitamin B2.

146
Q

What will D-amino acid oxidase convert a D-amino acid to?

A

A keto-acid.

147
Q

Can D-keto acids be formed?

A

No.

As it is not possible to make a stereoisomer of a keto-acid.

148
Q

What can the body do with keto acids?

A

They can be used by the body as energy.

They can undergo transamination to form an L-amino acid.

149
Q

What is often made from the transamination of amino acids?

A

Glutamate and aspartate.

150
Q

What are glutamate and aspartate said to collect during transamination reactions?

A

Nitrogen.

151
Q

How can ammonia be removed from glutamate that is formed by transamination?

A

By glutamate dehydrogenase.

152
Q

What does the body use the urea cycle for?

A

To de-toxify ammonia.

153
Q

What is ammonia packaged into by the urea cycle?

A

By packaging it into a molecule called urea which is then excreted as urine.

154
Q

What is the best way that the body has of excreting nitrogen?

A

The urea cycle.

155
Q

Where does the urea cycle take place?

A

In the mitochondria and the cytoplasm of liver cells.

156
Q

Where does the free ammonia that enters the urea cycle come from?

A

From the glutamate dehydrogenase step.

From the aspartate transaminase step.

157
Q

What does urea contain?

A

1 carbon.

1 oxygen.

2 nitrogens.

158
Q

Where does the carbon and oxygen in urea come from?

A

CO2.

159
Q

What is the only organ that can make urea?

A

The liver.

160
Q

What happens to urea once it is synthesised?

A

It will be transported to the kidneys for excretion.

161
Q

What step of the urea cycle is the rate limiting step?

A

Step 1, where carbamyl phosphate is formed.

162
Q

What organelle does the urea cycle begin in?

A

The mitochondria.

163
Q

What happens in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

Ammonia and CO2, along with 2 ATP molecules will form carbamyl phosphate.

164
Q

What enzyme is used in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

Carbamyl phosphate synthase-1 (CPS-1).

165
Q

What is the allosteric activator of CPS-1 in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

N-acetyl glutamate.

166
Q

Will CPS-1 work without its allosteric activator in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

No.

167
Q

The synthesis of N-acetyl glutamate is increased by what?

A

A protein rich meal containing lots of glutamate and arginine.

168
Q

What amino acids will stimulate the synthesis of N-acetyl glutamate which is the allosteric regulator of CPS-1 in the urea cycle?

A

Arginine.

Glutamate.

169
Q

What is the substrate for CPS-1 in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

CO2 and ammonia.

170
Q

What is the product for CPS-1 in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

Carbamyl phosphate.

171
Q

What coenzymes does CPS-1 use in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

2 ATP molecules.

172
Q

What is CPS-1 activated by in step 1 of the urea cycle?

A

N-acetyl glutamate (allosteric).

173
Q

What happens in step 2 of the urea cycle, once carbamyl phosphate is formed?

A

Carbamyl phosphate will combine with an amino acid called ornithine.

174
Q

What is the product of step 2 of the urea cycle?

A

Citrulline.

175
Q

What enzyme is used in step 2 of the urea cycle?

A

Ornithine transcarbamoylase.

176
Q

What product of the urea cycle is transported out of the mitochondria?

A

Citrulline.

177
Q

What happens in step 3 of the urea cycle once citrulline has been transported into the cytoplasm?

A

An aspartate molecule combines with citrulline to form arginiosuccinate.

178
Q

What enzyme is used in step 3 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginiosuccinate synthase.

179
Q

Where do the 2 nitrogen atoms on arginiosuccinate come from?

A

1 from ammonia and 1 from aspartate.

180
Q

What co-enzymes are used by arginiosuccinate synthase?

A

1 ATP molecule.

181
Q

What is the product of step 3 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginiosuccinate.

182
Q

What happens in step 4 of the urea cycle once arginiosuccinate has been formed?

A

Arginiosuccinate is broken down to fumarate and the amino acid arginine.

183
Q

What enzymes is used in step 4 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginiosuccinate lyase.

184
Q

Where are the 2 nitrogen molecules located on arginine?

A

On carbon 1 so they can be removed together to form urea.

185
Q

How is arginine made in the body?

A

Via step 4 of the urea cycle.

186
Q

What can the fumarate formed in step 4 of the urea cycle be used for?

A

The fumarate that is produced is a carbon skeleton that can be converted to a number of products such as glucose or aspartate.

187
Q

What is the substrate used in step 4 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginiosuccinate.

188
Q

What is the product formed in step 4 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginine and fumarate.

189
Q

What happens in step 5 of the urea cycle once arginine and fumarate have been formed?

A

The 2 nitrogens are removed from carbon 1 of arginine as ammonia and an oxygen is added to this to form urea.

190
Q

Are the steps of the urea cycle reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible.

191
Q

What enzyme is used in step 5 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginase.

192
Q

What is the substrate in step 5 of the urea cycle?

A

Arginine.

193
Q

What is the product in step 5 of the urea cycle?

A

Urea and ornithine.

194
Q

What happens to the ornithine that is formed in step 5 of the urea cycle?

A

It can go back into the mitochondria and re-enter the urea cycle.

195
Q

What enzymes of the urea cycle are found in the mitochondria?

A

Carbamyl phosphate synthase-1 (rate limiting enzyme).

Ornithine transcarbamoylase.

196
Q

What enzymes of the urea cycle are found in the cytoplasm?

A

Arginiosuccinate synthase.

Arginiosuccinate lyase.

Arginase.

197
Q

What happens to the urea that is produced in the liver?

A

It will be transported to the kidneys where it is excreted in urine.

198
Q

How can kidney failure affect the urea cycle?

A

Kidney failure can result in the inability to excrete urea and this causes hyperammonemia.

199
Q

What 3 factors regulate the urea cycle?

A

Regulation of CPS-1 by N acetylglutamate.

Substrate concentration.

The induction of enzymes involved in the urea cycle.

200
Q

What is the substrate for the urea cycle?

A

NH4+.

201
Q

What will lead to an increase of the enzymes in the urea cycle?

A

They will increase with protein metabolism.

202
Q

Can ammonia be be formed by many processes in the body?

A

Yes.

203
Q

What are 5 other processes that can form ammonia in the body?

A

Glutamine via renal glutaminase.

Glutamine via the intestinal mucosal cells.

Bacterial action in the intestine.

Amines from the diet and degradation of neurotransmitters.

The catabolism of purines and pyrimidines.

204
Q

What is the most common way that ammonia is transported through the body?

A

As urea.

205
Q

Urea is used to transport ammonia from where to where?

A

From the liver to the kidney.

206
Q

How is ammonia from peripheral sources tranported through the body?

A

It will be transported as glutamine.

207
Q

What enzyme will catalyse the synthesis of glutamine from peripheral ammonia?

A

Glutamine synthetase.

208
Q

What coenzymes does glutamine synthetase use to make glutamine?

A

ATP.

209
Q

Glutamine synthetase will mainly form glutamine from ammonia in what tissues?

A

Peripheral tissues such as the muscle, the liver and the brain.

210
Q

When will glutamine be removed from the bloodstream?

A

If glutamine has a higher plasma concentration than other amino acids.

211
Q

What enzyme will remove glutamine from the bloodstream?

A

Glutaminase.

212
Q

Where is the enzyme glutaminase found?

A

In the kidney and the liver.

213
Q

What will glutaminase convert glutamine to?

A

To ammonia which is excreted and glutamate is re-formed.

214
Q

What happens to ammonia formed by glutaminase in the liver?

A

It is transported to the kidney and excreted.

215
Q

What is hyperammonemia caused by?

A

An inability to remove ammonia from the body.

216
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperammonemia?

A

Tremors.

Slurring of speech.

Blurred vision.

Coma followed by death.

217
Q

How can hyperammonemia be acquired?

A

Through alcoholism, hepatitis or biliary obstruction.

218
Q

What causes hereditary hyperammonemia?

A

Genetic defects in any of the 6 enzymes that are involved in the urea cycle.

219
Q

What symptoms does hereditary hyperammonemia have?

A

Mental retardation and hyperammonemia in the 1st week of birth.

220
Q

What causes type 2 hyperammonemia?

A

A deficiency in orthinine transcarbamoylase.

221
Q

How can hyperammonemia be treated?

A

Low protein diet.

Lactulose.

Neomycin.

222
Q

What is Reyes syndrome?

A

A condition that primarily occurs in children who have chickenpox or influenza and are given salicylates.

This condition affects the mitochondria and will disrupt the urea cycle.

223
Q

What characterises Reyes syndrome?

A

High levels of transaminase in the blood.

224
Q

What reactions in the body incorporate ammonia?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase.

Glutamine synthetase.

Carbamoyl phosphatase synthetase-1.

225
Q

Where does the urea cycle take place?

A

Only in the liver.