Public Health recap Flashcards

1
Q

Incidence

A

number of new cases of a disease/ condition in a population per unit time (usually per year)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prevalence

A

number of existing cases of a disease/ condition in a population at a given point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is meant by primary prevention

A

Aims to prevent the onset of disease and involves interventions that are applied before any evidence of disease is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is secondary prevention

A

Detection of disease in earliest stages before symptoms are present and intervening to slow, stop or reverse disease progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is tertiary prevention

A

Interventions designed to arrest the progress of established disease and minimise its negative consequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is bias

A

a systematic deviation from the true estimation of the association between exposure and outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is selection bias

A

Systematic error in selection/allocation of study participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is information bias

A

Systematic error in measurement/classification of exposure or outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

**What is screening

A

A process which identifies apparently well individuals who may be at increased risk of developing a condition in the early stages of a condition so that intervention can alter the disease course → reduce morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Examples of screening programs

A
Bowel (60-74)
Breast (50-70, soon to become 47-73)
Cervical cancer (over 25s)
AAA (men >65)
Fetal anomaly screening programme (FASP at 20 weeks)
Diabetic eye screening (yearly)
Newborn and infant physical examination (NIPE within 72 hours birth)
Newborn heel prick test (at 5 days)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Principles of screening

A
Important condition
Population for screening identified
Cost effective
Natural history of disease must be known
Early/latent stage recognisable
Suitable test (safe, acceptable to public, appropriate for condition)
Effective and acceptable treatment
Continuous process, not one off event
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is True Positive

A

Result is positive and they actually have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is True Negative

A

Result is negative and they do NOT have disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is False positive

A

Result is positive but they do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is False negative

A

Result is negative but they do have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sensitivity

A

Ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Specificity

A

Ability of test to correctly exclude those who don’t have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PPV

A

proportion of the positive results that are true positives

19
Q

NPV

A

proportion of the negative results that are true negatives

20
Q

Limitations of screening

A

False positives - unnecessary stress to those who dont have the disease
Negative results mean people feel they have a license to take risks
Over detection of sub-clinical cases
‘Harm” from screening e.g. radiation exposure in mammography

21
Q

Limitations of using PSA as a screening test for prostate cancer

A

Not very specific to prostate ca as it can be elevated by a number of conditions
eg: prostatis

22
Q

Limitation of using D-dimer to detect pulmonary embolism? Is is a sensitive/specific test?

A

D-dimer is very sensitive but not very specific

Therefore it picks up PE if it’s there but can be elevated due to a number of conditions including pregnancy

23
Q

What is absolute risk, give example

A

Risk of developing a disease (eg: lung cancer) over a time period
Eg: risk of lung cancer is 45/ 300 in smokers and 5/700 in non smokers

24
Q

What is relative risk, give example

A

Risk of getting a disease (eg: lung cancer) in exposed group (eg: smokers) compared to an unexposed group (eg: non-smokers)
It’s a ratio so has NO UNITS
Eg: 45/300 divided by 5/700 = 21.4 x the risk of lung cancer in smokers compared to non smokers

25
Q

What is absolute risk reduction

A

Rate of disease in exposed that may be attributed to exposure.
Ie: incidence in exposed minus incidence in unexposed.
Eg: 45/300 (risk of lung cancer in smokers) – 5/700 (risk of lung cancer in non-smokers).

26
Q

How to calculate number needed to treat for one person to benefit

A

NNT = 1/ARR

round up

27
Q

Define a never event

A

a serious, largely avoidable patient safety event which should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented

28
Q

examples of never events

A

Wrong site surgery/ foreign object retained.
Wrong drug dose/ route.
ABO incompatibility.
Mental health: escape of transfer patient.

29
Q

Difference between error and neglect

A

Error: an unintended outcome.
Neglect: falling below the acceptable standard of care.

30
Q

Types of error

A

Errors of commission: doing something.

Errors of omission: not doing something.

31
Q

What are latent errors

A

Errors in the system

e.g. not having 2 people to check a drug chart

32
Q

What is the Swiss Cheese Model

A

Each layer represents processes which have been put in place to prevent errors happening.
Holes are where processes can fail.
When the holes in the cheese line up an error can occur.

33
Q

*Define negligence

A

Breach of legal duty of care owed which results in harm to that patient

34
Q

4 questions to determine if negligence has occured

A

Was there a duty of care?
Was that duty of care breached?
Did the patient come to harm?
Was the harm due to the breach in duty of care?

35
Q

2 tests of negligence

A

Bolam: would a group of reasonable doctors have done the same?
Bolitho: would it have been reasonable of them to do so?

36
Q

Factors affecting patient compliance

A

Socioeconomic – related factors eg. long distance from treatment setting
Health system – related factors eg. supply of medication
Condition – related factors eg. memory impairment
Therapy – related factors eg. complex treatment regimens
Patient – related factors eg. disbelief/denial of diagnosis

37
Q

List as many coronary artery disease risk factors as possible

A
Increased Age
Male Gender
Family History
Smoking
Obesity
Hypertension
Hyperlipidaemia
Diabetes Mellitus
Sedentary Lifestyle
Psychosocial Wellbeing
Alcohol Consumption
Genetic Factors
Plasma Lipoprotein(a) concentration
Coagulation Factors
C-Reactive Protein
NSAIDs
38
Q

Principles of treatment of substance misuse

A

Minimise harm eg. decrease risk of blood-borne virus infection/transmission
Substitute prescribing eg. methadone or buprenorphine for opioid addiction
Psychosocial interventions
Residential treatment
Self-help groups

39
Q

*What are the 3 times you can break confidentiality?

A

If they are a risk to the public (they intend to commit a crime) - benefits to society/an individual outweigh the benefits of maintaining confidentiality
If they have given consent
If it is required by law - notifiable diseases e.g. ebola

40
Q

Examples of vaccines and their uses

A

Meningitis B vaccine (protection against meningococcal group B bacteria)
5in1 vaccine (protection against Hib bacteria)
Pneumococcal vaccine (protects against pneumococcal bacteria)
Hib/Men C (protects against Hib and Meningococcal group C bacteria)

41
Q

*Endemic

A

disease permanently present within a population in a particular geographical area and /or normal prevalence of the disease

42
Q

*Epidemic

A

an increase in the prevalence of a disease above the number usually observed in the population in a particular area

43
Q

Pandemic

A

an EPIDEMIC which occurs in several countries or continents