Chapter Quizzes Flashcards
It is a busy Friday night in the aid room when a child arrives complaining of abdominal pain. The child states that her parents dropped her off and that they are at the movies. You are concerned because the child is a minor with no adult to give consent for treatment. You would: A) recognize that you must have some adult’s permission and try to locate an aunt or an uncle. B) do as much of an assessment as possible without touching the child to determine if a life-threatening emergency exists. C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat. D) recognize that you need the parents’ consent and try to reach them by phone.
C) recognize that the child needs to be assessed and that there is implied consent to treat.
Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as: A) emergency rescue protection laws. B) volunteer rescue liability laws. C) first rescuer liability laws. D) Good Samaritan laws.
D) Good Samaritan laws.
Most teaching systems have found that the most effective way to master technical skills is by: A) teaching the skills to a class. B) personally practicing the skills. C) memorizing the skill guides in a book. D) observing others doing the skills.
B) personally practicing the skills.
In order to maintain OEC certification, you must: A) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every three years. B) demonstrate CPR and AED skills every two years. C) complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every year. D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
D) complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.
What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 8-year-old male victim of a motorcycle collision? A) Implied consent B) Expressed consent C) Informed consent D) Assumed consent
A) Implied consent
You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn’t want help. You hesitate to touch her because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of: A) duty to act. B) battery. C) breach of duty. D) assault.
B) battery.
While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of control. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it provides evidence of: A) assumption of risk. B) contributory negligence. C) willful negligence. D) gross negligence.
B) contributory negligence.
You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as: A) the absence of negligence. B) moral obligation. C) professional ethics. D) the doctrine of public reliance.
D) the doctrine of public reliance.
Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency medical personnel? A) Public education B) Quality improvement C) Continuity of care D) Prevention training
B) Quality improvement
Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area’s medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are: A) advanced procedures. B) protocols. C) medical attributes. D) policies.
B) protocols.
Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette? A) Hold the transmit key in for 1-2 seconds before speaking. B) Do not use the patient’s name. C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds. D) Speak directly into the microphone.
C) Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.
The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as a patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes: A) integration of health services. B) medical direction. C) online medical control. D) continuity of care.
D) continuity of care.
An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of: A) an Emergency Medical Responder. B) an advanced Emergency Medical Technician. C) a Paramedic. D) an Emergency Medical Technician.
A) an Emergency Medical Responder.
All of the following are types of quality improvement except: A) recurrent. B) retrospective. C) concurrent. D) prospective.
A) recurrent.
Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control? A) Provision through the use of protocols B) Common use for “pre-authorizing” routine and life-saving procedures C) Communication by radio D) Use for expediting patient care
C) Communication by radio
Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing or other outdoor activities? A) Prevention B) Clinical care C) Public access D) Emergency personnel
A) Prevention
For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians to use is the: A) blanket drag. B) feet drag. C) shoulder drag. D) underarm-wrist drag.
B) feet drag.
Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object? A) What type of terrain is involved? B) Which carrying device will work best? C) How heavy is the object? D) How long will it take to make the move?
D) How long will it take to make the move?
Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by: A) patients with ankle injuries. B) obese and young patients. C) patients with visual impairments. D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
D) elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to: A) a 4-degree pitch. B) a 12-degree pitch. C) an 8-degree pitch. D) a 6-degree pitch.
C) an 8-degree pitch.
Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have: A) handles. B) stitched edges. C) insulating qualities. D) waterproof qualities.
A) handles.
The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because: A) air flows more easily through a patient’s nose compared to a head-downhill position. B) the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position. C) it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport. D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
D) of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift? A) Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle. B) Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward. C) Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches). D) Straighten your legs to lift.
D) Straighten your legs to lift.
The first step in packaging a patient is: A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill. B) deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport. C) deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill. D) deciding the fastest route of transport.
A) typically placing the patient’s injury uphill
Which of the following findings is a symptom? A) Hives resulting from an allergic reaction B) A deep laceration C) Ringing in the ears D) Difficulty breathing
C) Ringing in the ears
As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the ankle is:
A) P.
B) T.
C) S.
D) C.
C) S.
A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do first?
A) Perform a shoulder pinch.
B) Identify what drug the patient took.
C) Check the patient’s vital signs.
D) Assess the patient for a radial pulse.
A) Perform a shoulder pinch.
You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child’s mental status, you should first:
A) say loudly, “Open your eyes!”
B) apply pressure to the child’s nail beds.
C) ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.
D) consider the child to be unresponsive.
A) say loudly, “Open your eyes!”
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill?
A) “Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill.”
B) “A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well oxygenated.”
C) “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.”
D) “Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children.”
C) “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.”
Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient?
A) Decreased level of responsiveness
B) Inadequate respiratory effort
C) Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin
D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
D) Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ________ is associated with a high risk for major neurological injury.
A) 10
B) 8
C) 12
D) 13
D) 13
You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check?
A) The femoral artery
B) The brachial artery
C) The radial artery
D) The temporal artery
B) The brachial artery
Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?
A) They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area’s insurance company.
B) National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fully completed.
C) They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.
D) You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information, because the latter can be confusing.
C) They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.
Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?
A) Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it.
B) Don’t worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.
C) Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information.
D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.
D) Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your signature.
When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for help because “my chest is hurting.” He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says that his pain “feels just like my heart attack two years ago.” Based on this information, how would you document his chief complaint on the patient care report?
A) Possible heart attack
B) Chest pain with hypertension
C) Myocardial infarction
D) “My chest is hurting.”
D) “My chest is hurting.”
In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:
A) outdoor emergency care.
B) organized, effective, and complete.
C) objective, effective, and care given.
D) organized, error free, and checked.
D) organized, error free, and checked.
An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):
A) required abuse reporter.
B) child guardian.
C) emergency protector.
D) mandated reporter.
D) mandated reporter.
When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:
A) their condition when you last saw them.
B) the names of witnesses to what you said to them.
C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
D) whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them.
C) that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the acronym SAILER, what information would you include?
A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
B) Surname, location of accident, age, insurance company
C) Surname, age, address, chief complaint
D) Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed)
A) Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you would document this piece of information as a(n):
A) objective finding.
B) subjective finding.
C) provoking factor.
D) pertinent negative.
B) subjective finding.
You arrive at the scene where a patient has a possible fracture of the left hip. You note that she is lying on her back and her left leg is turned inward. You would document this position as:
A) supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity.
B) supine with left rotation of the right leg.
C) supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
D) lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg.
C) supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
Which one of the following anatomical statements is true?
A) The hip is distal to the knee.
B) The hand is proximal to the elbow.
C) The knee is proximal to the ankle.
D) The shoulder is distal to the hand.
C) The knee is proximal to the ankle.
Which one of the following descriptions best describes the normal anatomical position?
A) Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
B) Supine with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward
C) Prone with the arms upward and the palms facing upward
D) Upright and facing away from you, with the arms raised and the legs straight
A) Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize that this injury involves a structure that:
A) connects muscles to the patella.
B) holds and secures the bones of the knee.
C) connects the cartilage in the knee.
D) attaches a ligament to the knee.
A) connects muscles to the patella.
Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a “broken leg”?
A) Radius, ulna, humerus
B) Orbit, maxillae, mandible
C) Femur, tibia, fibula
D) Acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals
C) Femur, tibia, fibula
The lower jaw is also called the:
A) zygoma.
B) maxilla.
C) mastoid.
D) mandible.
D) mandible.
The bones of the upper extremities include the:
A) radius, ulna, and tarsals.
B) humerus and radius.
C) phalanges and tibia.
D) humerus and calcaneous.
B) humerus and radius.
In which of the following respiratory structures would a blockage cause total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs?
A) The right bronchus
B) The esophagus
C) The nasopharynx
D) The trachea
D) The trachea
Which of the following functions is a function of the respiratory system?
A) Providing nutrients to cells
B) Releasing oxygen from the body
C) Transporting oxygen throughout the body
D) Providing the body oxygen
D) Providing the body oxygen
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
A) Release
B) Inspiration
C) Exhalation
D) Inhalation
C) Exhalation
The primary function of the heart is:
A) pumping blood throughout the body.
B) maintaining the volume of blood.
C) oxygenating blood in the lungs.
D) transferring oxygen to the cells.
A) pumping blood throughout the body.
Which of the following structures brings oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium?
A) The pulmonary artery
B) The aorta
C) The right ventricle
D) The vena cavae
D) The vena cavae
The pressure exerted on the inside walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called:
A) residual pressure.
B) diastolic pressure.
C) arterial pressure.
D) systolic pressure.
D) systolic pressure.
The nervous system is subdivided into which two main parts?
A) The central and peripheral nerves
B) The involuntary and voluntary muscular systems
C) The brain and spinal cord
D) The brain and extremity nerves
A) The central and peripheral nerves
What body system provides support and structure to the body?
A) The skeletal system
B) The endocrine system
C) The exocrine system
D) The nervous system
A) The skeletal system
A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the functions of the skin, to which of the following conditions is the patient most susceptible?
A) Infection
B) Heart problems
C) Endocrine disorders
D) Fluid overload
A) Infection
You are called to the lodge for a patient who has fallen. The report indicates the patient has a hematoma in the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head?
A) The top
B) The back
C) The side
D) The front
B) The back
Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body by what structure?
A) The urinary tract
B) The hepatic vein
C) The lungs
D) The kidney
C) The lungs
The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the:
A) abdominal cavity.
B) pelvic cavity.
C) spinal cavity.
D) heart.
A) abdominal cavity.
The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs?
A) The rectum and the reproductive organs
B) The bladder and the kidneys
C) The pancreas and the bladder
D) The kidneys and the spleen
A) The rectum and the reproductive organs
In humans, the body systems interact with each other to maintain a stable internal environment. An example of this is the nervous system, which works with the cardiovascular system to maintain a steady blood pressure. The ability of an organism to adjust its physiologic processes to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is known as:
A) dependency.
B) homeostasis.
C) metabolism.
D) electrophysiology.
B) homeostasis.
The spleen is part of which body system?
A) The cardiovascular system
B) The gastrointestinal system
C) The endocrine system
D) The lymphatic system
D) The lymphatic system
A man lying in the prone position is:
A) lying face up on his back.
B) lying on his back with his legs elevated higher than his head.
C) sitting with his legs slightly bent.
D) lying face down on his stomach.
D) lying face down on his stomach.
The wrist is:
A) proximal to the elbow.
B) external to the elbow.
C) medial to the elbow.
D) distal to the elbow.
D) distal to the elbow.
A patellar fracture affects which part of the body?
A) The elbow
B) The tibia
C) The knee
D) The hip
C) The knee
Which of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?
A) The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.
B) The skin contains four layers: the epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layers.
C) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
D) The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.
C) The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his:
A) neck.
B) upper back.
C) tailbone.
D) lower back.
B) upper back.
Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior?
A) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
B) Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
C) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
D) Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
A) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
The terms occipital, frontal, and parietal refer to what part of the body?
A) The spine
B) The cranium
C) The pelvis
D) The chest
B) The cranium
A patient has suffered damage to his brainstem. As a result of this injury which of the following signs might you expect to see?
A) Pinpoint pupils
B) Sweating
C) Abnormal respirations
D) Muscle spasms
C) Abnormal respirations
Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath?
A) The diaphragm contracts.
B) The intercostal muscles relax.
C) Pressure in the chest increases.
D) The chest cavity decreases in size.
A) The diaphragm contracts.
After examining his patient, your partner tells you that he believes the patient has hyperflexed the knee. What has happened if a patient has hyperflexed a knee?
A) The patient has straightened the knee into a normal position.
B) The patient has straightened the knee beyond its normal range of movement.
C) The patient has pushed the kneecap too far to the right or left.
D) The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
D) The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place the patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler’s position. This means that you will place this patient on his:
A) back, with his upper body elevated at 45° from the waist.
B) back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head.
C) left side, with his left arm over his head.
D) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
D) back, with his upper body elevated at 90° from the waist.
The structure containing the vocal cords is the:
A) larynx.
B) pharynx.
C) sternum.
D) trachea.
A) larynx.
The leaf-shaped flap that helps prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system is called:
A) the pharynx.
B) a bronchiole.
C) the trachea.
D) the epiglottis.
D) the epiglottis.
Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells?
A) Nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, alveoli
B) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles
C) Nose, pharynx, esophagus, bronchi, alveoli
D) Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
D) Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion?
A) Collapse of the bronchi
B) Spasm of the epiglottis
C) Relaxation of the tongue
D) Swelling of the larynx
C) Relaxation of the tongue
Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
A) A 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood
B) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
C) A 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive
D) A 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful stimuli
B) A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient’s mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would:
A) administer abdominal thrusts.
B) perform a finger sweep.
C) encourage the patient to cough.
D) insert an airway.
B) perform a finger sweep.
Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient’s face?
A) If two rescuers are using the BVM, the mask need only be placed over the mouth while the nose is pinched closed.
B) The wide portion of the mask is at the top of the nose, and the narrow part is below the lower lip.
C) The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
D) The mask is properly positioned when the top portion lies over the bridge of the nose, and the lower portion is below the chin.
C) The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have:
A) kept the tongue away from the airway.
B) obtained a patent airway by keeping the mouth from closing.
C) minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus.
D) protected the airway from vomit or other secretions.
A) kept the tongue away from the airway.
For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated?
A) An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
B) A responsive but confused patient with stridorous respirations
C) A patient with snoring respirations who coughs as the oral airway is placed into his mouth
D) A patient who has vomited and responds to painful stimuli by moaning
A) An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?
A) The rescuer uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the patient’s tongue downward and then inserts the oral airway upside down.
B) The rescuer inserts the oral airway sideways into the mouth and then rotates it 180 degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.
C) The rescuer inserts the oral airway in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the patient’s lips.
D) The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
D) The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:
A) remove the airway.
B) reassure and calm the patient.
C) leave the airway in but stop ventilations.
D) suction the airway.
A) remove the airway.
You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:
A) diameter of the patient’s little finger.
B) distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.
C) diameter of the patient’s larger nostril.
D) distance from the patient’s mouth to the angle of the jaw.
B) distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.
Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen?
A) A moist gas that supports combustion
B) A highly flammable substance
C) An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
D) An odorless gas that is cloudy when pressurized
C) An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should:
A) select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
B) hear a hissing sound when you turn on the oxygen.
C) slowly release oxygen from the tank until the pressure is 15 psi.
D) “crack” the oxygen tank after attaching the regulator.
A) select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?
A) Setting the oxygen flow rate to between 6 LPM and 16 LPM
B) Ensuring that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath
C) Instructing the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on
D) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
D) Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient
Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask?
A) The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
B) The air inhaled by the patient will be recycled with oxygen.
C) Oxygen is delivered into the lungs when the patient not inhaling.
D) The mask is comfortable and well tolerated by all patients when properly applied.
A) The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians?
A) A venture mask
B) A simple face mask
C) A nasal cannula
D) A nonrebreather mask
D) A nonrebreather mask
Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?
A) The oxygen flow rate can be adjusted anywhere from 1 LPM to 10 LPM, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs.
B) A nasal cannula is preferred over a nonrebreather mask because the cannula administers the oxygen through the nose instead of through the mouth.
C) It is best to see how a patient tolerates a nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient.
D) When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24-44 percent oxygen.
D) When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24-44 percent oxygen.
The lower airway consists of which of the following structures?
A) Epiglottis, trachea, and bronchi
B) Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
C) Larynx, bronchi, and alveoli
D) Pharynx, bronchi, and alveoli
B) Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
You have opened and cleared your patient’s airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to:
A) place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
B) maintain the head tilt-chin lift position.
C) place a suction catheter in the corner of the patient’s mouth to continually remove secretions.
D) use the crossed finger technique.
A) place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is:
A) a finger sweep.
B) a jaw thrust.
C) gravity.
D) the crossed finger technique.
C) gravity.
You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last:
A) 12 minutes.
B) 15 minutes.
C) 8.5 minutes.
D) 5 minutes.
C) 8.5 minutes.
You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?
A) “After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient’s head on your aid pack.”
B) “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”
C) “Elevate the patient’s lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily.”
D) “Roll the patient onto his side and then hold him there until help arrives.”
B) “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”
What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for?
A) Septum
B) Slowly
C) Size
D) Slippery
C) Size
You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:
A) check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.
B) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
C) turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM.
D) attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir.
B) turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied:
A) for as long as needed.
B) for no more than 10-15 seconds at a time.
C) as deeply as needed to remove as much fluid as possible.
D) for no more than 30 seconds at a time.
B) for no more than 10-15 seconds at a time.
Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask?
A) It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
B) If the patient has dentures, remove them so that a better mask-to-face seal can be achieved.
C) Always remove the oropharyngeal airway so that it is not pushed deep into the patient’s airway during ventilations.
D) To direct air into the lungs and not into the stomach, flex the patient’s head forward while ventilating with the bag-valve mask.
A) It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide?
A) “Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath.”
B) “I need another rescuer to apply firm pressure over the stomach while we ventilate this patient.”
C) “The ventilation rate and the force of ventilation need to be increased so that air reaches the lungs.”
D) “Try delivering each ventilation quickly, and let’s slow down the rate.”
A) “Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each breath.”
You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately:
A) open his airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and begin ventilations with the bag-valve mask.
B) administer oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask.
C) immobilize him on a long spine board and then start artificial ventilations.
D) perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
D) perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations?
A) Use of a bag-valve mask (BVM) with reservoir attached, receiving air, by two OEC Technicians
B) Use of a BVM with O2 reservoir attached, by one rescuer
C) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by one OEC Technician
D) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
D) Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
A) It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly.
B) It is less painful for the patient.
C) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
D) It is the rescuer’s preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C) It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct?
A) Trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust maneuver, whereas medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
B) Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
C) Research has shown that the jaw-thrust maneuver is easiest to perform and is therefore indicated for critically injured trauma patients.
D) The jaw-thrust maneuver is useful in trauma patients but only if they are complaining of head or neck pain.
B) Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first?
A) Radio for an ambulance with ALS.
B) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.
C) Help him administer his nitroglycerin.
D) Obtain a SAMPLE history.
B) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction?
A) “If the patient experiences chest pain that radiates into the left arm, it is most likely a heart attack. If the pain radiates anywhere else, it is most likely not cardiac in origin.”
B) “Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of ‘severe heartburn.’ “
C) “If the chest pain started during activity, it is most likely cardiac in origin. If the pain started while the patient was at rest, it is most likely not cardiac in origin.”
D) “If the patient’s chest pain does not go away with nitroglycerin, you can assume that the medication has expired and is no longer effective.”
“Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of ‘severe heartburn.’ “
Aspirin may be used in a patient who has chest pain suggestive of a heart attack because aspirin may:
A) decrease the chest pain caused by the possible heart attack.
B) break up a blood clot that is occluding a coronary artery.
C) decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.
D) relieve the headache that is caused by the administration of nitroglycerin.
C) decrease the ability of platelets to form clots.
You are with a patient who is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his arm and neck. He is alert and oriented and has an open airway and adequate breathing. His pulse is strong and his skin is cool and slightly diaphoretic. His pulse is 84, his respirations are 18, and his blood pressure is 90/62 mmHg. Responses to SAMPLE questioning include a history of a previous heart attack and chronic lung disease; an allergy to aspirin; possession of nitroglycerin; and last ate about 6 hours ago. Based on this information, you would not:
A) assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.
B) reassess his blood pressure in 5 minutes.
C) let him assume a position of comfort.
D) place the patient on oxygen.
A) assist the patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet.
When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is:
A) swallowed with only an ounce of water.
B) chewed and then allowed to dissolve slowly.
C) placed between the cheek and teeth.
D) placed under the tongue.
D) placed under the tongue.
Before nitroglycerin is administered, you should ensure that:
A) the patient rates his chest pain as at least 7 on a scale of 1 to 10.
B) nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.
C) the patient’s systolic blood pressure is at least 110 mmHg.
D) the patient is standing.
B) nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient.
Which of the following medications, if taken in the last 24 hours, would be a contraindication to administering nitroglycerin?
A) Tylenol
B) Aspirin
C) Coumadin
D) Viagra
D) Viagra
You are assisting a 67-year-old patient with chest pain. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets but his pain remains a 7 out of 10. He is diaphoretic; his respirations are 18 per minute and adequate; his pulse is 72; and his blood pressure 80/62 mmHg. He is on a nonrebreather mask at 15L per minute. You would:
A) attach him to an AED.
B) give him only half of a nitroglycerin tablet.
C) assist him in taking his third and final nitroglycerin tablet.
D) reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.
D) reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by ALS care.
Which of the following actions is most important before assisting a patient to take prescribed nitroglycerin?
A) Evaluate the patient’s blood pressure.
B) Determine whether the patient has any allergies.
C) Attach the patient to an AED.
D) Determine whether the patient has a headache.
A) Evaluate the patient’s blood pressure.
You are in the first-aid area assisting a patient who just arrived with chest pain. He relates a history of angina that usually resolves with nitroglycerin. The patient states that the pain started when he was skiing through the bumps. Over the last 20 minutes, he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets and rested, but the pain has not gone away. Your next action would be to:
A) place him on high-flow oxygen.
B) check his blood pressure because he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets.
C) attach an AED in case he goes into cardiac arrest.
D) try one more nitroglycerin tablet because nitroglycerin usually relieves his pain.
A) place him on high-flow oxygen.
You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is tachypneic. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have:
A) pericardial effusion.
B) an aortic dissection/aneurysm.
C) pulmonary embolism.
D) unstable angina.
C) pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following actions is not an action you should take when using an AED?
A) Ensure that the chest is dry and wiped clean of any medications.
B) Ensure that no one is touching the patient when analyzing the patient’s heart rhythm and when delivering a shock.
C) Apply any set of electrodes as patient age is not relevant.
D) Use the electrode to rip away excess chest hair if the electrode is not sticking well to the chest.
C) Apply any set of electrodes as patient age is not relevant.
Three commonly used cardiac medications are:
A) Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.
B) Lipitor, Dilantin, and Tenormin.
C) Coumadin, Zesteril, and an Epi-pen.
D) Plavix, Nitroglycerine, and Albuterol.
A) Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix.
In performing CPR on an infant:
A) place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.
B) place the heel of one hand on the sternum just above an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are about 1/2 inch deep.
C) stop to check for a pulse after administering about 100 compressions.
D) check the carotid artery for a pulse before beginning compressions.
A) place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest.
A 62-year-old man presents with a complaint of abdominal pain radiating to his groin. He also complains of dizziness. On examination, his abdomen is tender and you feel a large pulsatile mass. His signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
B) a ruptured spleen.
C) acute embolism.
D) cardiogenic shock.
A) an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled or distant heart tones in which the heartbeat is difficult to auscultate are hallmark signs of:
A) aortic aneurysm.
B) pericardial tamponade.
C) congestive heart failure.
D) pericarditis.
B) pericardial tamponade.
One complication of an acute myocardial infarction may be cardiogenic shock. Based on your training, you would define cardiogenic shock as a(n):
A) absolute or relative shortage of blood supply to a tissue due to a blood clot.
) abrupt cessation of the regular electrical activity of the heart.
C) condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart’s inability to adequately pump blood.
D) acute illness in which the cardiac muscle does not get enough oxygen.
C) condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart’s inability to adequately pump blood.
The largest artery in the body is the:
) aorta.
B) jugular artery.
C) carotid artery.
D) femoral artery.
A) aorta.
Blood in the right ventricle is pumped into the:
A) pulmonary artery.
B) aorta.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
A) pulmonary artery
Which of the following statements concerning arteries is true?
A) They drain into the venae cavae.
B) They carry blood away from the heart.
C) They have a lower pressure than veins.
D) They always carry oxygenated blood.
B) They carry blood away from the heart.
High-velocity injuries and low-velocity injuries are two types of which mechanism of injury?
A) Blast injury
B) Blunt trauma
C) Penetrating injury
D) Closed trauma
C) Penetrating injury
A trauma assessment should be completed within 1-2 minutes and includes all of the following tasks except:
A) performing a detailed physical exam.
B) taking a complete history.
C) assessing the ABCDs.
D) evaluating a patient’s level of consciousness.
A) performing a detailed physical exam.
Dislocating a shoulder after catching a ski pole on a tree branch is an example of an injury caused by which MOI?
A) Rotational injury
B) Compressive injury
C) Whiplash injury
D) Blunt injury
A) Rotational injury
Which of the following terms is not a “mechanism of injury”?
A) Blunt injury
B) Stabbing injury
C) Crushing injury
D) Rotational injury
B) Stabbing injury
Kinetic energy is absorbed based on the density of the structure/organ involved. Which of the following lists places the organs in the order of their “threshold for injury”?
A) Kidneys, lungs, femur
B) Full urinary bladder, femur, lung
C) Femur, kidneys, muscle
D) Femur, lung, kidneys
A) Kidneys, lungs, femur
You arrive alone at a scene at which a 16-year-old skier has collided with a tree. He is unresponsive and has blood flowing from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following lists reflects the most appropriate care of this patient?
A) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
B) Primary assessment, immobilization, bandaging of the ears to control bleeding, airway management
C) Primary assessment, oxygen administration, rapid transport to the aid room, immobilization in the aid room
D) Immobilization, transfer to a sled, completion of the assessment in the aid room
A) Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible
Which of the following descriptions describes a patient suffering from multi-system trauma?
A) A 70-year-old female who slipped on some ice and has a hematoma at the back of her head
B) A 32-year-old female who was stabbed by her boyfriend
C) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
D) A 24-year-old male who was tackled in a football game and has pain and deformity in his right shoulder and left wrist
C) A 67-year-old male who fell down a flight of stairs, has an open fracture of the left lower leg, and is complaining of severe abdominal pain
Which of the following statements best describes the capabilities of a Level III trauma center?
A) The hospital will provide emergency care to trauma patients and then transfer them once they are stable.
B) The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients but does not have every subspecialist available.
C) The hospital can manage all trauma patients, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
D) The hospital has specially trained trauma nurses on duty at all times, who will call a doctor if needed.
B) The hospital has some surgical capabilities to help trauma patients but does not have every subspecialist available.
The term golden hour refers to the:
A) time period when patient survival rates may be enhanced if critical injuries are identified and managed.
B) amount of time it takes to stop the bleeding from a penetrating injury.
C) amount of time you have to decide if a patient needs to be sent to a trauma hospital.
D) hour before sunset, when most cases of on-hill trauma occur.
A) time period when patient survival rates may be enhanced if critical injuries are identified and managed.
You are called to the vehicle maintenance department on the mountain, where a fairly large explosion has occurred. The first injured person you talk to tells you that he is having excruciating ear pain. You recognize that his ear pain may be caused by:
A) a primary blast injury to the inner ear.
B) ear damage resulting from exposure to the heat produced by the explosion.
C) inner ear damage caused by the noise of the explosion.
D) a secondary blast injury to the inner ear.
A) a primary blast injury to the inner ear.
A 23-year-old skier falls about 20 feet from the chairlift. Aside from his complaints of soreness, you don’t see any obvious injuries. The skier states that as long as his legs aren’t broken, he’s going to continue skiing. Which of the following statements would be your best response to him?
A) “Since you did not lose responsiveness, it’s probably OK to go back to skiing. If your legs start to hurt you should probably get checked.”
B) “You may feel OK now, but you will probably be sore later. You should go to the hospital and get some pain medication.”
C) “From a fall of that height you may have hurt some internal organs. You really should be examined.”
D) “Since this happened at a ski area you should get evaluated. You may be able to sue.”
C) “From a fall of that height you may have hurt some internal organs. You really should be examined.”
A heavy-set snowboarder was critically injured when he crashed into a tree on a Friday night. It was reported that he was clearly out of control while traveling at a high rate of speed down the expert trail. Which of the following factors had the greatest impact on the extent of his injuries?
A) The skier’s weight
B) The dimly lit trail
C) The speed the skier was going
D) The size of the tree he hit
C) The speed the skier was going
Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of a patient assessment?
A) The scene size-up
B) The reassessment
C) The rapid secondary survey
D) The primary assessment
D) The primary assessment
You arrive at a scene at which a 16-year-old girl has cut her wrist with a knife. She appears to be pale, and blood is spurting from the cut. Which of the following actions should you take first?
A) Ask her how the injury happened.
B) Obtain a blood pressure reading.
C) Apply oxygen at 15 LPM via a nonrebreather mask.
D) Apply direct pressure to the cut.
D) Apply direct pressure to the cut.
You are treating a patient who has cut herself while working in the lodge kitchen. She has a jagged laceration on her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. While attempting to control the bleeding, you should first:
A) wrap the injury tightly with roller gauze and apply a tourniquet proximal to the laceration.
B) apply direct pressure to the elbow pressure point to slow the flow of blood into the arm.
C) place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your hand.
D) tightly wrap roller gauze around a large sterile dressing placed over the injury.
C) place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your hand.
Which of the following actions should you take next when direct pressure, elevation, and femoral artery pressure have failed to control arterial bleeding on a patient’s leg?
A) Splint the extremity.
B) Provide oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask.
C) Immediately transport the patient by ambulance.
D) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
D) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the application of a tourniquet?
A) “A tourniquet should be applied only when directed by medical control.”
B) “Arteries run close to the body’s surface in a joint, so the best place to apply a tourniquet is over the joint just above the artery.”
C) “If the tourniquet appears to have stopped the bleeding, you should loosen it slightly to allow a small amount of blood to perfuse the tissues.”
D) “A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped.”
D) “A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped.”
You are having a difficult time controlling bleeding from a small skin avulsion on a patient’s ankle. Which of the following statements made by the patient best explains why the bleeding has been so difficult to control?
A) “I take steroids for my lung disease.”
B) “I drank a lot of alcohol last night.”
C) “I take Coumadin (an anticoagulant) for my irregular heartbeat.”
D) “My blood pressure sometimes runs a little high.”
C) “I take Coumadin (an anticoagulant) for my irregular heartbeat.”
