1
Q
1. Where is the headquarters of ICAO? ;
A
;B. Montreal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
2
Q
- An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:;
A
;B. Follow the Rules of the air of the State its overflying.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
3
Q
- For aircraft flying over the high seas.. which rules shall be in force?;
A
;D. the rules established under the convention on International Civil Aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
4
Q
- Which ICAO annex is dedicated to facilitate the passage of passengers at the aerodromes?;
A
;A. Annex 9;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
5
Q
- A detailed description of the visual ground aids can be found in ICAO:;
A
;A. Annex 14;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
6
Q
- Annex 14 to the Convetion of International Civial Aviation contains SARPS for:;
A
;B. Aerodromes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
7
Q
- Which of the following ICAO douments contain International Standards and Recommended Practicies(SARPS);
A
;B. Annexes to the Convention of INternational Civil Aviation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
8
Q
- Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum for a crew license to have international validity?;
A
;C. Annex 1;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
9
Q
- According to the Chicago Convention.. aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or i transit non stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flight:;
A
;D. To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
10
Q
10.What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?;
A
;C. The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
11
Q
- If a state finds that its impracticable to comply with an International Standard:;
A
;A. It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the diffrences between its own practices and the International Standard.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
12
Q
- What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?;
A
;C. The state has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such diffrences in the national AIP.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
13
Q
- Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:;
A
;A. Each State has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
14
Q
- The president of the ICAO Council is elected for:;
A
;B. 3 Years;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
15
Q
- Which international organisation was founded with the Chicago Agreement?;
A
;C. ICAO;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
16
Q
- International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:;
A
;A. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member States.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
17
Q
- According to Article 73 of the German Basic Law.. the legislative right concerning aviation is:;
A
;C. Exclusively possessed by the Federal Government.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
18
Q
- One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:;
A
;A. Develop priciples and techniques for international aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
19
Q
- 5th Freedom of the Air:;
A
;B. The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
20
Q
- Regarding air operations - what is the role of the national aviation authorities in relation to EASA?;
A
;D.EASA proposes implementing rules and reguations and the national aviation act as competent authorities.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
21
Q
- In which aera of Air Traffic Control in Europe does Eurocontrol have a logical and operationally essntial role to play?;
A
;D. Air traffic flow management in Europe.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
22
Q
- What is the main role of EASA in European civil Aviation?;
A
;C. EASA provides legislative proposals to the European Comission for implementation and promotes the highest common standards of safety and enviromental protection in civil aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
23
Q
23.What is the mission statement of EASA?;
A
;D. EASA produes rules and reguations.. and promotes the highest common standards of civil aviation safety and enviromental protection in Europe and Worldwide.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
24
Q
- What does IATA mean?;
A
;A.International Air Transport Assocation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
25
25. What i the mission statement of IATA?;
;A. IATA´s mission is to represent.. lead and serve the airline industry. IATA seeks to improve understanding of the industry among decision makers and increase awarness of the benefits that aviation brngs to national and global economies. It fights for the intrests of airlines across the globe.. challenging unreasonable rules and charges.. holding regulators and government to account.. and striving fo sensible regulation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
26
26. What is status of IATA?;
;C. It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
27
27. Which is the permanent body of IACO being responsible to the Assembly?;
;C. The Council.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
28
28. Which privelege for an aeroplane registered in one State and enroute to or from that State.. to take on passengers.. mail or cargo in a second State and put them down in a third State is called:;
;C.5th Freedom of the air.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
29
29. Which Freedom of the Air will be exercised by an airline planning a flight that will require a technical stop in neighbouring State?;
;A. 2nd Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
30
30. Which Freedom gives the privlige to land for non-trafiic purposes in another ICAO contracting state?;
;D. 2nd Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
31
31. The right to land in another state for technical purpose such as refueling or maintanance is ____ Freedom of the Air.;
;B. 2nd;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
32
32. The privlige to fly across the territory of another participating State without landing is called:;
;D. 1st Freedom of the Air;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
33
33. The Second Freedom of the Air is the right to:;
;A. Land for a technical stop.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
34
34. The first freedom of the Air is: ;
;B. The right to overfly without landing;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
35
35. Why is the 8th Freedom of the Air particularly applicable to the European Union?;
;C. Because most of the EU is effectively ^one state^ as far as the internal movement of people is concerned.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
36
36. The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:;
;D. Annex 18;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
37
37. 6th Freedom of the Air is:;
;D. a combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C to A) through carriers base (B).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
38
38. The objectives of ICAO were ratified by the:;
;D. Chicago Convention 1944;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
39
39. The Air NAvigation Comission consists of:;
;B. 19 Members appointed by the ICAO Council.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
40
40. The airport licence is issued by the following aeronautical authority:;
;A. The aeronautical authority of the Länder in which the terrain is located;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
41
41. Where is the ICAO Annex 13 applicable?;
;D. Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
42
42. The aviation supervision may prohibit a pilot to depart from an airfield;
;A. in order to protect against dangers and for ensuring air traffic safety;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
43
43. What is the mission statement of ICAO?;
;C. ICAO´s mission is to serve as the global forum of States for international civil aviation. ICAO develops policies and Standards.. undertakes compliance audits.. performs studies and analyses.. provides assistance and builds aviation capacity through many other activities and the cooperation of its Member States and stakeholders.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
44
44. Standards and Recommended Practices for Security are contained in ICAO Annex:;
;A. 17;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
45
45. Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?;
;C. The Air Navigation Comission.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
46
46. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:;
;A. Security.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
47
47. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of perons and their baggage international flights is:;
;A. Annex 9;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
48
48. The ^Standards^ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:;
;D. binding for the member States that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
49
49. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?;
;C. ICAO must be informed about diffrences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
50
50. Which of the following Annexes to Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?;
;c. Annex 14;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
51
51. Name the body of ICAO that considers and recommends to the council fo adoption.. modifications of the Annexes of the Convention to the ICAO:;
;d. Air Navigation Commission;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
52
52. The ICAO Annex dealing with the registration and marking of aircraft is:;
;d. Annex 7;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
53
53. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for Air Traffic Services (ATS)?;
;c. Annex 11;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
54
54. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) was established by the convention of:;
;d. Chicago;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
55
55. The Standards of Airworthiness.. detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:;
;a. Airplanes of over 5700 kg Maximum Certified Take-off Mass.. intended for the carriage of passengers.. cargo or mail in international air navigation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
56
56. Who issues the certificate of airworthiness?;
;a. State of registry;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
57
57. Which state shall ensure there exists a continuing integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of aeroplanes above 5700 kg?;
;b. State of design;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
58
58. When is an Airworthiness Certificate required to be on board an aircraft?;
;a. For any flight operation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
59
59. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the Certificates of Airworthiness?;
;b. The authority of the State of the Registration;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
60
60. Where on the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall registration marks be located?;
;a. On the left half of the lower surface of the wing structure.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
61
61. Which of the following gets its lift chiefly through aerodynamis forces?;
;a. Heavier - than - air aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
62
62. Describe the following: helicopter.. glider & airship:;
;a. aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
63
63. What is the Aircraft Register and where is it kept and supervised?;
;d. kept and supervised at the LBA in Braunschweig;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
64
64. The height of the mark on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:;
;c. at least 30 centimeters;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
65
65. What is the definition of the state of registry? (ICAO ANNEX /7;
;a. The state on whose register the aircraft is entered.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
66
66. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:;
;c. at least 30 centimeters;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
67
67. The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call sign allocated:;
;b. to the international Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
68
68. According to Annex 7.. the registration mark shall be letters.. numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:;
;a. the State of Registry or common mark registering authority.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
69
69. When letters are used for the registration mark.. combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:;
;d. five letter combinations used in the international code of signals;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
70
70. When letters are used for registration mark.. combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals.. for example:;
;a. TTT;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
71
71. The height of the marks under the wings of heavier-than-air aircraft shall be:;
;a. at least 50 centimeters.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
72
72. The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:;
;d. the international Civil Aviation Organisation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
73
73. When the first chracter of registration mark is a letter:;
;c. it shall be preceded by a hyphen;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
74
74. According to Annex 7.. the definition of aircraft is:;
;b. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the Earth's surface;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
75
75. According to Annex 7.. the definition of heavier-than-air aircraft is:;
;d. Any aircraft deriving ist lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
76
76. An aircraft with the identification D-CFLU can be a;
;d. multi-engined aircraft with a maximum mass of 5700 - 14000 kg MTOW;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
77
77. Aircraft required to be registered with an airworthiness certificate are;
;d. airplanes.. rotorcraft.. airships;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
78
78. An aircraft which has the right of way shall maintain its:;
;c. heading and speed;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
79
79. An aircraft taxiing on the manoevring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:;
;c. aircraft landing and taking off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
80
80. A steady red light beam directed at an aircraft in flight from the aerodrome control tower means:;
;a. do not land.. give way to other aircraft and continue circling;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
81
81. While taxiing.. an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:;
;c. may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
82
82. Aircraft ^A^ With an ATC clearance is flying in VMC within a control area. Aircraft ^B^ with no ATC clearence is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which aircraft has the right of way?;
;c. Aircraft ^B^ if ^A^ is on its left.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
83
83. Which is the correct order of priority?;
;a. Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships.. gliders and balloons.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
84
84. When two-way communication is lost.. a pilot should select____on the transponder.;
;d. Code 7600;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
85
85. No aircraft shall be flown over the congested area of cities.. towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit:;
;a. in the event of an emergency a landing to be made safely.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
86
86. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on the ground means:;
;d. taxi clear of landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
87
87. A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight least:;
;b. 60 minutes prior to departure.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
88
88. Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit.. an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:;
;a. must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
89
89. On a VFR flight.. your magnetic is track 005°.. the magnetic heading 355°. Which of the following flight level is correct?;
;b. FL55;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
90
90. An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:;
;b. not land beacause the airport is not available for landing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
91
91. The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means ^brakes applied^ is.;
;c. raise arm and hand.. with fingers extended.. horizontally in front of face.. the clench fist.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
92
92. An aircraft operated on.. or in the vicinity of.. an aerodrome shall whether or not withan an ATZ: 1) observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision. 2) conform with or avoid the pattern or traffic formed by other aircraft in operation. 3) make all turns to the right.. when approaching for landing or taking-off unless otherwise instructed. 4) land and take-off into the wind unless safety.. the runway configuration.. or an air traffic consideration determines that a different direction should be used. Which statements are correct?;
;c. 1.. 2.. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
93
93. Two aircraft are approaching each other in a controlled airspace class D in VMC at approximately the same level on converging courses. Aircraft ^A^ is flying under IFR.. Aircraft ^B^ is flying under VRF Who has the right of way?;
;a. Aircraft ^B^.. providing it has ^A^ on its left.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
94
94. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft on ground means:;
;a. cleared to taxi.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
95
95. A series of green flashes from aerodrome control directed towards an aircraft in flight means:;
;b. return for landing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
96
96. The ^Total Estimated Elapsed Time^ in item 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time.;
;b. required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
97
97. Except when necessary for take-off or landing.. a VFR flight over congested areas of Cities.. towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than:;
;c. 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
98
98. A red flare light signal addressed to an aircraft in flight means:;
;c. notwithstanding any previous instructions.. do not land for the time being.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
99
99. A series of red flashes from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight means?;
;B. Aerodrome unsafe.. do not land.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
100
100. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danser of collision.. each shall:;
;A. Alter its heading to the right.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
101
101. No aircraft shall be clown over the congested area of cities.. towns or settlements unless at a height that will permit.. in the event of an emergency.. a landning to be safe.. Exceptions to this rulle are:;
;A. Take-off and landing.. or permission from the appropriate authority ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
102
102. An aircraft being towed by night must display:;
;D. The same light that are required in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
103
103. Anti-collision lights on an aircraft must be displayed:;
;D. As soon as the engine are running ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
104
104. When a pilot raises his arms extended.. palms facing outwards and moves his hands inwards to cross in front of the case.. this means:;
;C.Insert chocks.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
105
105. One of the following statement about aircraft ground movement is correct:;
;C. A taxiing aircraft has prioritity over a vechicle towing an aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
106
106. The pilot in command of an aircraft 1) Must comply immediatley to all instructions recieved from ATC 2) Is responsible only if he is the ”pilot flying” 3) May deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4) May be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5) May ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contain all of the correct statements?;
;B. 3..5;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
107
107. The minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight in ATS airspace classified as D at an altitude above 10000 ft ML is;
;B. 8 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
108
108. A steady green light from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft on ground means:;
;B. Cleared for take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
109
109. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft taxiing on the ground.. a red flashing light means:;
;C. Vacate the landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
110
110. You are flying on a VFR flight in VMC in a controlled airspace. Suddenly.. you realize you are unable to maintain VMC. What are your actions according ICAO Annex 2?;
;A. Request a special VFR clearence if flying in a control zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
111
111. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace.. above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL.. are:;
;B. 8 km visibility.. 1500m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
112
112. A VFR flight.. at an altitude of 5000 ft in ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
;D. 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
113
113. Which signal from a marshaller indicates ”chocks are inserted”?;
;D. Arms and wands fully extended above head.. move wands inward in a ”jabbing” motion until wands touch.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
114
114. A VFR flight.. when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
;D. 8 km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL.. 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
115
115. Above 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL.. the VMC minima for VFR flights in all classes of airpspace (except class A) are:;
;C. Flight visibility: 8km: distance from clouds. 1500 m horizontal: 1000 ft vertical;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
116
116. The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating ”give way to other aircraft and continue circling” is:;
;A. Steady red.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
117
117. A marshaller has his arms fully extended above his head with wands pointing up. This means that:;
;A. You should proceed to this parking position (stand/gate).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
118
118. ”Raise hand just above shoulder.. with palm open.. eye contact with flight crew.. then close hand into a fist”. This signal from a signalman to an aircraft means:;
;B. Engage brakes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
119
119. The marshalling signal ”arms and wands fully extended above head.. moving wands inward in a ’jabbing’ motion until wands touch” means:;
;B. chocks inserted.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
120
120. What is the minimum flight altitude for VFR flights permitted overtowns.. settlements and populated areas?;
;C. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
121
121. On a VFR flight.. your magnetic track is 200 degrees. Which of the following flight levels should be used?;
;A. FL 65.. FL 85 or FL 105;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
122
122. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:;
;D. 5 km below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
123
123. In order to operate under visual flight rules above FL 100 in uncontrolled airspace.. there must be:;
;C. 8 km visibility.. 1000 ft vertical and 1500 m horizontal distance from clouds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
124
124. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:;
;C. True air speed (TAS);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
125
125. The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B.. is:;
;A. 8 km visibility when at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
126
126. An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR.. above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft.. outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least:;
;D. A distance from cloud of 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and flight visibility of 5 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
127
127. An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to.;
;D. Aircraft taking-off or about to take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
128
128. If the ground visibility is reported 700 m.. can a special VFR flight take-off from an aerodrome in a control zone?;
;A. No.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
129
129. Which signal from a marshaller indicates ”all clear”?;
;C. Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
130
130. A VFR flight.. at an altitude of 5000 ft MSL in ATS airspace classified as C.. has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds;
;D. 5 km visibility: 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally clear of cloud.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
131
131. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from the cloud should be:;
;D. 1000 ft vertically and 1..5 km horizontally.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
132
132. On the ground.. when two aircraft are approaching head on:;
;C. Both airplanes must stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
133
133. When an aircraft is operating in class F airspace below 900 m AMSL.. the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for VFR flight is: ;
;D. clear of clouds and surface in sights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
134
134. The red flashing anti-collosion light (beacon) should be in use: ;
;C. to indicate caution to all around whenever engines are running.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
135
135. Flight operating withing airspace classified as G above an altitude of 10 000 ft MSL and in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima:;
;A. a distance from cloud: 1 500 m horizontally.. 1000 ft vertically: flight visibility: 8 km;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
136
136. The light signal from aerodrome control tower directed towards an aircraft in flight indicating ^return for landing^ is:;
;A. a series of green flashes.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
137
137. The minimum height.. except for take-off and landing. may;
;C. never be ignored;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
138
138. Advertising flights with towed objects need permission of:;
;D. the aeronautical authority of the Länder of residence or domicile of the applicant;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
139
139. A pilot need a permit issued by the appropiate aeronaturical authority for: ;
;B. dropping animal feed for wild animals;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
140
140. Aerobatic flights are prohibited in the heights of less than: ;
;B. 1500 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
141
141. Which unit of measurement applies for the vertical speed in aviation?;
;D. ft/min;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
142
142. Who is allowed to check whether a pilot has prepared a flight properly?;
;A. the delegate of the aviation supervision;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
143
141. After having entered a control zone on a VFR-flight.. the radio fails. How shall the pilot behave?;
;A. proceed according to the acknowledged air traffic control clearence and wait for the light signals of the aerodrome control tower.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
144
144. As an exception.. you would like to take-off and land on a Bundeswehr aerodrome with DEKIL. The flight is not of commercial nature. When are you allowed to do so?;
;B. only with permission of the person responsible for flight operations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
145
145. The pilot in command is the ultimate authority on operating the aircraft: ;
;B. during taxiing.. take-off.. landing and enroute.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
146
146. Radiotelephony communication for VFR flights in Germany in airspace ^C^ above flight level 100 is conducted;
;A. in English language;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
147
147. An aircraft overtakes another aircraft when it approaches from behind in a direction of flight having an angle less than:;
;B. 070 degrees towards the direction of flight of the other aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
148
148. The pilot is required to transmit a departure message to the responsible air traffic control unit for a flight from an uncontrolled aerodrome after filed the flight plan. ;
;B. A departure message has to be transmitted in any case.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
149
149. In Germany Airspace G is below;
;C. 1000 ft an 1700 ft GND.. otherwise 2500 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
150
150. According to ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air.. what is correct concerning a ^Time Check^?;
;D. A time check contains time given in hours.. minutes and seconds.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
151
151. Under which conditions may aircraft fly in formation?;
;A. Only upon agreement between the participating pilots;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
152
152. Engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight in airspace C (below FL100) are required to operate a transponder;
;B. Always;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
153
153. What can be ignored for a VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?;
;B. Ground visibility;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
154
154. A radiotelephony signal comprising of the word ”PAN PAN” means that an aircraft;
;C. Has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship.. aircraft or other vehicle.. or of some person on board within sight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
155
155. When shall aircraft in operation switch on their navigation lights?;
;D. At night;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
156
156. The pilot in command is responsible for operating the aircraft. This is valid;
;D. Irrespective.. whether the pilot operates the aircraft personally or not;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
157
157. A pre-flight breifing needs to be obtained before every flight;
;C. Which requires a flight plan to be filled;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
158
158. On aerodromes.. aircrafts taxiing by own power means;
;C. To have priority over other vehicles and pedestrians;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
159
159. Flight visibility defines as:;
;D. Visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
160
160. The aerunatical chart ICAO 1:500..000 describes an airspace ”D CTR” with: ”2800 (Hx)”. Does a pilot.. whose radio has failed.. has the possibility to cross this airspace on a Saturday?;
;A. Only if the status of the deactivation of the control zone has been confirmed just before the radio failiure happens;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
161
161. You hear on the radio that another pilot repeatedly transmits ”MAYDAY”. It is ;
;A. A distress signal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
162
162. If there is any danger on the route.. how will ATC inform the pilot?;
;B. ATC will transmit to the pilot information about distance and bearing to the potential threat.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
163
163. An overtaking aircraft is an aircraft that approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line forming of.;
;C. less than 70˚ with the plane of symmetry of the latter.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
164
164. The higher value being relevant.. a VFR-flight needs to operate a transponder above altitude 5000 ft MSL or;
;D. 3500ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
165
165. An engine-powered aircraft on a VFR flight leaves airspace C in the vicinity of an airport and continues its flight in airspace E at FL75. What does the pilot have to do? He/She;
;C. Unrequested spwuak A/C 7000 and observe the prescribed minima for VFR flights in airspace E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
166
166. When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights?;
;B. Only at night.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
167
167. While on the ground.. the navigation lights shall be turned on:;
;B. By all aircraft moving on the movement area of an aerodrome from sunset to sunrise to indicate the relative path of the aircraft to an observer and other lights shall not be displayed if they are likely to be mistaken for these lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
168
168. What is meant by by the term ”SPECIAL VFR”?;
;B. A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
169
169. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight.. the submitted flight plan should be amended or canceled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:;
;A. 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
170
170. What is the lowest height for VFR flights over congested areas?;
;B. 1000ft;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
171
171. Except where necessary for landing and take-off.. VFR flights are not permitted over congested areas of cities.. towns or settlements.. or over and open air assembly of persons a height less than ___ above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.;
;A. 300 m: 600 m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
172
172. ICAO Annex 2: 4.6 - Except when necessary for take-off or landing.. or except by permission from the appropriate authority.. a VFR flight shall not be flown: a) over the congested areas of cities.. towns or settlements or over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than 300m (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft: b) elsewhere than as specified in 4.6 a).. at a height less than ____(____) above the ground or water.;
;A. 150 m: (500ft);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
173
173. What should a pilot do at night and if no radio communication can be established when he/she wants to acknowledge and instruction fom an aerodrome control tower?;
;C. Flash on and off twice the aircrafts landing lights or.. if not so equipped.. by switch on and off twice its navigation lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
174
174. In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its track given in the current flight plan.. action should be taken in order to:;
;A. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
175
175. Aircraft equipped with red anti-collision lights shall display them:;
;C. On the ground when the engines are running.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
176
176. What is the meaning of red pyrotechnic from an airfield to an aircraft flying next to this airfield?;
;A. Notwithstanding any previous instructions.. do not land for the time being.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
177
177. A signalman (marshaller) requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:;
;A. Raise hand jut above shoulder height with open palm.. ensure eye-contact with crew.. close hand into a fist.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
178
178. While flying at night another aircraft reports that you are on his 100 degree relative bearing. Assuming you are on converging courses.. you should see his:;
;D. Green navigation light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
179
179. The pre-flight actions for a flight leaving the local aerodrome area.. is to include a careful:;
;A. Study of the available meteorological reports and forecasts for the route.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
180
180. While taxiing.. an aircraft recieves the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:;
;D. Must vacate the landing area in use.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
181
181. Pre-flight briefing for flights away from the vicinity of an aerodrome and all IFR flights shall include which of the following? 1) A meteorological brief. 2) A consideration of the fuel requirements. 3) Alternative actions if the flight can not be completed as planned. ;
;C. 1.. 2.. 3;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
182
182. When is a deviation from the Rules of the Air permitted?;
;A. Only in the interests of flight safety.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
183
183. In general.. the ICAO Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) applies:;
;D. To all IFR and VFR traffic.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
184
Whih of the following defines ”FLIGHT VISIBILITY”?;
;B. The forward visibility from the flight cockpit of an aircraft in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
185
185. The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance (urgency signals).;
;A. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
186
186. The final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft in flight lies with the:;
;B. Pilot-in-command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
187
187. Describe the lights to be displayed by an aircraft in flight at night:;
;A. Navigation lights and anti collision lights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
188
188. What is the meaning of the term ”DANGER AREAS”?;
;B. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
189
189. State who on board an aircraft is primarily responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the Rules of the Air (ICAO ANNEX 2)?;
;D. The pilot-in-command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
190
190. How is ”FLIGHT VISIBILITY” defined?;
;C. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
191
191. Which of the following defines ”GROUND VISIBILITY”?;
;B. The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
192
192. Who is in charge with the safe conduct of a flight?;
;A. The pilot-in command.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
193
193. No continuous air-ground voicecommunication is required for VFR flights in airspaces;
;A. G.. E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
194
194. The higher value being relevant.. the pilot switches the altimeter from QNH to 1013..25 hPa above altitude 5000 ft MSL or;
;A. 2000 ft GND;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
195
195. In Germany.. control zones are classified;
;B. As airspace D.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
196
196. Under which conditions may a control zone usually be entered during a VFR flight?;
;D. If VMC for airspace D-CTR is fullfilled with a ground visibility of 5 km.. the cloud ceiling not lower than 1500 ft GND.. and if the responsible air traffic control unit has issued the required clearance.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
197
197. What is the ceiling?;
;B. The lower limit of the base of the lowest layer of clouds above ground or water.. covering more than half the sky below 20000 ft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
198
198. A pilot is required to report observations concerning the safety to air traffic to;
;C. The air traffic control unit responsible for him/her;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
199
199. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INERFA)?;
;C. An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
200
200. What is the meaning of the abbreviation ^ATIS^?;
;b. Automatic Terminal Information Service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
201
201. The approach Control Service is an Air Traffic Control Service:;
;d. provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
202
202. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?;
;a. Upon receipt of any official weather.. regardless of content change or reported values.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
203
203. In accordance with ICAO legislation.. what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVRF flight to take-off from an aerodrome in a CTR.;
;b. 1500m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
204
204. The 3 basic types of ATS are:;
;a. ATC.. FIS and Alerting service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
205
205. Flight information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collition hazards when operating in airspace classes:;
;b. C.. D.. E.. F.. and G.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
206
206. ATC separation shall be provided:;
;c. between IFR and VFR flights in airspace class C;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
207
207. Which of the following phenomena would cause a SIGMET to be transmitted to aircraft flying at subsonic cruising levels?;
;c. Severe squall lines.. heavy hail or severe icing.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
208
208. For VFR flights.. continuous two-way radio communication with ATS is required in the following airspace classes:;
;a. B.. C.. D.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
209
209. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are.. in the increasing order of seriousness:;
;a. INCERFA.. ALERFA.. DETRESFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
210
210. Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1500 meters.. even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class:;
;b. E airspace;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
211
211. DETRESFA ia a situation where:;
;c. the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
212
212. A special VFR clearance may be obtained from ATC for the following airspaces:;
;b. CTR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
213
213. If a pilot lands at an airfield other than the destination specified in the flight plan.. he must inform the ATC unit at the original destination within:;
;c. 30 minutes of the original destination ETA.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
214
214. Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority.. the horizontal radar seperation minimum shall be:;
;c. 5 NM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
215
215. The speed limitation in airspace classefied as for G.. when flying below 3050 m (10000ft.) AMSL.. is:;
;a. 250 kts IAS.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
216
216. The minimum lateral limits of a CTR are:;
;b. 5 NM in the direction from which approaches may be made.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
217
217. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:;
;a. provided with the air traffic control services or otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
218
218. Essential Traffic is:;
;a. controlled traffic not seperated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
219
219. Which provisions on a VFR flight in Class E airspace are correct?;
;b. Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical: ATC Clearance: not required.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
220
220. Which of the following statements describes the Alert Phase (ALERFA)?;
;a. An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and communication has not been re-established.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
221
221. A Special Air Report shall be made by the pilot:;
;b. when experiencing severe icing or turbulence.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
222
222. If an ATC clearance is not suitible to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft the following applies:;
;c. The flight crew may request and.. if practicable.. obtain an amended ATC clearance.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
223
223. An Air Traffic Control Unit:;
;b. may instruct an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
224
224. A transition altitude shall normally be specified for each aerodrome by the State in which the aerodrome is located. The calculated height of the transition altitude shall be rounded up to the next full:;
;d. 1 000 ft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
225
225. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:;
;c. control zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
226
226. Air Traffic Service unit means:;
;d. Air Traffic Control units.. Flight Information Centres or Air Traffic Services reporting offices.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
227
227. Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):;
;a. it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
228
228. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?;
;a. ATC and the FIC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
229
229. An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast;
;d. An AIRMET information;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
230
230. Aerodrome traffic is:;
;b. All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
231
231. The highest priority for landing has:;
;a. an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
232
232. When should the flight crew be provided with information about the transition level?;
;a. Before commencing an approach to an aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
233
233. What is the objective of Aerodrome Control Service?;
;d. All of the above.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
234
234. Which phase of emergency is declared if an aircraft is known or believed to be subject on unlawful interference?;
;a. ALERFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
235
235. Unless instructed otherwise by an air traffic controller.. when passing through the Transition Layer.. a pilot shall report the vertical position of the aircraft as:;
;d. altitude in a descent.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
236
236. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:;
;c. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
237
237. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace withing which the following services are provided:;
;d. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
238
238. In which situation would a METAR result in a prompt ATIS update?;
;a. When receiving a ^Special Aerodrome Meteorological Report^;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
239
239. Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?;
;d. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
240
240. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?;
;b. 250 kts for IFR and VFR up to FL 100.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
241
241. ATIS broadcast:;
;c. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
242
242. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested.. is classified:;
;a. airspace F.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
243
243. The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B.. when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
;a. not applicable.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
244
244. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are seperated from each other are classified as:;
;d. airspace B.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
245
245. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:;
;a. achieving separation between controlled flights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
246
246. Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established.. the procedures applicable there:;
;c.need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
247
247. The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or belived to be in an emergency are:;
;d. uncertainty phase.. alert phase.. distress phase.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
248
248. Whenever ATIS is provided.. the preperation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of:;
;b. the air traffic services.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
249
249. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:;
;c. 30 seconds of UTC at all times.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
250
250. The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C.. when flying below 3050 m (100 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
;c. 250 kts IAS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
251
251. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E.. when flying below 3050 m (10000 ft.) AMSL.. is:;
;b. 250 kts IAS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
252
252. In radio communications.. ^DISTRESS^ differs from ^URGENCY^ because in the first case:;
;c. there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
253
253. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service: IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights ans receive traffic information in respect to VFR flights: VFR flights receive traffic information in respect to all other flights.. is classified as: ;
;c. airspace D;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
254
254. Altimeter settings provided t oaircraft shall be rounde:;
;c. down to the nearest lower whole hectopascal;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
255
255. When should position reports be made?;
;c. When passing each designated compulsory reporting point;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
256
256. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties.. triggering of the alerting phase is the responsibility of:;
;b. air traffic control and flight inforamtion centres;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
257
257. To perform a VF%R flight in airspace classification E:;
;b. two-way radio communication is not required;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
258
258. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency phase does this situation correspond?;
;d. ALERFA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
259
259. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty.. the decision to initiate the alert phase is the responsibility of the:;
;d. operational air traffic control centres;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
260
260. An aircraft in flight in an Flight Information Region (FIR) would recieve a report of severe turbulence in the form of a:;
;a. SIGMET;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
261
261. Which type of service is provided in clasd F airspace?;
;a. Air Traffic Advisory service and Flight Information Service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
262
262. The objectives of an Aerodrome Control Service include the prevention of collisions betwen: 1)aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit and local area around the aerodrome. 2) aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area. 3) aircraft landing and taking off. 4)aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area.;
;a. 1.. 2.. 3.. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
263
263. A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:;
;c. 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
264
264. Alerting Service shall be provided:;
;c. for all controled flights.. to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference.. and in so far as practicable t oall aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
265
265. Air Traffic Control Service is provided for the purpose of:;
;d. preventing collisions between aircraft.. between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining orderly flow of air traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
266
266. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR Are permitted.. IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.. is classified as:;
;d. airspace E;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
267
267. Which of the following is not an emergency frequency?;
;d. 12345MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
268
268. The ATIS broadcast message should.. whenever practicable.. not exceed:;
;d. 30 seconds;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
269
269. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted.. all flights are subject to air traffic control service and I FR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights.. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.. is classified as: ;
;a. airspace C;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
270
270. Flight Information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:;
;b. C to G (inclusive);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
271
271. How do you know that you are flying through the area of a controlled aerodrome?;
;d. ATC is provided to aerodrome traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
272
272. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C.. when flying below 3050 m (10000ft) AMSL.. is:;
;d. not applicable;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
273
273. At least how many NM shall a Control Zone extend from a reference point if the aerodrome or aerodromes into the direction from which approaches may be made?;
;b. 5NM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
274
274. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:;
;a. achieving separation between controlled flights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
275
275. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive only flight information service if requested.. is classified as:;
;c. airspace G;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
276
276. Whenever ATIS is provided.. the broadcast information shall be updated:;
;c. immediately a significant change occurs;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
277
277. At which altitude/FL in Germany do flight information regions (FIR) end?;
;B. FL 245;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
278
278. What is the meaning of the appreviation ^AFIS^?;
;d. Aerodrome Flight Information Service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
279
279. Which does ATC Term ^radar contact^ signify?;
;a. Your aircraft has been identified on the readar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
280
280. ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable.. but which.. in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima are not apllied.. the following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other:;
;b. All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
281
281. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected.. and where automatic distinct display of SSr Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided.. the radar controller shall attempt top verify this suspicion by:;
;c. setting the SSR decoder to Mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
282
282. A pilot encountering windshear should report the fact to ATC:;
;d. as soon as possible;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
283
283. Which of the following has the highest order of priority?;
;b. Aircraft landing;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
284
284. With regard to the wake turbulence category aircraft classification.. the Maximum Take-off Mas of MEDIUM aircraft is:;
;a. less than 136 000 kg but more than 7 000 kg;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
285
285. What does the term ^air traffic control clearance“ mean?;
;C. the autorisation to conduct a flight under particular conditions.. issued by an air traffic control unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
286
286. What is the latest time the QNH should be communicated to aircraft prior to take-off?;
;A. When taxi approval is given;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
287
287. How are VFR flights separated in airspace C and which air traffic control services do apply?;
;B. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights – air traffic control.. traffic information VFR/VFR flights (traffic avoidance upon request);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
288
288. Traffic to which the provision of ATC is applicable.. but which.. in relation to a particular controlled flight.. is not separated there fromby the minima set forth is called:;
;B. Essential traffic;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
289
289. Which minimum requirements and air traffic services apply for VFR flights in airspace D (below FL100)?;
;D. flight visibility 5km.. cloud distance 1500m horizontal.. 1000ft vertically.. Air Traffic Control.. continous air-ground voice communications.. max 250kts IAS.. traffic information in respect of all other flights and traffic avoidance advice on request;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
290
290. Air traffic control clearances at aerodromes are issued by the:;
;C. respective air traffic control unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
291
291. Is there a distance from clouds prescribed for a VFR fligth in airspace G below altitude 3000ft or 1000ft GND?;
;D. no;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
292
292. A VFR cross country flight leads through a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ) at an uncontrolled aerodrome. Which VMC for this airspace and which special conditions shall be observed?;
;D. Clear of clouds.. surface in sight.. flight visibilities 5km.. or reduced to not less than 1500m for flights operating at speeds of 140kts IAS or less.. in case of helicopters less than 1500m but not less than 800m.. if manoeuvered at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision.. establish radio contact/maintain constant listening watch.. report leaving RMZ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
293
293. Which airspace/airspaces in Germany require additionally to other requirements ”visual ground contact“ for VFR flights?;
;C. G;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
294
294. Which types of air traffic control services are executed by the DFS (Air Navigation Services) as a basic principle? (2 Points);
;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
295
295. Which statements about German danger areas and restricted areas are correct? (3 points);
;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
296
296. What is the ceiling needed for at a controlled aerodrome;
;C. To determine the status of the control zone IMC/VMC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
297
297. Which air traffic services are provided by the German Air Navigation Services (DFS)?;
;D. aeronautical information service.. air traffic control service.. flight information service;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
298
298. Before flight.. transition level information can be obtained by consulting:;
;D. ATIS.. ATC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
299
299. In an incident report.. how can you find ”aircraft proximity” in form of an abbreviation?;
;C. AIRPROX;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
300
300. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth is: ;
;A. Control area;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
301
301. When must a pilot of an aircraft during a VFR flight operating at night report the position?;
;D. When requested by the appropriate ATS unit;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
302
302. When are you required to report your position?;
;C. At or after the position point;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
303
303. Control area (CTA) is defined as follows:;
;D. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
304
304. Following an AIRPROX incident.. an Air Traffic Incident Report (ATIR) should be submitted:;
;C. To the air traffic service unit concerned;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
305
305. The definition of ”Manoeuvring Area” is:;
;B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off.. landing and taxiing of aircraft.. excluding apron(s);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
306
306. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)?;
;A. To promote aircraft flight safety;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
307
307. Essential local traffic consists of:;
;D. any aircraft.. vehicle or personell on or near the runway to be used.. or traffic in the take-off and climb-out area or the final approach area.. which may constitude a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraft.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
308
308. IFR cruising levels within controlled airspace shall be given as Flight Level(FL):;
;C. above the Transition Altitude when applicable;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
309
309. When operating under Special VFR clearance.. the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles in the ground rests with:;
;C. the pilot-in-command;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
310
310. The letter ^L^ is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum cerfified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:;
;C. 7000 kg;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
311
311. Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by ATC controllers?;
;B. Clearances do not relieve pilots from their responsibility to comply with rules and regulations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
312
312. The transition level:;
;B. will be passed to aircraft by ATS units;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
313
313. When should ATC provide the pilot with a local QNH altimeter setting?;
;D. With clearance to enter the traffic pattern and with initial taxi clearance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
314
314. Controlled airspace is:;
;B. an area within a FIR/UIR in which an ATC service is provided;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
315
315. What is the meaning of abbreviation ^ACC^?;
;B. Area Control Centre;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
316
316. Essential traffic information shall be given to:;
;C. controlled flights.. whenever they constitute essential traffic to each other;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
317
317. What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC?;
;C. Vertical and horizontal separation;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
318
318. A controlled flight is:;
;C. any flight wich is subject to an ATC clearance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
319
319. Whenever practicable.. NOTAMs are distributed by:;
;A. AFTN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
320
320. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of acitivity of a volcano when a change in its activity is.. or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous.. eruption likely.. with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL250 or is expected to rise above FL250.. the level of alert colour code is:;
;B. RED;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
321
321. What is the standart colour for an administrative document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
;C. White;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
322
322. At least how many days in advance of the effective date must AIRAC information be distrubuted?;
;C. 42;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
323
323. Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of meteorological Information provided at an aerodrome?;
;D. AD;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
324
324. In order to avoid confusion.. the identification numbers given to each prohibited area.. restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a peroid of:;
;C. at least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
325
325. Which of the following is Information that is not given in AIP Visual Approach and Landing charts?;
;B. Visibility minima.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
326
326. Which part of the AIP contains the information concerning charges for the use of aerodromes/heliports and for the provision of Air Navigation Services?;
;B. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
327
327. Which part of the AIP contains a detailed description of lower ATS routes?;
;B. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
328
328. A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:;
;D. not more than one month;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
329
329. The aeronautical information publication (AIP-) VFR shows the entry ^PPR^ for an aerodrome in item ^operating hours^. What does this abbreviation stand for?;
;B. Landing on this aerodrome may only be performed with prior permission of the person responsible for flight operations. There is no obligation to operate.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
330
330. A checklist of valid NOTAM currently in force shall be issued over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) at intervals of not more than;
;A. one month;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
331
331. The aeronautical Information Service has the following tasks.. among others;
;D. to accept.. check and forward flight plans;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
332
332. What are contents of an ^NFL 1“?;
;A. important regulation for aviation concerning realisation of flight operations;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
333
333. Which part of the AIP contains a list of differences between the national regulations/practices and the related ICAO Standarts.. Recommended Practices and Procedures?;
;A. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
334
334. The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:;
;A. GEN.. ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
335
335. How are restricted (R).. prohibited (P) and dangerous (D) areas represented?;
;B. By the letters R.. P or D and additionally with an ID number.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
336
336. In which section of AIP would you find the information elements referring to routes (and/or areas) for which meteorological services are provided?;
;B. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
337
337. What is the standard colour code for a danger area map when considering information circular (AIC)?;
;C. mauve;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
338
338. The temporary.. long-term modification (3 month or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows:;
;C. AIP Supplements;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
339
339. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of:;
;A. WGS 84;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
340
340. Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory.. and this shall include the preparation and originatin of.;
;B. integrated Aeronautical Information Package.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
341
341. Information concerning snow.. ice and standing water associated with snow on aerodrome pavement areas is to be reported by;
;C. SNOWTAM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
342
342. An Integrated Aeronautical Information Package consists of the following elements:;
;B. AIP.. including amendment service: supplements to AIP: NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB): AIC: checklists and summaries.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
343
343. A notice containing information concerning flight safety.. air navigation.. technical.. administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:;
;B. aeronautical Information Circular (AIC);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
344
344. The identification of each prohibited.. restricted and danger area shall be composed by:;
;C. the nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state of territory.. followed the letters P.. R and D and figures;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
345
345. A notice providing information on Rules of the Air.. Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and dustributed in advance of its effective date is:;
;B. an AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
346
346. An AIRAC is:;
;D. an acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates.. of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
347
347. Temporary changes of long duration and information of ^short duration“ with text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. The period of ^long duration“ is defined as:;
;A. 3 months or longer;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
348
348. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:;
;C. AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
349
349. What is the purpose of AIS?;
;A. To ensure the flow of information necessary for the safety.. regularity and efficiency of international air navigation.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
350
350. The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation.. based on commom effective dates.. is identified by the acronym:;
;A. AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
351
351. ^A publication issued by or with the authority of a state and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation“ is the definition of:;
;c. aeronautical Information Publication (AIP);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
352
352. Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited.. restricted and danger areas?;
;b. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
353
353. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:;
;c. AIRAC;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
354
354. Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition.. ^a special NOTAM series notifying.. by means of a specific format.. an important change for the aircraft operations.. due to a volcano activity.. a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud“.;
;c. ASHTAM;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
355
355. Which part of the AIP contains Information on holding approach and departure procedures?;
;c. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
356
356. In which part of the AIP will you find information about special lights during landing (communication failure);
;c. ENR;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
357
357. What is the standard colour code for a safety document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
;a. pink;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
358
358. The closure of a runway for a year.. because of maintenance.. will be published:;
;a. in NOTAM and AIP.. inclusive Supplement.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
359
359. Which part of the AIP contains a list with ^Location Indicators“?;
;a. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
360
360. What is the standard colour code for maps/ charts when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
;c. green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
361
361. What is the standard colour code for an ATC document when considering the aeronautical information circular (AIC)?;
;d. yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
362
362. From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue Organisation and procedures (SAR)?;
;b. AIP;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
363
363. Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refueling facilities and the fuel grades available?;
;d. AD;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
364
364. SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP?;
;a. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
365
365. Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue?;
;c. GEN;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
366
366. What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome?;
;b. It must be clearly visible from the air.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
367
367. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?;
;b. A displaced threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
368
368. Aerodrome aeronautical beacons usually show:;
;c. a white flashing strobe light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
369
369. A red square panel with one yellow diagonal strip.. displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:;
;b. the state of the manoeuvring area is poor.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
370
370. Runway centreline lights must be provided:;
;b. on a precision approach runway category II or III;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
371
371. What is the general shape of the landing indicator?;
;a. T;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
372
372. When taxiing on a surface with white markings.. you are on a:;
;d. runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
373
373. Which of the following describes runway threshold lights?;
;d. Green unidirectional.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
374
374. How many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required on a runway with a lenght of 1500m?;
;c. 4;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
375
375. Runway edge lights.. except in the case of a displaced threshold.. shall be:;
;a. Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
376
376. Two or more white or yellow crosses.. displayed on runways (taxiways).. indicate that:;
;d. the section of the runway or taxiway is unfit for aircraft movement;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
377
377. What is the colour of runway edge lights?;
;d. white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
378
378. In a precision approach category I lighting system.. the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:;
;c. fixed lights showing variable white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
379
379. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precison approach path indicator?;
;d. A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
380
380. Alternating yellow/ green centreline lights of a taxiway indicate:;
;b. an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
381
381. Runway end lights shall be:;
;a. Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
382
382. When on or close to the approach slope.. the wing bar of a PAPI shows:;
;a. two red lights and two white lights;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
383
383. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:;
;c. yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
384
384. Mandatory signs consist of a ___ inscription on a ___ background;
;d. white: red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
385
385. A sequence of white arrows painted on the runway surface along the centreline indicate:;
;c. a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
386
386. The standard color used for runway markings shall be:;
;b. white;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
387
387. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:;
;b. Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only.. but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways or taxiways;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
388
388. Alternating taxiway centreline lights shall show ___ and ___ from their beginning near the runway centreline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.;
;c. green: yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
389
389. Runway threshold lights shall be:;
;b. fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach of the runway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
390
390. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:;
;d. flashing-blue or flashing-yellow;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
391
391. The colour of fixed.. unidirectional Runway End Lights shall be:;
;D. Red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
392
392. Which of the following describes a ^Location sign^?;
;b. yellow writing on a black background.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
393
393. In which cases is the aerodrome lighting of an aeredrome being turned on as a basic principle?;
;xxxxx;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
394
394. The abbreviation PAPI stand for:;
;B. Precision approach path indicator;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
395
395. The length of a clearway should not exceed:;
;A. 1/2 TORA;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
396
396. The declared take-off run available at an aerodrome is:;
;B. The take-off distance available less the clearway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
397
397. Which of the statements below describes the take-off run available (TORA)?;
;A. The lenght of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
398
398. Regarding declared airfield distance the ASDA is:;
;C. The distance from the start of the take-off run to the end of the stopway;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
399
399. ^TODA^ take-off distance available is:;
;B. The lenght of the take-off run available plus the lenght of clearway available (if provided);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
400
400. ^ASDA^ (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:;
;A. the length of the take-off run available plus the lenght of stopway (if stopway provided);;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
401
401. The purpose of a radio-altimeter operating area is:;
;C. to accommodate aeroplanes making auto-coupled approaches and automatic landings;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
402
402. The pre-threshold area of a runway fit for use by aircraft as a stopway.. but not for normal movement of aircraft is marked with>;
;B. Yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
403
403. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60 m in lenght but not suitable for use by aircraft.. marked_;
;D. By a white x.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
404
404. A runway threshold marking shall be consist od a pattern of longitudinal stripes symmetrial about the centreline of the runway. If the runway is 45m wide.. how many stripes are required?;
;C. 12;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
405
405. Low-intensity obstacle lights.. type C.. displayed on vehicles associated with emergency shall be:;
;D. Flashing blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
406
406. High intensity obstacle lights should be:;
;D. Flashing white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
407
407. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome?;
;C. A single conspicuous colour.. preferably red or yellowish green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
408
408. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:;
;C. Fixed red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
409
409. In what colour shall mobile objects.. like airport service vehicles.. be painted?;
;D. Yellow.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
410
410. Runway edge lights are:;
;D. Fixed variable intensity unidirectional showing white or yellow.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
411
411. Which of the following represents a valid configuration for aerodrome signs?;
;B. Yellow inscription on black background: or black inscription on yellow background.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
412
412. “Fixed distance markings” on certain precision approach runways are located:;
;A. 300 m from the threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
413
413. Where are taxiway centerline lights showing alternating green and yellow installed?;
;D. From the beginning of a taxiway near the runway centerline to the perimeter of the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
414
414. The standard configuration of a full CAT approach light system includes_____crossbars.;
;A. 5;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
415
415. Each wing bar of ’VASIS’ system has ____light units.;
;B. 3.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
416
416. The following markings are used to indicate a runway or a taxiway is closed:;
;A. White crosses for runways and yellow crosses for taxiways.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
417
417. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?;
;B. 45 meters.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
418
418. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimizing runway occupancy time?;
;C. Rapid exit taxiway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
419
419. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimension. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example.;
;D. 2B. ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
420
420. What lighting is required for runways to be used for take-off in an operating minimum below an RVR of approximately 400 m?;
;C. Edge lights and centerline lights.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
421
421. With reference to runway strip you can say that it includes part of runway and:;
;D. A stopway in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
422
422. A _______is defined as an area of specified dimensions enclosing a runway or taxiway to provide for the safety of aircraft operations.;
;A. Strip.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
423
423. Explain the term ‘runway strip’:;
;A. A defined area including the runway.. stopway and clearway.. if provided.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
424
424. A volume of airspace extending upwards and outwards from an inner portion of the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear of all obstructions is called:;
;D. Obstacle free zone.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
425
425. A runway end safety area includes:;
;B. An area symmetrical about the extended runway center line and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
426
426. According with the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the “Code number 4” shall identify an aircraft reference field lenght of:;
;D. 1800 m and over.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
427
427. A defined rectangular area.. selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called:;
;A. Clearway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
428
428. “A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off” is the definition for:;
;C. Stopway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
429
429. Describe where a threshold should normally be located:;
;C. A threshold should normally be located at the extremity of a runway unless operational considerations justify the choice of another location.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
430
430. The “stopway” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:;
;C. An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
431
431. “An area symetrical about the extended runway centerline and adjacent to the end of the strip primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting overrunning the runway” is the definition for:;
;B. Runway end safety area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
432
432. Clearway is defined rectangular area established to:;
;B. Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
433
433. Where is a stopway situated?;
;B. At the end of the TORA.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
434
434. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATC as “0.25” This corresponds to ____ braking action.;
;C. Poor.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
435
435. A specific point.. measured and reported to the aeronautical information services authority in degrees.. minutes and seconds.. which normally corresponds to the geometric center of an airport is:;
;B. The aerodrome reference point.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
436
436. In the “Aerodrome Reference Code” the code element 2 shall identify;
;A. The aircraft wingspan and the outer main gear wheel span.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
437
437. The “Aerodrome Reference Code” is a code composed of two elements Which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:;
;D. 2B.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
438
438. Dry snow is snow which:;
;B. Will fall apart again if compacted by hand.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
439
439. The “aerodrome elevation” is the height of.;
;C. The highest point in the landing area.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
440
440. An “aerodrome reference point” is defined as the:;
;D. The designated geographical location of the aerodrome.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
441
441. ICAO Annex 14 states A simple approach lighting system shall consist of a row of lights on the extended center line of the runway extending.. whenever possible.. over a distance of not less than__________m from the threshold with a row of lights forming a crossbar.;
;B. 420m.. 300m.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
442
442. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen water reported by ATC?;
;C. Snow.. ice and slush.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
443
443. Dry snow is which:;
;B. Will fall apart again if compacted by hand.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
444
444. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as “036” This corresponds to _____braking action.;
;C. Medium/Good;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
445
445. A runway friction coefficient for a specific runway is reported by the ATS as “040” This corresponds to _____braking action.;
;D. Good.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
446
446. On a FLOODED runway.;
;C. Extensive standing water is visible.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
447
447. On a DAMP runway:;
;C. the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
448
448. On a WET runway:;
;D. the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
449
449. When the runway surface is soaked but there is no standing water.. the correct term describing the runway surface condition is;
;B. wet;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
450
450. For planning purposes.. an serodrome is categorized by aerodrome reference code. This code is composed of two elements a number and a letter. What does th number relate to?;
;D. Aeroplane reference field length;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
451
451. Runway centreline markings shall be provided on:;
;A. Paved runways;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
452
452. The light shown by an ”Aerodrome Identification Beacon” at a land aerodrome shall be:;
;B. Green color identification given by Morse Code;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
453
453. In the ”PAPI” system the Pilot doing an approach will see the two unitsnearest the runway as red andthe two units farthest from th runway as white when:;
;B. On or close to the approach slope;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
454
454. When a runway threshold is displaced.. what color shall the runway edge lights have in approach direction between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold?;
;C. Red;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
455
455. An ”aiming point marking” shall be provided at the approach end of a paved instrument runway if the runway length isgreater than:;
;B. 800 m;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
456
456. The colour of te fixed.. unidirectional runway threshold wing bar lights shall be:;
;C. Green;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
457
457. Runway edge lights shall consist of at least:;
;A. fixed lights showing variable white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
458
458. The abbreviation PAPI stands for: ;
;D. Precision Approach Path Indicator;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
459
459. Touchdown zone markings are placed:;
;A. 150 m from the runway threshold.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
460
460. Taxiway centreline lights other than exit taxiway shall be:;
;D. fixed lights showing green.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
461
461. How does a pilot see the PAPI Wing bar lights.. when the position of the aircraft is far above the approach slope?;
;B. All four light units are steady white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
462
462. The number of stripes on each Side of the centreline of a runway which has a width of 45 m is:;
;D. 6;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
463
463. A pattern ^A^ runway-holding position marking shall be supplemented at a taxiway/runway intersection with a:;
;C. runway designation sign.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
464
464. Which of the following is not a mandatory instruction sign?;
;C. Direction sign.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
465
465. The centreline and crossbar lights of a precision approach Category I lightning system shall be fixed lights.. showing variable intensity of the following colour: ;
;C. White;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
466
466. Which of the following aerodrome ground signals displayed in the Signals area indicates that glider flying is in progress?;
;A. A white double cross.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
467
467. Taxiway edge markers shall be;
;A. retroreflective blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
468
468. A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour indicated (visual ground signal):;
;A. that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
469
469. The ^PAPI^ shall consist of: ;
;D. a wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
470
470. A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular potion placed in the aerodrome Signal area indicates that:;
;B. a parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
471
471. A black letter ^C^ on a yellow background indicates:;
;D. the location where visiting pilots should report.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
472
472. What colour are apron markings (apron safety lines)?;
;D. A contrasting colour from the taxiway markings.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
473
473. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the aerodrome signal area means:;
;D. the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
474
474. In the case of parallel runways.. each runway designation number shall be supplemented: ;
;B. by a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ^L^ and ^R^ - for 3 ^L^.. ^C^ and ^R^.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
475
475. Taxiway edge lights shall be;
;B. fixed showing blue.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
476
476. Runway edge lights.. except in the case of a displaced threshould and / or at the remove end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started.. are:;
;D. fixed lights showing variable white.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
477
477. Aerodrome signs should be in the following configuration;
;A. information signs: yellow or black background with black or yellow inscription;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
478
478. On an aerodrome equipped with parallel runways.. the designation number of each runway shall be supplemented as follows.;
;B. in case of two parallel runways by the letter ^L^ and ^R^ in the sequence from left to right.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
479
479. Mandatory instruction signs on an aerodrome shall have the following colours:;
;D. white inscription on a red background;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
480
480. How many red lights must a pilot see.. whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined byt a PAPI?;
;D. 2;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
481
481. How is a taxiway holding position marked? ;
;C. A red marker board either side of the taxiway.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
482
482. How many red lights must a pilot see.. whose aircraft in final approach is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?;
;D. 2;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
483
483. A red square panel with a yellow strip along each diagonal.. displayed in the signals area of an aerodrome indicates:;
;A. aerodrome is unfit for aircraft movements.. and landings are prohibited.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
484
484. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers.. loading and unloading of cargo and refueling and parking is known as: ;
;C. the apron.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
485
485. The part of an aerodrome provided for the stationing of aircraft for the purpose of embarking and disembarking passengers.. loading and unloading of cargo and refuelling and parking is known as:;
;C. the apron.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
486
486. You are flying in a mountainous region and you see a symbol ^X^ on the ground. What does this mean?;
;D. require medical assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
487
487. What does the signal ^N^ mean?;
;C. ^No or ^Negative^.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
488
488. Which of the following signals is a distress signal?;
;A. A parachute flare showing a red light.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
489
489. What is the meaning of a symbol ^V^ seen on the ground in the vicinity of an aircraft crash site?;
;C. request assistance;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
490
490. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers accoring to the following code:;
;A. black for miscellaneous equipment;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
491
491. What frequency does the emergency locator beacon transmit on?;
;B. 121.5 MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
492
492. Alert phase is defined as follows: ;
;D. A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
493
493. At which phase should search and rescue (SAR) services prepare their personnel and equipment for a potential SAR operation?;
;A. Alert phase;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
494
494.^A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants^ is the definition for:;
;B. alert phase.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
495
495. When an aircraft crashes in an area not owned by a certain state who is responsible for carrying out SAR activities?;
;D. The one who is determined on the basis of regional air navigation agreements.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
496
496. Search and rescue on the high seas is conducted:;
;C. by the basis of Regional Air Navigation agreements.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
497
497. What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?;
;A. Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
498
498. The unit responsible for promoting efficient organization of Search and Rescue aservice in each SAR region is the: ;
;B. Recue Co-ordination centre;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
499
499. Which of the following frequencies are used for emergency operation by SAR aircraft? ;
;D. 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
500
500. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre: ;
;B. in each search and rescue region.;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;
GHU201
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