Ch 4 & 5: Connective Tissue, Adipose, Cartilage, Bone Q Bank Test 2 Flashcards Preview

SUM: Histology I > Ch 4 & 5: Connective Tissue, Adipose, Cartilage, Bone Q Bank Test 2 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Ch 4 & 5: Connective Tissue, Adipose, Cartilage, Bone Q Bank Test 2 Deck (30)
Loading flashcards...
1

Which of the following connective tissue components is located in the ECM but not in the ground substance?

a. Collagen bundles

 b. Fibronectin

 c. GAGs

 d. Hyaluronan

 e. Proteoglycans

2

What cells numerous in loose connective tissue are filled with secretory granules and stain with metachromasia?

 a. Macrophages

 b. Mast cells

 c. Fibrocytes

 d. Active fibroblasts

 e. Leukocytes

3

 What is the first step of collagen production that occurs after the protein undergoes exocytosis?

a. Cross-linking of collagen fibrils with a short linking collagen

 b. Removal of the terminal nonhelical domains by peptidases

c. Hydroxylation of lysine and proline

 d. Assembly of subunits to form a larger structure

 e. Disulfide bond formation

4

What is an important part of the role played by macrophages during maintenance and renewal of strong extracellular fibers in connective tissue?

 a. Storage for a major energy source needed for ECM maintenance

 b. Production of specific collagen subunits

 c. A sentinel function against invaders entering the ECM

 d. Secretion of matrix metalloproteinases

 e. Presentation of antigens important for assembly of collagen bundles

5

Sulfated GAGs are important constituents of what extracellular structures?

 a. Hyaluronan

 b. Elastic fibers

 c. Type I collagen

 d. Proteoglycans

 e. Multiadhesive glycoproteins

6

Which of the following contains binding sites for integrins and is an important part of the ECM in both loose connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue?

a. Aggrecan

 b. Fibronectin

 c. Perlecan

 d. Fibrillin

 e. Most types of collagen

7

 Dense regular connective tissue typically involves which of the following features?

a. Contains mostly synthetically active fibroblasts

 b. Contains much ground substance

 c. Contains a similar cell population as areolar connective tissue

 d. Predominant tissue type in the stroma of most organs

 e. Predominantly located in tendons and ligaments

8

White adipocytes are derived developmentally from what precursor cells?

 a. Monocytes

 b. Fibroblasts

c. Mesenchymal cells

 d. Brown adipocytes

 e. Mast cells

9

What are the relatively large particles formed in the intestinal epithelial cells and rich in ingested lipids?

a. Fatty acids

 b. Chylomicrons

 c. Glycerols

 d. Very-low-density lipoproteins

 e. Adipocytes

10

What substance, released from the adrenal gland and some autonomic neurons, increases lipolytic activity in white adipocytes?

 a. Leptin

 b. Insulin

c. Norepinephrine

 d. Glycogen

 e. Triglyceride

11

What is the most important form of lipid storage in both white and brown adipocytes?

a. Free fatty acids

 b. Cholesterol

 c. Chylomicrons

 d. Glycerol

e. Triglycerides

12

 Important target cells of leptin are found in which organ?

a. Small intestine

 b. White adipose tissue

 c. Large intestine

d. Hypothalamus

 e. Brown adipose tissue

13

 The hormone-sensitive lipase in the cells of adipose tissue acts primarily on what substrate?

 a. Glucose

 b. Free fatty acids

 c. Glycerol

d. Triglycerides

 e. Very-low-density lipoproteins

14

 Applied to adipocytes, the term “multilocular” refers to which of the following?

a. The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets

 b. The proliferation of the cells in an obese individual

 c. The large number of mitochondria in the cells

 d. The high density of nerves supplying the tissue

 e. The type of mesenchymal cells also present

15

Fully differentiated white adipocytes are large cells, typically having diameters of approximately what size?

 a. 5 μm

 b. 10 μm

 c. 100 μm

 d. 500 μm

 e. 1000 μm

16

The molecular basis for the shock absorbing properties of cartilage involves which of the following?

a. Electrostatic interaction of proteoglycans with type IV collagen

 b. Ability of glycosaminoglycans to bind anions

 c. Noncovalent binding of glycosaminoglycans to protein cores

 d. Sialic acid residues in the glycoproteins

 e. Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

17

What distinguishes cartilage from most other connective tissues? 

a. Its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen.

 b. Its predominant cell type is a mesenchymal derivative.

 c. Its predominant cell type secretes both fibers and proteoglycans.

d. It lacks blood vessels.

 e. It functions in mechanical support.

18

Which feature is typical of elastic cartilage?

a. Primary skeletal tissue in the fetus

 b. No identifiable perichondrium

 c. Found in intervertebral discs

 d. Most widely distributed cartilage type in the body

e. Collagen is mainly type II

19

Which area in cartilage is relatively collagen-poor and proteoglycan-rich?

a. Fibrocartilage

b. Territorial matrix

 c. Epiphyseal plate

 d. Interterritorial matrix

 e. Perichondrium

20

What is the source of the mesenchymal progenitor cells activated for the repair of hyaline cartilage of accident-damaged costal cartilages?

a. Perichondrium

 b. Adjacent loose connective tissue

 c. Bone of the adjacent rib(s) and sternum

 d. Chondrocytes of the injured cartilage

 e. Stem cells circulating with blood

21

How does articular cartilage differ from most other hyaline cartilage?

a. It undergoes mainly appositional growth.

 b. It contains isogenous groups of chondrocytes.

c. It lacks a perichondrium.

 d. Its matrix contains aggrecan.

 e. It is derived from embryonic mesenchyme.

22

Which step occurs first in chondrogenesis?

a. Appositional growth

 b. Conversion of chondroblasts to chondrocytes

c. Formation of mesenchymal condensations

 d. Interstitial growth

 e. Secretion of collagen-rich and proteoglycan-rich matrix

23

Osteoarthritis is characterized by the progressive erosion of articular cartilage. The matrix metalloproteinases involved in this erosion primarily act on which matrix component?

a. Aggrecan

 b. Link proteins

 c. Network-forming collagen

d. Fibril-forming collagen

 e. Chondronectin

24

 Which component of bone impedes the distribution of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes?


a. Extracellular matrix

b. Canaliculi

 c. Periosteum

 d. Cell processes

 e. Haversian canals

25

 Which if the following most accurately describes compact bone?

a. Predominant bone type in the epiphyses of adult long bones

 b. Also known as cancellous bone

c. Characterized by the presence of osteons

 d. Lines the medullary (marrow) cavity

 e. Forms the diploë in cranial bones

26

 In healthy bone canaliculi are likely to contain which one of the following?

a. Capillaries

 b. Nerve axons

 c. Osteocytic processes

 d. Osteoid

 e. Osteoclasts in resorption lacunae

27

Which of the following most accurately describes the endosteum? 

a. Composed of two layers: osteogenic and fibrous

 b. Continuous with the joint capsule

 c. Attached to the bone surface by collagen bundles called Sharpey fibers

 d. Lines the medullary cavity

 e. Contains mature osteocytes

28

 In the diaphysis of a typical long bone which of the following structures is in closest proximity to the trabeculae of cancellous bone?

a. Interstitial lamellae

 b. Osteons

 c. Sharpey fibers

 d. Outer circumferential lamellae

 e. Inner circumferential lamellae

29

Which “zone” of endochondral ossification in the growing femur of an adolescent is the farthest from that bone’s secondary ossification center?

a. Zone of hypertrophy

 b. Zone of reserve cartilage

 c. Zone of calcified cartilage

d. Zone of ossification

 e. Zone of proliferation

30

The major lubricant for diarthrotic joints is synthesized by cells located in which joint structure?

 a. Nucleus pulposus

 b. Synovial membrane

 c. Articular cartilage

 d. Annulus fibrosus

 e. Fibrous capsule