Chapter Quizzes - From Annie Flashcards
A multiple-casualty incident (MCI) is defined as:
a. any event that places an excessive demand on rescue personnel and equipment.
b. any event in which the number of patients requiring care is greater than 10.
c. any event that requires the medical director to leave the hospital and direct activities on scene.
d. any event in which five or more people are injured and require transport to different hospitals.
a. any event that places an excessive demand on rescue personnel and equipment.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 114
The National Incident Management System (NIMS) is beneficial in an emergency response to a disaster or a terrorism attack because it provides for:
a. specific codes and terms to enhance communications among EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel.
b. increased funding and reimbursement for any EMS agency involved in the response.
c. a consistent approach to managing a disaster when the response involves many different responders and agencies.
d. federal control of any disaster scene regardless of location.
c. a consistent approach to managing a disaster when the response involves many different responders and agencies.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 100
Which one of the following statements about the Incident Command System is true?
a. Each EMS agency can use its own codes and terms.
b. There is a separate commander for EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel.
c. Each individual responder is accountable to two supervisors.
d. Common terminology is used for all communications.
d. Common terminology is used for all communications.
Objective: 4-1
Reference: 123
While responding to an MCI drill involving an explosion, you recognize that the dozen ambulances sitting in a parking lot three blocks away from the incident constitute the:
a. transport unit.
b. staging unit.
c. treatment unit.
d. triage area.
b. staging unit.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 108
You correctly identify the primary benefit of triage when you say:
a. “Triage is a process by which the number of patients is quickly estimated so the appropriate resources can be summoned.”
b. “Triage is a system that can be used to determine the number of patients who will most likely die.”
c. “Triage is a system used to assign the order of care when an incident contains more than 10 patients.”
d. “Triage is used to prioritize patients for treatment and transportation based on their clinical signs and symptoms.”
d. “Triage is used to prioritize patients for treatment and transportation based on their clinical signs and symptoms.”
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 114
Approximately 15 trucks and cars have been involved in a “chain-reaction” collision. You are the first person on scene and begin going from vehicle to vehicle to determine the severity of each injury and to prioritize patients for treatment.
Your actions are an example of:
a. secondary triage.
b. emergency triage.
c. primary triage.
d. tertiary triage.
c. primary triage.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 112
At a multiple-casualty incident, you are brought a patient with a red tag tied to his wrist. You should recognize which one of the following?
a. immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary.
b. delayed care and transport of the patient are permissible.
c. the patient has a minor wrist injury.
d. the patient is deceased.
a. immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary.
Objective: 4-3
Reference: 115
Which one of the following triage tags indicates the lowest priority for care for a patient at a multiple-casualty incident?
a. A yellow tag
b. A red tag
c. A black tag
d. A green tag
c. A black tag
Objective: 4-3
Reference: 117
You are transporting a patient at a multiple-casualty incident. The patient has a yellow triage tag. You understand this tag to mean:
a. treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours.
b. the patient has minor injuries.
c. the patient should be with the “walking wounded.”
d. the patient has a head injury.
a. treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours.
Objective: 4-3
Reference: 116
In the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging patients, what should you include in your assessment to determine the order in which patients will receive emergency care?
a. Chief complaint, respiratory rate, pulse, medications the patient is using
b. Respiratory rate, pulse, mental status, ability to walk
c. Level of consciousness, pulse, past medical history, medications the patient is using
d. Chief complaint, ability to walk, pulse, past medical history
b. Respiratory rate, pulse, mental status, ability to walk
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
You are at a college football game when a bleacher collapses. Several injured people are walking around with various injuries. Which of the following instructions is most appropriate for these ambulatory patients?
a. “Go outside and wait by the red fire truck in the parking lot.”
b. “Sit down here so I can do a quick assessment on you.”
c. “Put this yellow tag on your wrist and go outside to the red fire truck in the parking lot.”
d. “Leave the football stadium and go to the hospital. Others are hurt more seriously than you.”
a. “Go outside and wait by the red fire truck in the parking lot.”
Objective: 4-3
Reference: 120
There is a fight involving approximately 20 bar patrons. Weapons were used, and there are varying degrees and types of injuries. The first person on scene has started assessing a person lying on the floor with blood covering his shirt. Quick assessment reveals him to be breathing at 24 times per minute. Which of the following actions should be done next?
a. Assist ventilation with a BVM.
b. Check for a radial pulse.
c. Attend to the next patient.
d. Place a yellow tag on his wrist.
b. Check for a radial pulse.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
A natural gas explosion has destroyed an apartment building. At least five occupants have been killed and another 12 injured. You are in charge of triage and are presented with a young woman who is breathing at a rate of 40 breaths per minute. Using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system for triaging, you should immediately:
a. place a red tag on the patient and move on to the next patient.
b. start assisting ventilation with a BVM.
c. apply oxygen with a nonrebreather face mask.
d. check for a radial pulse.
a. place a red tag on the patient and move on to the next patient.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are presented with a patient who is not breathing. According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system, which of the following actions should you take next?
a. Place a red tag on the patient.
b. Start assisting ventilation with a BVM.
c. Open the airway.
d. Place a black tag on the patient.
c. Open the airway.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
You are triaging using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system and you find a patient who is breathing 18 times per minute and has a radial pulse. Which one of the following actions should you take next?
a. Check the patient’s mental status.
b. Check the patient’s blood pressure.
c. Move the patient to the treatment area.
d. Place a yellow tag on the patient.
a. Check the patient’s mental status.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
In using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage, which one of the following patients should have a yellow tag applied before being moved to the treatment area?
a. A male with a respiratory rate of 8, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status
b. A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so
c. A female with agonal respirations, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status
d. A male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so
b. A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
A teen involved in a multiple-casualty incident is found lying on the ground with an obvious deformity to his left thigh. Using the START system for triage, you note that he is not breathing. Which one of the following should you do next?
a. Tag the patient as black, and then move on to the next patient.
b. Provide the patient 30 seconds of assisted ventilation.
c. Open the patient’s airway and then check for a radial pulse.
d. Give the patient a red tag and then move him to the treatment area.
c. Open the patient’s airway and then check for a radial pulse.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
While in charge of triage at a scene involving 30 patients exposed to carbon monoxide, you find a young female who is not breathing. After you open her airway and find that breathing does not return, you should:
a. provide her 15 seconds of assisted ventilation.
b. place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient.
c. provide her 15 seconds of CPR and recheck for a radial pulse.
d. apply oxygen and check her mental status.
b. place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
When you are placed in charge of the treatment unit at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, which of the following four patients will you treat first?
a. A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse
b. An elderly female patient with a femur fracture and a yellow tag on her wrist
c. A 21-year-old male who goes into cardiac arrest
d. A 13-year-old boy who walked to the treatment area complaining of a severe headache
a. A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 116
In most EMS systems, a multiple-casualty incident involves:
a. 2 or more patients.
b. 10 or more patients.
c. 20 or more patients.
d. 50 or more patients.
a. 2 or more patients.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 114
Which of the following statements reflects a proper understanding of an OEC Technician’s role at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident?
a. The OEC Technician will be in charge of providing direct medical care.
b. The role of the OEC Technician will be to transport patients.
c. The OEC Technician will be in charge of triage and the transport of patients.
d. The role of the OEC Technician will vary depending on the exact situation.
d. The role of the OEC Technician will vary depending on the exact situation.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 110
Of the five functional areas within the ICS structure, the first to be established should be:
a. the operations section.
b. incident command.
c. the planning section.
d. the logistics section.
b. incident command.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 104
The primary function of the Incident Commander is to:
a. provide overall leadership and direction.
b. investigate and document the cause of the incident.
c. obtain supplies needed to care for all patients.
d. ensure that radio communications are established.
a. provide overall leadership and direction.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 104
The Incident Commander has assigned you to be the Operations Section Chief. In this role you are responsible for all of the following except:
a. reducing immediate hazards.
b. determining incident resource needs.
c. participating in the planning process.
d. determining incident objectives and strategy.
d. determining incident objectives and strategy.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 105
In the Incident Command System, which of the following sections is responsible for maintaining all incident reports except for financials?
a. Logistics section
b. Operations section
c. Records section
d. Planning section
d. Planning section
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 106
The person responsible for maintaining equipment and ensuring that facilities meet specified needs is the:
a. Operations Chief.
b. Logistics Chief.
c. Maintenance Chief.
d. Planning Chief.
b. Logistics Chief.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 107
Which of the following is not a key characteristic of facilities utilized in an Incident Command System?
a. They should be situated in public view so that they are easily located.
b. They must grow be able to grow in size as needed.
c. They must be accessible to incident personnel.
d. They must be located in a secure, safe area.
a. They should be situated in public view so that they are easily located.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 108
In the Incident Command System, the section responsible for maintaining injury, death, and damage documentation as well as maintaining reimbursement records is the:
a. planning section.
b. operations section.
c. logistics section.
d. finance/administration section.
d. finance/administration section.
Objective: 4-2
Reference: 109
A formal, organized method for managing an incident, regardless of its cause, size, scope, or complexity, is called:
a. a multi-agency coordination system.
b. a federal incident management system.
c. an incident command system.
d. an emergency strike team.
c. an incident command system.
Objective: 4-1
Reference: 101
In the Incident Command System, the operations section is responsible for:
a. collecting, assessing, and distributing incident-related data.
b. executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan.
c. providing financial management.
d. providing support for all functional areas.
b. executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan.
Objective: 4-1
Reference:105
In the acronym “START,” the letter “S” stands for:
a. selective.
b. safe.
c. simple.
d. sophisticated.
c. simple.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
When handling a mass-casualty incident, you use triage to:
a. do the most good for the most people.
b. work on all injured parties.
c. minimize the cost of responding to the incident.
d. do the most good for a limited number of people.
a. do the most good for the most people.
Objective: Supplemental
Reference: 114
When properly trained in the START system, an OEC Technician should be able to complete a patient assessment in no more than:
a. 90 seconds.
b. 45 seconds.
c. 60 seconds.
d. 30 seconds.
d. 30 seconds.
Objective: 4-4
Reference: 120
Which of the following tasks is not a responsibility of the Incident Commander?
a. Triaging the injured patients
b. Establishing the Incident Command Post
c. Determining the incident strategy
d. Providing overall management of the incident
a. Triaging the injured patients
Objective: 4-1
Reference: 104
All of the following are functional areas of the Incident Command Structure except:
a. Planning
b. Operations
c. Transportation
d. Finance
All of the following are functional areas of the Incident Command Structure except:
Answer: c. Transportation
Objective: 4-1
Reference: 101
The most widely used triage categorization system in the world is “ID-ME.” This acronym represents the four specific triage categories used by NATO forces, National Disaster Life Support, public safety agencies, and search and rescue groups. The ID-ME triage categories are:
a. immediate, delayed, maximum, and exceptional.
b. immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant.
c. immediate, detain, minimal, and expectant.
d. immediate, delayed, minimal, and exceptional.
b. immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant.
Objective: 4-3
Reference: 115
The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health reports that ________ of all workplace
injuries are back related.
a. 20 percent
b. 50 percent
c. 70 percent
d. 90 percent
a. 20 percent
National EMS organizations estimate that as many as ___ percent of workers have sustained back
injuries.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 50
d. 80
c. 50
To maintain proper alignment when moving or lifting a heavy object, the weight of the object must be:
a. offset using shoulder and chest strength.
b. distributed to the lower back.
c. evenly transferred to the legs.
d. transferred to the forearms and biceps.
c. evenly transferred to the legs.
To lessen one’s chances of injury while lifting and moving a patient, one should:
a. roll the patient.
b. combine good lifting and moving techniques.
c. use a long-axis drag to avoid lifting.
d. avoid manual moves and instead use mechanical devices.
b. combine good lifting and moving techniques.
When a person exhibits good body mechanics and lifts properly, the spine is:
a. slightly bent in the upper thoracic region.
b. straight at the thoracic region and bent in the lumbar region.
c. bent at no more than 15 degrees.
d. straight and in an anatomical position.
d. straight and in an anatomical position.
Which of the following questions is not of concern when preparing to move or lift a heavy object?
a. How heavy is the object?
b. How long will it take to make the move?
c. What type of terrain is involved?
d. Which carrying device will work best?
b. How long will it take to make the move?
Which of the following pieces of equipment do OEC Technicians use most to move, lift, and carry a patient?
a. Long spine board (LSB)
b. Orthopedic stretcher
c. Portable stretcher
d. Basket stretcher
a. Long spine board (LSB)
When used correctly, the power grip maximizes the force of the hands, which are placed:
a. palms down and 8 inches apart.
b. palms up and 10 inches apart.
c. palms up and 5 inches apart.
d. palms down and 18 inches apart.
b. palms up and 10 inches apart.
When using the power grip, the hands are:
a. placed underneath the lifting device and held loosely.
b. placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly.
c. placed on the side of the lifting device and held firmly.
d. held on the side of the device at a 45-degree angle.
b. placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly.
Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift?
a. Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches).
b. Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward.
c. Straighten your legs to lift.
d. Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle
c. Straighten your legs to lift.
Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by:
a. obese and young patients.
b. elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
c. patients with visual impairments.
d. patients with ankle injuries.
b. elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.
Like a direct ground lift, a ________ lift is used to raise patients who are lying on their back.
a. LEAN
b. BEAN
c. MEAN
d. SEAN
b. BEAN
With a BEAM lift, the patient is:
a. assisted to a standing position.
b. rolled onto a long board.
c. lifted onto a short board.
d. lifted and carried a short distance.
d. lifted and carried a short distance.
Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have:
a. waterproof qualities.
b. handles.
c. stitched edges.
d. insulating qualities.
b. handles.
Of the four lift techniques OEC Technicians use, the draw sheet method:
a. has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.
b. requires the fewest rescuers to use.
c. has the lowest rate of dropped patient incidents.
d. is the safest for the patient.
a. has the lowest risk of back injury to rescuers.
During transport, the patient must be properly positioned for comfort and to do no further harm. The Semi-Fowler position places the patient in a:
a. supine position with the legs raised 15 degrees.
b. sitting position with the head raised 90 degrees.
c. sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees.
d. supine position with the legs raised 45 degrees.
c. sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees.
The high-Fowler position, in which the patient is seated with the head at 90 degrees, is typically used for patients with:
a. a fractured collar bone.
b. abdominal injuries.
c. eye injuries.
d. severe respiratory problems
d. severe respiratory problems
Patients with chest pain due to a suspected heart attack are generally transported in ________ position.
a. a supine
b. a prone
c. the Rothberg
d. the semi-Fowler
c. the Rothberg
The first step in packaging a patient is:
a. deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill.
b. typically placing the patient’s injury uphill.
c. deciding the fastest route of transport.
d. deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport.
b. typically placing the patient’s injury uphill.
The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because:
a. the ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position.
b. air flows more easily through a patient’s nose compared to a head-downhill position.
c. it calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport.
d. of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
d. of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards.
Shock patients who are not having difficulty breathing are placed head downhill because doing so:
a. increases perfusion to vital organs.
b. increases the heart rate.
c. increases blood pressure.
d. decreases blood pressure.
a. increases perfusion to vital organs.
A woman who is six months pregnant and experiencing back pain should be placed on a backboard and then placed in a toboggan in which of the following positions?
a. In a supine position
b. Positioned on her left side
c. With her head uphill
d. With her head downhill
b. Positioned on her left side
Transporting a patient using a basket litter:
a. requires four to six rescuers.
b. involves towing it behind a motorized vehicle.
c. requires one patroller at the front and one patroller on the tail rope.
d. can be achieved using a chairlift.
a. requires four to six rescuers.
A basket stretcher is the best method for transporting a patient:
a. out of the back country.
b. on an LSB in any terrain.
c. with a fractured femur.
d. who is extremely heavy.
a. out of the back country.
A device best used to transport a patient in a tight space is known as:
a. a wheeled stretcher.
b. a short board.
c. a Kendrick extrication device.
d. an evacuation chair.
d. an evacuation chair.
An appropriate landing zone (LZ) for safely landing a helicopter is an open area that is approximately:
a. 75 feet x 100 feet.
b. 100 feet x 100 feet.
c. 100 feet x 200 feet.
d. 200 feet x 200 feet.
b. 100 feet x 100 feet.
Ideally an LZ should be flat (horizontal) or have a slope that is less than or equal to:
a. a 4-degree pitch.
b. a 6-degree pitch.
c. an 8-degree pitch.
d. a 12-degree pitch.
c. an 8-degree pitch.
During helicopter landing or takeoff, only the _______ is(are) allowed in the LZ.
a. OEC Technician and the patient
b. landing coordinator
c. patrol director
d. risk manager
b. landing coordinator
After a landing helicopter is safely on the ground, one may approach the aircraft only when signaled by the:
a. pilot or crew chief.
b. landing coordinator.
c. Fire Department chief.
d. senior police officer on the scene.
a. pilot or crew chief.
When approaching a helicopter, whether it is running or not, always do so from the:
a. front.
b. back.
c. left side.
d. right side.
a. front.
Which of the following instructions for approaching a running rescue helicopter is not correct?
a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly.
b. Remain low.
c. Remove any loose clothing.
d. Remain in sight of the pilot at all times.
a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly.
An urgent move is required when:
a. a patient is in severe pain.
b. the rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location.
c. a crowd of people has formed around you and the patient.
d. the patient complains of being cold on a 10-degree day.
b. the rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location.
In most instances, an urgent move is performed:
a. only after additional help has arrived.
b. only when Medical Control orders it.
c. before any assessment has been performed.
d. after the primary and secondary assessments have been completed.
c. before any assessment has been performed.
The greatest risk posed by an urgent move is:
a. not getting the patient’s name and address.
b. changing the position of the patient and causing a risk-management investigation.
c. delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions.
d. incurring a lawsuit by the patient.
c. delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions.
To use an urgent move called the shoulder drag, you should:
a. grab one arm at the shoulder and drag the patient to a safe position.
b. stand behind the patient and grab the patient’s belt while their shoulders are against your chest.
c. stand upright behind the patient, bend over, and then grab the patient under the armpits and drag.
d. grab the patient’s clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the patient.
d. grab the patient’s clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the patient.
For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the least desirable urgent move for OEC Technicians to use is the:
a. feet drag.
b. blanket drag.
c. shoulder drag.
d. underarm-wrist drag.
a. feet drag.
The best non-urgent move for OEC Technicians to use when alone is the:
a. human crutch.
b. chair carry.
c. fore and aft carry.
d. back carry.
a. human crutch.
You arrive at the scene where a patient has a possible fracture of the left hip. You note that she is lying on her back and her left leg is turned inward. You would document this position as:
a. supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity.
b. lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg.
c. supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
d. supine with left rotation of the right leg.
c. supine with medial rotation of the left lower extremity.
After you apply and use an AED on patient lying on his back. His pulse returns and he is breathing adequately. What position is he in?
a. Right lateral recumbency
b. Supine
c. Left lateral recumbency
d. Prone position
b. Supine
Which one of the following anatomical statements is true?
a. The hand is proximal to the elbow.
b. The shoulder is distal to the hand.
c. The hip is distal to the knee.
d. The knee is proximal to the ankle.
d. The knee is proximal to the ankle.
Which one of the following descriptions best describes the normal anatomical position?
a. Supine with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward
b. Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
c. Prone with the arms upward and the palms facing upward
d. Upright and facing away from you, with the arms raised and the legs straight
b. Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward
A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize
that this injury involves a structure that:
a. connects muscles to the patella.
b. connects the cartilage in the knee.
c. holds and secures the bones of the knee.
d. attaches a ligament to the knee.
a. connects muscles to the patella.
Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in which of the following structures?
a. Muscles of the arms and legs
b. Blood vessels and intestines
c. The central nervous system
d. The heart and blood vessels
b. Blood vessels and intestines
A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk. Based on the fact she cannot ambulate, you should recognize that which of the following muscle types is affected?
a. Skeletal muscle
b. Involuntary muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Smooth muscle
a. Skeletal muscle
Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a “broken leg”?
a. Acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals
b. Femur, tibia, fibula
c. Orbit, maxillae, mandible
d. Radius, ulna, humerus
b. Femur, tibia, fibula
The lower jaw is also called the:
a. mandible.
b. zygoma.
c. maxilla.
d. mastoid.
a. mandible.
The bones of the upper extremities include the:
a. humerus and radius.
b. humerus and calcaneous.
c. phalanges and tibia.
d. radius, ulna, and tarsals.
a. humerus and radius.
In which of the following respiratory structures would a blockage cause total cessation of air flow into and out of the lungs?
a. The right bronchus
b. The nasopharynx
c. The trachea
d. The esophagus
c. The trachea
Which of the following functions is a function of the respiratory system?
a. Transporting oxygen throughout the body
b. Providing nutrients to cells
c. Releasing oxygen from the body
d. Providing the body oxygen
d. Providing the body oxygen
The structure containing the vocal cords is the:
a. pharynx.
b. larynx.
c. trachea.
d. sternum.
b. larynx.
The leaf-shaped flap that helps prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system is called:
a. the epiglottis.
b. the trachea.
c. the pharynx.
d. a bronchiole.
a. the epiglottis.
Which one of the following lists represents a correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs?
a. Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx
b. Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
c. Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
d. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
d. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs?
a. Inhalation
b. Release
c. Inspiration
d. Exhalation
d. Exhalation
Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath?
a. The intercostal muscles relax.
b. The chest cavity decreases in size.
c. The diaphragm contracts.
d. Pressure in the chest increases.
c. The diaphragm contracts.
The primary function of the heart is:
a. transferring oxygen to the cells.
b. pumping blood throughout the body.
c. oxygenating blood in the lungs.
d. maintaining the volume of blood.
b. pumping blood throughout the body.
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs?
a. The left atrium
b. The left ventricle
c. The right ventricle
d. The right atrium
c. The right ventricle
The left atrium:
a. receives blood from the veins of the body.
b. receives blood from the pulmonary veins.
c. pumps blood to the lungs.
d. pumps blood to the body.
b. receives blood from the pulmonary veins.
Which of the following structures brings oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium?
a. The right ventricle
b. The pulmonary artery
c. The vena cavae
d. The aorta
c. The vena cavae
Following chemotherapy, a patient has a low white count. For which of the following is he at risk?
a. Infection
b. Bleeding
c. High blood pressure
d. Seizures
a. Infection
The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is:
a. platelet fluid.
b. hemoglobin.
c. plasma.
d. lymph.
c. plasma.
The pressure exerted on the inside walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called:
a. systolic pressure.
b. arterial pressure.
c. diastolic pressure.
d. residual pressure.
a. systolic pressure.
The nervous system is subdivided into which two main parts?
a. The brain and spinal cord
b. The involuntary and voluntary muscular systems
c. The brain and extremity nerves
d. The central and peripheral nerves
d. The central and peripheral nerves
The terms occipital, frontal, and parietal refer to what part of the body?
a. The chest
b. The cranium
c. The pelvis
d. The spine
b. The cranium
A patient has suffered damage to his brainstem. As a result of this injury which of the following signs might you expect to see?
a. Sweating
b. Abnormal respirations
c. Pinpoint pupils
d. Muscle spasms
b. Abnormal respirations
What body system provides support and structure to the body?
a. The endocrine system
b. The nervous system
c. The skeletal system
d. The exocrine system
c. The skeletal system
Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior?
a. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx
b. Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral
c. Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral
d. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
d. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx
In a healthy heart, the electrical impulse that initiates contraction of the cardiac muscle originates in the:
a. right atrium.
b. left atrium.
c. ventricles.
d. interventricular septum.
a. right atrium.
As a patient gives her medical history to you, which of the following would you relate to the endocrine system?
a. Removal of the gallbladder
b. Failure of the kidneys
c. Removal of the thyroid
d. Heart failure
c. Removal of the thyroid
The thyroid glands, adrenal glands, pituitary glands, and gonads are part of the:
a. nervous system.
b. endocrine system.
c. hormonal system.
d. respiratory system.
b. endocrine system.
A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the functions of the skin, to which of the
following conditions is the patient most susceptible?
a. Infection
b. Fluid overload
c. Heart problems
d. Endocrine disorders
a. Infection
Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
a. Producing blood cells
b. Securing the abdominal organs in place
c. Providing structure to blood vessels
d. Forming the vital organs of the body
a. Producing blood cells
A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his:
a. neck.
b. lower back.
c. upper back.
d. tailbone.
c. upper back.
You are called to the lodge for a patient who has fallen. The report indicates the patient has a hematoma in the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head?
a. The top
b. The side
c. The back
d. The front
c. The back
A patellar fracture affects which part of the body?
a. The tibia
b. The hip
c. The elbow
d. The knee
d. The knee
Which of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true?
a. The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
b. The skin contains four layers: the epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layers.
c. The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin.
d. The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.
a. The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens.
Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body by what structure?
a. The kidney
b. The urinary tract
c. The lungs
d. The hepatic vein
c. The lungs
Which one of the following stimuli is the primary stimulus to breathe in normal human beings?
a. The level of CO2 in the body
b. The amount of oxygen the body requires
c. The level of oxygen in the body
d. The amount of nitrogen in the air
a. The level of CO2 in the body
The study of human and animal structures at the gross and microscopic levels is known as:
a. physiology.
b. homeostasis.
c. biology.
d. anatomy.
d. anatomy.
Which of the following systems is not a body system?
a. The endocrine system
b. The thoracic system
c. The skeletal system
d. The respiratory system
b. The thoracic system
The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the:
a. pelvic cavity.
b. spinal cavity.
c. abdominal cavity.
d. heart.
c. abdominal cavity.
The term used to describe the action of taking an extremity away from the midline of the body is:
a. abduction.
b. flexion.
c. adduction.
d. extension.
a. abduction.
The wrist is:
a. proximal to the elbow.
b. external to the elbow.
c. distal to the elbow.
d. medial to the elbow.
c. distal to the elbow.
The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs?
a. The bladder and the kidneys
b. The kidneys and the spleen
c. The pancreas and the bladder
d. The rectum and the reproductive organs
d. The rectum and the reproductive organs
A man lying in the prone position is:
a. sitting with his legs slightly bent.
b. lying face down on his stomach.
c. lying face up on his back.
d. lying on his back with his legs elevated higher than his head.
b. lying face down on his stomach.
The basic unit of all living things is:
a. the cell.
b. an organ.
c. a hormone.
d. plasma.
a. the cell.
The study of mechanical, physical, and biochemical functions of humans is known as:
a. endocrinology.
b. biology.
c. anatomy.
d. physiology.
d. physiology.
A function of the lymphatic system is to:
a. break down food.
b. return interstitial fluid to the blood.
c. control organ systems via hormones.
d. move blood containing nutrients.
b. return interstitial fluid to the blood.
In humans, the body systems interact with each other to maintain a stable internal environment. An example of this is the nervous system, which works with the cardiovascular system to maintain a steady blood pressure. The ability of an organism to adjust its physiologic processes to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is known as:
a. homeostasis.
b. electrophysiology.
c. metabolism.
d. dependency.
a. homeostasis.
The spleen is part of which body system?
a. The cardiovascular system
b. The endocrine system
c. The gastrointestinal system
d. The lymphatic system
d. The lymphatic system
Of the following responses, the best answer to the question, “What is a tissue?” is:
a. “a collection of cells acting together to perform a specific function in the body.”
b. “the basic unit of all living things.”
c. “a structure that removes extra fluid from cells.”
d. “the site where minerals are stored and blood cells are made.”
a. “a collection of cells acting together to perform a specific function in the body.”
After examining his patient, your partner tells you that he believes the patient has hyperflexed the knee. What has happened if a patient has hyperflexed a knee?
a. The patient has straightened the knee beyond its normal range of movement.
b. The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
c. The patient has pushed the kneecap too far to the right or left.
d. The patient has straightened the knee into a normal position.
b. The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement.
You arrive at an accident scene and find a patient lying on the ground with her right arm straight out to the side (at a 90-degree angle to her body). You ask her if she is able to pull the arm toward her body, but she cannot. You would document this as an inability to __________ her right arm.
a. adduct
b. abduct
c. hyperflex
d. hyperextend
a. adduct
You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place the
patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler’s position. This
means that you will place this patient on his:
a. left side, with his left arm over his head.
b. back, with his upper body elevated at 90 degrees from the waist.
c. back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head.
d. back, with his upper body elevated at 45 degrees from the waist.
b. back, with his upper body elevated at 90 degrees from the waist.
Which of the following lists presents the order in which an OEC Technician should assess a patient in a field setting?
a. Primary assessment, reassessment, secondary assessment
b. Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment
c. Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment
d. Scene size-up, history, secondary assessment, primary assessment
c. Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment
You have been dispatched to an 89-year-old female with an unspecified complaint. When assessing this patient, which one of the following will the OEC Technician do as quickly as possible to develop a better understanding of the emergency?
a. Obtain the patient’s vital signs and current medications.
b. Gather a medical history, including information on allergies.
c. Contact medical direction for advice.
d. Determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).
d. Determine if the complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).
Which of the following statements would indicate that an OEC Technician has appropriately initiated the first phase of a patient assessment?
a. “I have placed an oral airway in the patient.”
b. “The scene appears to be free of hazards.”
c. “Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg.”
d. “Can you tell me why you called for help?”
b. “The scene appears to be free of hazards.”
You arrive at the scene of a fall, where a 42-year-old woman fell backward off a stepladder while cleaning windows. She is lying on the ground complaining of pain to her ankle. She tells you, “If I had just been more careful and moved the ladder instead of reaching, this never would have happened!” Based on this information, which of the following can you conclude?
a. She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain.
b. Her pulse rate is within normal limits.
c. She does not require rapid transport.
d. She does not have any other injuries.
a. She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain.
You have been dispatched for an elderly male complaining of shortness of breath. When should you start the process of forming a general impression about this patient?
a. While you and your partner are approaching him
b. After completing a primary assessment
c. As soon as you obtain his chief complaint
d. After you have taken his vital signs
a. While you and your partner are approaching him
You have been called for an adult patient who suffered a seizure. He is sitting on the floor, and he looks at you as you enter the room. When questioned, he responds to his name, but cannot remember the date or where he is. This patient’s mental status is best described as:
a. alert but confused.
b. lethargic and agitated.
c. having an altered response to verbal stimuli.
d. visually disoriented.
c. having an altered response to verbal stimuli.
A 36-year-old patient who has overdosed on an unknown drug, is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do first?
a. Check the patient’s vital signs.
b. Perform a shoulder pinch.
c. Assess the patient for a radial pulse.
d. Identify what drug the patient took.
b. Perform a shoulder pinch.
Which of the following patients should be classified as unresponsive?
a. A 39-year-old female who is confused
b. A 52-year-old who cannot answer your questions
c. A 70-year-old female who has suffered a stroke
d. A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch
d. A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch
You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child’s mental status, you should first:
a. apply pressure to the child’s nail beds.
b. say loudly, “Open your eyes!”
c. ask the mother how long the child has been asleep.
d. consider the child to be unresponsive.
b. say loudly, “Open your eyes!”
You are by the side of a patient who is unresponsive and has a history of heart failure. When assessing the airway, which one of the following observations best indicates a patent airway?
a. You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall.
b. She has a pulse of 80 per minute.
c. Her mouth is open and you can hear gurgling sounds.
d. You can see that her tongue has not fallen back where it would block the airway.
a. You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall.
You are assisting at an Outdoor Emergency Care course. One of the students asks you how the head tilt-chin lift airway maneuver works to open the airway. Your best response is:
a. “It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat.”
b. “It creates an open airway by separating the lips, thereby allowing air to enter.”
c. “It stimulates the patient to begin taking deeper breaths, thereby moving air into the lungs.”
d. “It opens the airway by relaxing and expanding the size of the throat.”
a. “It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat.”
How should an OEC Technician best determine the adequacy of a patient’s breathing during a primary assessment?
a. Determine the patient’s mental status.
b. Compare the patient’s respiration and pulse rates.
c. Assess the patient’s ability to speak.
d. Look for the rise and fall of the patient’s chest.
d. Look for the rise and fall of the patient’s chest.
A secondary assessment consists of which of the following three steps?
a. Medical history, physical exam, and vital signs
b. ABCDs, on-going exam, and vital signs
c. Medical history, trauma exam, and vital signs
d. On-going exam, detailed physical exam, and vital signs
a. Medical history, physical exam, and vital signs
An OEC Technician’s assessment of a trauma patient’s circulation status during a primary assessment should include:
a. carotid pulse, capillary refill, blood pressure, and skin color.
b. radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR.
c. skin color, pulse rate, blood pressure, and skin temperature.
d. pulse rate, blood pressure, capillary refill, and skin condition.
b. radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR.
While taking vital signs, you cannot locate a radial pulse in a possible broken arm of a 42-year-old male who is alert and breathing adequately. Which one of the following should you do?
a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
b. Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED).
c. Start positive pressure ventilation.
d. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.
d. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.
You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse, which site should you check?
a. The temporal artery
b. The radial artery
c. The femoral artery
d. The brachial artery
d. The brachial artery
The finding that a patient’s skin is warm, pink, and dry during a primary assessment suggests:
a. possible shock.
b. possible fever.
c. poor oxygenation.
d. normal circulation.
d. normal circulation.
Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill?
a. “Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children.”
b. “Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill.”
c. “A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well oxygenated.”
d. “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.”
d. “For a capillary refill test to be normal for a child, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds.”
You are interviewing a prospective candidate for the position of OEC Technician with your service. During the interview, you ask the applicant to describe the purpose of the primary assessment. Which of the following best describes that purpose?
a. To establish a chief complaint and gather a medical history
b. To determine if the patient’s vital signs are stable
c. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions
d. To perform an exam focused on the patient’s chief complaint
c. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions
Forming a general impression is started during which phase of patient assessment?
a. Reassessment
b. Secondary assessment
c. Primary assessment
d. Communication and documentation
c. Primary assessment
A 44-year-old male was on a ladder cutting limbs from a tree when he fell. He is found to be unresponsive with normal respirations. His breathing is adequate at a rate of 12 per minute and his carotid pulse is strong at 88 per minute. Following the primary assessment and initial management, which one of the following actions will the OEC Technician complete while performing the secondary assessment?
a. Get a medical history from a family member.
b. Start positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask.
c. Place an oral airway and put a cervical collar on the patient.
d. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway.
a. Get a medical history from a family member.
Which of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient?
a. Decreased level of responsiveness
b. Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin
c. Inadequate respiratory effort
d. Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
d. Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen
You are performing a secondary assessment on the unrestrained adult passenger of a motor vehicle that rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli and in a state of hypoperfusion. When assessing the head, which one of the following is appropriate?
a. Cleaning a scalp laceration
b. Checking the pupils with a pen light
c. Performing a blind finger sweep to clear the airway
d. Applying pressure to a depressed area of the skull
b. Checking the pupils with a pen light
A complete set of vitals is taken at the:
a. beginning and end of the secondary assessment.
b. beginning of the secondary assessment.
c. end of the secondary assessment.
d. end of the primary assessment.
a. beginning and end of the secondary assessment.
DCAP-BTLS is mnemonic to assist you in remembering:
a. a trauma patient’s vital signs.
b. what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient.
c. medications, allergies, and the patient’s medical history.
d. the order in which to assess a patient during a physical exam.
b. what to assess for while inspecting and palpating a patient.
The D in DCAP-BTLS stands for:
a. dislocation.
b. damage.
c. deformity.
d. dyspnea.
c. deformity.
While you are performing a secondary assessment, your trauma patient complains of the sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Which of the following is your most appropriate response?
a. Make a mental note and continue with the assessment.
b. Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care.
c. Reassess the patient, beginning with the head.
d. Reevaluate the mechanism of injury.
b. Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care.
An OEC Technician should obtain the medical history of an alert and oriented trauma patient during
the:
a. primary assessment.
b. scene size-up.
c. secondary assessment.
d. reassessment.
c. secondary assessment.
Which of the following responses is an appropriate response for the letter P in the OPQRST mnemonic for a patient with abdominal pain?
a. “It hurts worse when I take a deep breath.”
b. “My pulse feels as though it is racing.”
c. “I have a past history of asthma.”
d. “The pain started about two hours ago.”
a. “It hurts worse when I take a deep breath.”
During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you gather a medical history using the memory aid SAMPLE. To obtain information related to M, which one of the following questions should you ask?
a. “Do you have any past medical problems?”
b. “Are you allergic to any medications?”
c. “Are you currently taking any medications?”
d. “Can you point to where it hurts the most?”
c. “Are you currently taking any medications?”
An OEC Technician identifies the medications a patient takes during which portion of a patient assessment?
a. The primary assessment
b. The OPQRST exam
c. The chief complaint
d. The history
d. The history
Which of the following actions should you take during a secondary assessment of a 45-year-old female with a severe headache?
a. Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs
b. Reassess vital signs, open the airway, and obtain OPQRST information
c. Continue emergency care, obtain the chief complaint, and gather a SAMPLE history
d. Assess the head, reevaluate vital signs, and continue emergency care
a. Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs
Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of obtaining a single Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS) in a patient with a head injury?
a. The score gives information about the type of injury to the brain.
b. The score provides an objective measure of the patient’s overall neurologic condition.
c. The score is important in guiding an OEC Technician’s treatment of the patient.
d. The score helps determine whether a patient’s mental status is improving or deteriorating.
b. The score provides an objective measure of the patient’s overall neurologic condition.
The Glasgow Coma Scale score for verbal reaction that is assigned to a patient who answers questions
inappropriately is:
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.
c. 4.
A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ____ is associated with a high risk for major neurological
injury.
a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. 13
d. 13
A chief complaint is defined as the:
a. findings from a primary survey.
b. primary reason the person is seeking medical care.
c. findings from a secondary survey.
d. findings from a SAMPLE interview.
b. primary reason the person is seeking medical care.
The key to a successful assessment is:
a. a systematic and universal approach.
b. toe to head physical exam.
c. a rapid trauma exam.
d. interviewing bystanders.
a. a systematic and universal approach.
Patient assessment is:
a. a specialized skill for EMTs
b. an advanced emergency management skill.
c. a fundamental and essential skill.
d. a skill that provides answers only when conducted in a specific order.
c. a fundamental and essential skill.
Which of the following things does not indicate a possible safety issue during a scene size-up?
a. Downed wires
b. Ice or mud
c. Wild animals
d. ABCDs
d. ABCDs
An easy way for an OEC Technician to remember what to look for in assessing a trauma patient is the:
a. acronym SAMPLE.
b. mnemonic APVU.
c. mnemonic DCAP-BTLS.
d. mnemonic OPQRST.
c. mnemonic DCAP-BTLS.
As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the ankle is:
a. C.
b. S.
c. P.
d. T.
b. S.
Your patient is 5 years old and has fallen, resulting in a scraped knee. What letter indicates this in the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic?
a. D
b. L
c. A
d. S
c. A
Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom?
a. An open leg fracture
b. An upset stomach
c. A sharp headache
d. Chest pain
a. An open leg fracture
Which of the following findings is a symptom?
a. A deep laceration
b. Hives resulting from an allergic reaction
c. Difficulty breathing
d. Ringing in the ears
d. Ringing in the ears
Signs and symptoms can be identified using the:
a. SAMPLE acronym.
b. DCAP-BTLS mnemonic.
c. OPQRST mnemonic.
d. AVPU mnemonic.
a. SAMPLE acronym.
What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient has a history of seizures?
a. S
b. A
c. M
d. P
d. P
What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient had pancakes for breakfast two hours ago?
a. M
b. P
c. L
d. E
c. L
As you assess a patient for a medical emergency, the patient states the pain is in their chest up to the shoulder and down the right arm. To what letter of OPQRST would this apply?
a. O
b. P
c. Q
d. R
d. R
What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient’s report that difficulty in breathing is worst while attempting to walk?
a. O
b. P
c. Q
d. R
b. P
What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient’s report that difficulty in breathing became worse about two hours ago?
a. Q
b. R
c. S
d. T
d. T
Which of the following tasks is part of a secondary assessment?
a. Opening the airway
b. Checking for life-threatening bleeding
c. Inserting an OPA
d. Taking a blood pressure reading
d. Taking a blood pressure reading
A secondary assessment should take about how long?
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 2–5 minutes
d. 6–8 minutes
c. 2–5 minutes
A primary assessment should take about how long?
a. 30–60 seconds
b. 2 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 4 minutes
a. 30–60 seconds
Which of the following findings is an objective finding made during a patient assessment?
a. Patient’s complaint of nausea
b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
c. Patient’s rating of pain as 10 out of 10
d. Patient’s complaint of headache for the past 12 hours
b. Blood pressure of 114/68 mmHg
A nauseated patient’s report of abdominal pain should be documented:
a. as a treatment finding.
b. as a subjective finding.
c. as an objective finding.
d. This information need not be documented.
b. as a subjective finding.
A patient tells you that he has been feeling “very weak” for the past three days. In regards to the SOAP charting
format, this information would be included under what heading?
a. S
b. O
c. A
d. P
a. S
You have placed a 67-year-old female patient on high-concentration oxygen via nonrebreather face mask.
Following the acronym CHEATED where is it appropriate to document the information concerning the oxygen
administration?
a. A
b. H
c. T
d. C
c. T
When asked, an alert and oriented 44-year-old man with a history of high blood pressure reports that he called for
help because “my chest is hurting.” He is diaphoretic and nauseated, has a pulse of 88 and a BP of 156/92, and says
that his pain “feels just like my heart attack two years ago.” Based on this information, how would you document his
chief complaint on the patient care report?
a. “My chest is hurting.”
b. Possible heart attack
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Chest pain with hypertension
a. “My chest is hurting.”
An intoxicated patient will not leave the oxygen mask on. You are aware that the acronym FACTUAL-OEC outlines the characteristics of good report writing. Based on these guidelines how would this best be documented on the prehospital care report (PCR)?
a. The patient is intoxicated and will not cooperate with oxygen therapy.
b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.
c. The patient will not cooperate with care provided by the ski patrol.
d. The patient appears to be in a drunk-like state and will not cooperate with care provided by the ski
patrol.
b. The patient continually removes the oxygen mask despite continued reapplication.
A patient states that he has had a headache located in his forehead for three days. Utilizing the SOAP format you
would document this piece of information as a(n):
a. subjective finding.
b. pertinent negative.
c. objective finding.
d. provoking factor.
a. subjective finding.
When writing a prehospital care report, you accidentally document a laceration as being on the left side of a patient’s face when it was actually on the right side of the face. In addition to putting your initials and current date/time next to your correction, you would change your documentation in which of the following ways?
a. Color over the word “left” with black ink and write the word “right” next to it.
b. Write the word “error” through the word “left” and then write the word “right” next to it.
c. Use correction fluid to cover the word “left” and write the word “right” next to it.
d. Draw a single line through the word “left” and write the word “right” next to it.
d. Draw a single line through the word “left” and write the word “right” next to it.
Two days after a call, you realize that you forgot to document that you checked a patient’s pupils before the patient refused further treatment and signed a refusal form. Which of the following actions is your best course of action?
a. Complete a new refusal form and include the additional information.
b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your
signature.
c. Report the error to your patrol director and have him/her take care of it.
d. Don’t worry about it because it did not seem to matter to the patient.
b. Add an addendum to the report that contains the correct information, the current date, and your
signature.
For which of the following patients must you provide care even if the patient refuses it?
a. A 23-year-old female with an obvious injury who lives with her parents and her one-year-old daughter
b. An alert and oriented 57 year old who is having chest pain and is diaphoretic
c. A six year old with a bleeding head laceration, whose parent will not allow care
d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is
d. A 29-year-old female who fell and cannot tell you what day it is
You are alone responding to an alert and oriented male with chest discomfort who refuses treatment. He is angry with his family for calling for help and will not sign the refusal form despite several requests. In addition to documenting that the patient understands and accepts the risks of refusing care, you would:
a. contact the police to place the patient into protective custody.
b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal.
c. carefully restrain the man and transport him to the aid room.
d. call for an ALS ambulance and have the paramedics treat the patient.
b. have a family member sign as a witness to the man’s refusal.
When getting a refusal from a patient who does not want treatment, it is critical that you do which of the following things?
a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.
b. Make sure the patient has someone who can provide transportation to the hospital.
c. Have the patient sign and date the refusal form.
d. Have the patient promise to get care if the symptoms get worse.
a. Ensure that the patient understands the risks of refusing care.
Which of the following statements about prehospital care reports is accurate?
a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.
b. They are forms published by the NSAA or the ski area’s insurance company.
c. National standards allow up to three days after the accident for the forms to be fully completed.
d. You should only document the care provided to the patient but not scene information, because the
latter can be confusing.
a. They may become part of the patient’s permanent medical record.
The goal of effective communication is to:
a. give as much information as possible in less than three minutes.
b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.
c. speak clearly and more slowly than normal so that you are easier to understand.
d. use medical terminology as much as possible.
b. deliver information in a manner that is understood by the recipient.
Written medical communications are generally used for all of the following except:
a. for quality-improvement activities.
b. to transmit information to the provider who is taking over care of a patient.
c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents.
d. for describing ways to improve the safety of outdoor activities.
c. when giving press releases about mountain accidents.
Communication is defined as the process by which:
a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.
b. information is documented on a patient accident report.
c. verbal and nonverbal actions deliver information to another person.
d. a message is encoded from the sender to the receiver.
a. a message is transmitted from a sender to a receiver.
The three forms of communication are:
a. speaking, hand gestures, and facial expressions.
b. written, verbal, and listening.
c. oral, nonverbal, and written.
d. written, listening, and hand gestures.
c. oral, nonverbal, and written.
Medical responders need to be proficient in which two types of medical communication?
a. Medical terminology and radio transmissions
b. Verbal communication and medical terminology
c. Written documentation and radio transmissions
d. Written documentation and oral communication
d. Written documentation and oral communication
You are the lead responder at a serious accident. After the accident you can provide patient care information to all
of the following except:
a. a reporter who is writing a news story.
b. the EMT to whom you transfer patient care.
c. your patrol director, who is reviewing the PCR with you.
d. your medical director, who is providing you stress debriefing.
a. a reporter who is writing a news story.
After your initial evaluation of the patient you would communicate by radio with patrol base. Following the
acronym SAILER, what information would you include?
a. Surname, age, address, chief complaint
b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
c. Age, next of kin, treatment initiated, request for EMS (if needed)
d. Surname, location of accident, age, insurance company
b. Sex, age, chief complaint, splints needed
The three types of written medical communication OEC Technicians may encounter are:
a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.
b. patient care notes, accident reports, and rescue reports.
c. accident reports, witness reports, and field notes.
d. incident reports, rescue reports, and patient care notes.
a. field care notes, patient care reports, and incident report forms.
In the CHEATED acronym, the letter T stands for:
a. time.
b. technique.
c. testament.
d. treatment.
d. treatment.
You are completing your patient care report and are using the acronym CHEATED to guide you. In this acronym, the letter A indicates:
a. age.
b. address.
c. assessment.
d. actions taken.
c. assessment.
The characteristics of good report writing can easily be remembered by using mnemonic FACTUAL-OEC. Some
of these acronym letters stand for:
a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
b. focused, age, concurrent, and unusual events.
c. clinical picture, timeline, and assessment.
d. actions taken, clinical picture, and timeline.
a. facts, terms, unbiased, and legible.
The acronym FACTUAL-OEC helps OEC Technicians remember that good report writing should include which of the following groups of characteristics?
a. Factual information, local patrol terminology, unbiased information
b. Complete details, your determination of cause of accident, written legibly
c. Abnormal findings written in red, complete and accurate details, accepted medical terms
d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink
d. Accurate information, complete details, written in black or blue ink
In the acronym FACTUAL-OEC, the letters OEC stand for:
a. organized, effective, and complete.
b. objective, effective, and care given.
c. organized, error free, and checked.
d. outdoor emergency care.
c. organized, error free, and checked.
When patients refuse care, the most important thing to document is:
a. their condition when you last saw them.
b. whether they were accompanied by anyone when you left them.
c. the names of witnesses to what you said to them.
d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
d. that the patients understood and accepted the risks of refusal.
An individual who is required to report cases of child abuse to the appropriate state agency is called a(n):
a. mandated reporter.
b. child guardian.
c. required abuse reporter.
d. emergency protector
a. mandated reporter.
Among the injuries or crimes that must be reported to an appropriate state agency are:
a. abuse, gunshot wounds, and alcohol abuse.
b. stab wounds, accidents involving snow guns, and communicable diseases.
c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.
d. incidents involving alcohol, domestic violence, and stab wounds.
c. animal bites, physical assaults, and child abuse.
Which of the following pairs are the best examples of the two main types of communication at which OEC Technicians must be proficient?
a. Radio communication and telephone communication
b. Written communication and nonverbal communication
c. Face-to-face communication and radio communication
d. Radio communication and written communication
d. Radio communication and written communication
In the acronym SAILER, the letter S stands for:
a. symptoms.
b. sex.
c. subjective.
d. splint.
b. sex.
You are caring for a patient that you realize will require ALS transport to the hospital. In the acronym SAILER, the letter that will assist you to remember to transmit this information during your radio call is:
a. S.
b. I.
c. E.
d. R.
d. R.
Which of the following lists best describes the path that oxygen must travel to get from the air to body cells?
a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, alveoli
b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
c. Nose, pharynx, esophagus, bronchi, alveoli
d. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles
b. Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
You are assessing a patient who overdosed on a medication and is unresponsive. Given this situation, what is the great concern regarding potential airway occlusion?
a. Spasm of the epiglottis
b. Swelling of the larynx
c. Collapse of the bronchi
d. Relaxation of the tongue
d. Relaxation of the tongue
Which of the following patients has an actual or potential occlusion of the upper airway?
a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx
b. A 45-year-old female with spasm of the bronchioles
c. A 61-year-old male with a piece of food stuck in his trachea
d. A 78-year-old female with a large mucus plug in a bronchus
a. A 3-year-old male with a fever and swelling of the larynx
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of breathing?
a. “When a person inhales, carbon dioxide is drawn into the lungs, and when he exhales,
oxygen leaves the body.”
b. “Respiration is best described as the process of moving air into and out of the body.”
c. “Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process.”
d. “In between breaths, the epiglottis closes over and protects the trachea.”
c. “Inhalation is an active process, whereas for most patients exhalation is a passive process.”
Which of the following patients would benefit from the head tilt-chin lift maneuver?
a. A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
b. A 45-year-old female who is alert and vomiting blood
c. A 67-year-old female who fell down a flight of stairs and is unresponsive
d. A 85-year-old female who hit her head on a tree limb and is now responsive to painful
stimuli
a. A 39-year-old male who just had a seizure and has snoring respirations
Why is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury?
a. It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly.
b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
c. It is less painful for the patient.
d. It is the rescuer’s preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine.
Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct?
a. The jaw-thrust maneuver is useful in trauma patients but only if they are complaining of head or neck pain.
b. Research has shown that the jaw-thrust maneuver is easiest to perform and is therefore indicated for critically injured trauma patients.
c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
d. Trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust maneuver, whereas medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient.
The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated in a(n):
a. overdose patient with snoring respirations.
b. stroke patient with gurgling respirations.
c. cardiac arrest patient on the ski slope.
d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.
d. unresponsive patient who fell from a porch.
You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you:
a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward.
b. maintain the patient’s head in a neutral position and tilt the head slightly backward.
c. open the patient’s airway by slightly pushing down on the forehead and thrusting the jaw upward.
d. place one had on the patient’s forehead and lift the jaw upward with the other hand.
a. use the thumbs as a lever to lift the patient’s mandible upward.
You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient’s mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would:
a. insert an airway.
b. administer abdominal thrusts.
c. perform a finger sweep.
d. encourage the patient to cough.
c. perform a finger sweep.
You are assessing a young male patient who is responsive to painful stimuli and not breathing after a fall while rock climbing. His pulse is weak and thready, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. When addressing his airway and breathing, you must immediately:
a. administer oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask.
b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
c. immobilize him on a long spine board and then start artificial ventilations.
d. open his airway using the head tilt-chin lift maneuver and begin ventilations with the bag-valve
mask.
b. perform the jaw-thrust maneuver and reassess his breathing.
Which of the following ventilation methods is recommended because it provides the most effective ventilations?
a. Use of a bag-valve mask (BVM) with reservoir attached, receiving air, by two OEC Technicians
b. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by one OEC Technician
c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
d. Use of a BVM with O2 reservoir attached, by one rescuer
c. Use of a BVM with reservoir attached, receiving O2 at 15 LPM, by two rescuers
You have arrived in the lodge with your airway and trauma pack to care for a patient who reportedly had a seizure. Assessment reveals him to be apneic with vomitus in the airway. He has a radial pulse, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
a. Start artificial ventilations.
b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn
him on his side and clean out the vomitus.
c. Check the patient’s breath sounds.
d. Apply a nonrebreather mask.
b. If available in your trauma pack, use a suction device to clear the airway; otherwise, turn
him on his side and clean out the vomitus.
Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on a patient’s face?
a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
b. If two rescuers are using the BVM, the mask need only be placed over the mouth while the nose is pinched closed.
c. The wide portion of the mask is at the top of the nose, and the narrow part is below the lower lip.
d. The mask is properly positioned when the top portion lies over the bridge of the nose, and the lower portion is below the chin.
a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the cleft of the chin.
Which of the following statements is the best tip for artificially ventilating a patient using a bag-valve mask?
a. If the patient has dentures, remove them so that a better mask-to-face seal can be achieved.
b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
c. To direct air into the lungs and not into the stomach, flex the patient’s head forward while ventilating with the bag-valve mask.
d. Always remove the oropharyngeal airway so that it is not pushed deep into the patient’s
airway during ventilations.
b. It is important to maintain the head tilt-chin lift or jaw-thrust maneuver while ventilating the patient.
While a 61-year-old female in cardiac arrest receives emergency care you note that her abdomen grows larger with each ventilation provided from a bag-valve mask. What instructions should you provide?
a. “Try delivering each ventilation quickly, and let’s slow down the rate.”
b. “The ventilation rate and the force of ventilation need to be increased so that air reaches
the lungs.”
c. “ Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each
breath.”
d. “I need another rescuer to apply firm pressure over the stomach while we ventilate this
patient.”
c. “ Let’s slow the ventilation rate to 12 per minute and not squeeze in as much air with each
breath. ”
You arrive to assist another rescuer with a patient in cardiac arrest. As you enter the room, a brand new OEC Technician informs you that he is having difficulty maintaining the mask seal to the patient’s face while ventilating with the BVM. Which one of the following responses shows that you understand and can help with the problem?
a. “I will check the breath sounds to see if air is reaching the lungs.”
b. “Why don’t we try using a larger adult mask and flexing the head forward?”
c. “I will administer some cricoid pressure; that should help.”
d. “Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.”
d. “Let me maintain the face-to-mask seal while you squeeze the bag.”
By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have:
a. protected the airway from vomit or other secretions.
b. kept the tongue away from the airway.
c. obtained a patent airway by keeping the mouth from closing.
d. minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus.
b. kept the tongue away from the airway.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how to use an oropharyngeal airway?
a. “Once it has been placed, the head tilt-chin lift is no longer needed.”
b. “If it is too small, it could push the epiglottis over the opening of the trachea.”
c. “It protects the patient from aspirating vomit or other secretions.”
d. “I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion.”
d. “I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion.”
For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated?
a. A responsive but confused patient with stridorous respirations
b. A patient who has vomited and responds to painful stimuli by moaning
c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
d. A patient with snoring respirations who coughs as the oral airway is placed into his
mouth
c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex
You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique?
a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it
180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
b. The rescuer uses a tongue depressor to press the back of the patient’s tongue downward
and then inserts the oral airway upside down.
c. The rescuer inserts the oral airway in its normal anatomic position until the flange of the
airway is 1 cm above the patient’s lips.
d. The rescuer inserts the oral airway sideways into the mouth and then rotates it 180
degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.
a. The rescuer inserts the oral airway into the patient’s mouth upside down and then turns it
180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker knows how to properly size an oral airway before its placement?
a. “It is better to have an oral airway that is too large than one that is too small.”
b. “To select an appropriately sized oral airway, you must first estimate the patient’s height
and weight.”
c. “The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth
to the angle of the jaw.”
d. “An appropriately sized oral airway can be selected by looking in the patient’s mouth and
estimating the length of the tongue.”
c. “The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth
to the angle of the jaw.”
You recognize that the an oropharyngeal airway has been appropriately inserted when:
a. it cannot be dislodged by the rescuer.
b. the flange sits about ¼ inch from the patient’s lips.
c. vomiting is no longer occurring.
d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.
d. air moves freely in and out of the airway.
If a patient gags while you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, you should:
a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
b. remove the airway, lubricate it, and reattempt to insert it.
c. remove the airway and reattempt to insert it using a smaller airway.
d. use a tongue depressor to better place the airway.
a. remove the airway and maintain the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to:
a. leave the airway in but stop ventilations.
b. remove the airway.
c. suction the airway.
d. reassure and calm the patient.
b. remove the airway.
You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the:
a. distance from the patient’s mouth to the angle of the jaw.
b. diameter of the patient’s larger nostril.
c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.
d. diameter of the patient’s little finger.
c. distance from the patient’s nose to the earlobe.
Which of the following phrases best describes oxygen?
a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
b. A highly flammable substance
c. An odorless gas that is cloudy when pressurized
d. A moist gas that supports combustion
a. An odorless, colorless, tasteless gas
You arrive at the aid room and note that portable oxygen tanks are now yellow instead of green as during your previous shift. As a knowledgeable OEC Technician you should:
a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder.
b. recognize the availability of more effective synthetic oxygen.
c. decide that your mountain area has switched to new lightweight oxygen tanks.
d. realize that the yellow color indicates new tanks that hold more oxygen.
a. not use the yellow tank and instead retrieve a green cylinder.
To ensure an oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM to a patient using a nonrebreather mask, you should:
a. “crack” the oxygen tank after attaching the regulator.
b. hear a hissing sound when you turn on the oxygen.
c. slowly release oxygen from the tank until the pressure is 15 psi.
d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
d. select 15 on the oxygen flow-control gauge.
If while checking a size D oxygen tank you notice that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi, you should recognize that the tank is:
a. leaking.
b. overfilled.
c. half full.
d. almost empty.
c. half full.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has a correct understanding of the use of oxygen in a prehospital setting?
a. “Oxygen should not be given to patients with chronic lung diseases.”
b. “If the patient is claustrophobic, oxygen should be administered at 15 LPM through a
nasal cannula.”
c. “Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath.”
d. “An OEC Technician does not need a physician’s order to administer oxygen.”
c. “Oxygen should be administered to anyone who is short of breath.”
Which of the following actions is part of the correct use of a nonrebreather mask on an adult patient?
a. Ensuring that the reservoir fully collapses with each breath
b. Instructing the patient to take deeper breaths when the mask is on
c. Setting the oxygen flow rate to between 6 LPM and 16 LPM.
d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.
d. Fully inflating the reservoir before placing the mask on the patient.
Which of the following occurs during the proper use of a nonrebreather mask?
a. The air inhaled by the patient will be recycled with oxygen.
b. The mask is comfortable and well tolerated by all patients when properly applied.
c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
d. Oxygen is delivered into the lungs when the patient not inhaling.
c. The mask can deliver between 80 percent and 90 percent oxygen.
Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a female patient with chest
pain panics and states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the chest pain becomes. Your best course of action is to:
a. remove the nonrebreather mask and apply a simple face mask.
b. decrease the oxygen flow rate entering the nonrebreather mask.
c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.
d. discontinue oxygen therapy and continually monitor breath sounds.
c. disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula.
What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians?
a. A nasal cannula
b. A nonrebreather mask
c. A simple face mask
d. A venture mask
b. A nonrebreather mask
When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which of the following observations warrants immediate intervention?
a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM
b. Prongs in the nostrils that curve posteriorly into the nose
c. Tubing that is positioned over the ears and under the chin
d. Normal patient breathing while the nasal cannula is in place
a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM
Which of the following statements about a nasal cannula is true?
a. The oxygen flow rate can be adjusted anywhere from 1 LPM to 10 LPM, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs.
b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen.
c. A nasal cannula is preferred over a nonrebreather mask because the cannula administers the oxygen through the nose instead of through the mouth.
d. It is best to see how a patient tolerates a nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient.
b. When the nasal cannula is set to the highest appropriate oxygen flow rate, it delivers 24–44 percent oxygen.
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to suction patients properly in a field setting?
a. “When caring for a young child, I suction for a minimum of 10–15 seconds.”
b. “To thoroughly suction a patient, I insert the rigid tip of the catheter past the base of the
tongue and into the pharynx.”
c. “It is helpful to pour sterile water into a patient’s mouth to liquefy vomit and make it
easier to suction out.”
d. “I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.”
d. “I activate the suction device only when I am withdrawing the suction catheter.”
The lower airway consists of which of the following structures?
a. Epiglottis, trachea, and bronchi
b. Pharynx, bronchi, and alveoli
c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
d. Larynx, bronchi, and alveoli
c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
The most commonly used method for opening a patient’s mouth to suction the oropharynx, to perform a finger sweep, or to insert an oral airway is:
a. Sellick’s maneuver.
b. the crossed finger technique.
c. a Yankauer catheter.
d. the finger sweep.
b. the crossed finger technique.
You have opened and cleared your patient’s airway. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to:
a. place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
b. place a suction catheter in the corner of the patient’s mouth to continually remove secretions.
c. maintain the head tilt-chin lift position.
d. use the crossed finger technique.
a. place the patient in the left lateral recumbent (recovery) position if the patient is unresponsive and spinal injury is not suspected.
Your patrol director has asked you to check the oxygen tanks and let her know how long they will last at an accident. To calculate this information you would use which of the following formulas?
a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM
b. (Flow rate in LPM divided by cylinder size) times gauge pressure
c. (Gauge pressure divided by flow rate) minus safe residual pressure
d. (Cylinder size minus safe residual pressure in psi) times flow rate in LPM
a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM
A time-honored technique that may be used on conscious or unconscious patients to quickly remove fluid and solids from the airway is:
a. a jaw thrust.
b. the crossed finger technique.
c. a finger sweep.
d. gravity.
d. gravity.
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to properly store an oxygen tank after use?
a. “I’m going to leave the regulator set to 15 LPM so it will be ready when we need it.”
b. “I’ll stand the oxygen tank beside the stretcher so everyone will know where it is.”
c. “I’ll tighten the valve stem as much as I can so it won’t come loose.”
d. “I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.”
d. “I’ll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again.”
You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last:
a. 8.5 minutes.
b. 15 minutes.
c. 5 minutes.
d. 12 minutes.
a. 8.5 minutes.
You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct?
a. “Roll the patient onto his side and then hold him there until help arrives.”
b. “After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient’s head on your aid pack.”
c. “Elevate the patient’s lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily.”
d. “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”
d. “Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side.”
What does the letter S in the acronym SLIC stand for?
a. Slowly
b. Size
c. Septum
d. Slippery
b. Size
To clear an airway of fluid and debris, suctioning should be applied:
a. for as long as needed.
b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time.
c. for no more than 30 seconds at a time.
d. as deeply as needed to remove as much fluid as possible.
b. for no more than 10–15 seconds at a time.
You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to:
a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
b. attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir.
c. turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM.
d. check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.
a. turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key.
Which of the following statements shows an understanding by the speaker of the use of a pocket mask?
a. “Although a pocket mask is very effective at ventilating a patient, you are directly
exposed to the patient’s secretions.”
b. “A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose.”
c. “When using a pocket mask to ventilate a patient, you must make sure that the reservoir
bag is in place.”
d. “A pocket mask should be used only when oxygen is connected to it.”
b. “A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient’s mouth and nose.”
You hear a candidate OEC Technician explaining the use of a barrier shield to another candidate. Which of the following statements would indicate that he does not fully understand its purpose or how to
use it?
a. “A barrier device is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen.”
b. “A barrier device cannot be used as personal protective equipment.”
c. “You need to open the patient’s airway before using a barrier device.”
d. “A barrier device may have either a mesh opening or a breathing tube in the center.”
a. “A barrier device is as good as any of the other airway adjuncts for delivering oxygen.”
A patient in early shock informs you that he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Given this history, you would recognize the pathophysiology of the shock is probably related to:
a. the loss of red blood cells.
b. decreased formed elements in the blood.
c. leakage of the capillaries.
d. the loss of plasma volume.
d. the loss of plasma volume.
A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding is in shock. This type of shock is known as:
a. hypervolemic.
b. cardiogenic.
c. hemorrhagic.
d. distributive.
c. hemorrhagic.
Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause of cardiogenic shock?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Severe vomiting and diarrhea
c. Gastrointestinal bleeding
d. Systemic infection
a. Myocardial infarction
The four major categories of shock are:
a. hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive.
b. burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic.
c. hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive, and hypovolemic.
d. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.
d. hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.
Which of the following statements made by a patient’s family member would lead you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock?
a. “He has had a rash for the past three days.”
b. “He cannot stop throwing up.”
c. “He has been taking an antibiotic for a chest cold.”
d. “He got up this morning and was having a hard time breathing.”
b. “He cannot stop throwing up.”
The underlying cause of distributive shock is:
a. poor fluid intake.
b. loss of blood volume.
c. a damaged heart that has poor contractility.
d. dilation of blood vessels.
d. dilation of blood vessels.
Which of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock?
a. Infection throughout the body
b. Loss of blood in the urine
c. Blood clots in the lungs
d. Poor transfer of oxygen at the capillary level
c. Blood clots in the lungs
A patient in shock with abdominal pain indicates he noticed lots of blood in the toilet after having a bowel movement this morning. You would recognize the possibility of what type of shock?
a. Septic
b. Hypovolemic
c. Hypoxic
d. Obstructive
b. Hypovolemic
You are treating a patient with severe chest pain and believe she is in cardiogenic shock. One of your first treatments would be:
a. high-flow oxygen.
b. application of an AED.
c. having the patient take her nitroglycerin.
d. rapid transport in a supine position.
a. high-flow oxygen.
You approach a patient and notice a large amount of blood on the ground. The patient appears confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do first?
a. Apply oxygen.
b. Look for the source of the blood.
c. Assess the patient’s airway.
d. Treat the patient for shock.
c. Assess the patient’s airway.
Which of the following situations is occurring in the body of a person in shock?
a. The cells are getting glucose and other nutrients but not oxygen.
b. The amount of oxygen reaching the cells is adequate, but carbon dioxide is not being
removed.
c. The blood contains an adequate amount of oxygen but not enough nutrients for cells to
survive.
d. The cells are not getting enough oxygen, and waste products are accumulating.
d. The cells are not getting enough oxygen, and waste products are accumulating.
When performing a primary assessment, the first evidence that the body may be in shock is:
a. skin that is warm and diaphoretic.
b. a radial pulse of over 100 beats per minute.
c. hypertension.
d. a slowed respiratory rate.
b. a radial pulse of over 100 beats per minute.
Which of the following statements best indicates that the speaker has an understanding of the role of caring for a patient in shock in a prehospital setting?
a. “The job of the prehospital provider is to recognize shock and get the patient to the hospital, where treatment for shock can be started.”
b. “Because shock is a life-threatening condition, it is important to identify its exact cause so that proper care can be given.”
c. “If shock is in the compensatory or early stage, it is not yet life threatening, so you can take your time to carefully assess and treat the patient.”
d. “Because shock is best treated in the hospital, one should provide care to correct problems affecting ABCDs and then rapidly transport the patient.”
d. “Because shock is best treated in the hospital, one should provide care to correct problems affecting ABCDs and then rapidly transport the patient.”
A 56-year-old female has struck a tree. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should you do immediately?
a. Determine her pulse rate.
b. Elevate her feet.
c. Evaluate her for shock.
d. Open and suction her airway.
d. Open and suction her airway.
A patient who sustained blunt trauma to the abdominal and pelvic areas in a very serious collision is probably in which type of shock?
a. Obstructive
b. Cardiogenic
c. Distributive
d. Hypovolemic
d. Hypovolemic
Septic shock is caused by:
a. a failing heart.
b. blood loss.
c. an infection.
d. a collapsed lung.
c. an infection.
Which of the following lists of assessment findings indicates that a trauma patient may be in compensated shock?
a. Anxious, pulse 104, BP 134/88 mmHg, pale and cool skin
b. Slightly confused, pulse 116, BP 90/60 mmHg, warm skin that is flushed
c. Confused and anxious, pulse 144, BP 82/palp, cool skin that is mottled
d. Confused, pulse 44, BP 110/68, cool and cyanotic skin
a. Anxious, pulse 104, BP 134/88 mmHg, pale and cool skin
You are reassessing a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the chest. Which one of the following reassessment findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating and is in the decompensating phase of
shock?
a. Pulse of 96 beats per minute
b. Blood pressure of 88/50
c. Blood oozing from an abdominal laceration
d. Skin that is cool and dry
b. Blood pressure of 88/50
Which of the following statements about irreversible shock is correct?
a. Even with treatment, death will result.
b. If the pupils are dilated, the patient is in irreversible shock.
c. In irreversible shock, the radial pulse is weak but the carotid pulse stays strong.
d. To survive, the patient must get to the hospital quickly to receive IV fluids.
a. Even with treatment, death will result.
Shock is defined as:
a. inadequate blood pressure and pulse.
b. decreased amount of circulating blood for any reason.
c. multiple organ failure.
d. a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.
d. a state of inadequate tissue perfusion.
The cardiovascular system is composed of the:
a. heart, aorta, and venae cavae.
b. blood vessels, plasma, and the lungs.
c. heart, blood vessels, and blood.
d. heart, lungs, and blood.
c. heart, blood vessels, and blood.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the heart?
a. It has four chambers and two sides.
b. It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary veins.
c. It pumps blood throughout the body through the systemic circuit.
d. It is about the size of a clenched fist
b. It pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs through the pulmonary veins.
Which of the following statements correctly describes cardiac output?
a. It is the combination of stroke volume and heart rate.
b. It is the amount of blood pumped in each heartbeat.
c. Increased cardiac output can lead to shock.
d. Reduced stroke volume always means reduced cardiac output.
a. It is the combination of stroke volume and heart rate.
The key components of blood are:
a. red blood cells, platelets, hemoglobin, and water.
b. white blood cells, plasma, proteins, and fat.
c. red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
d. hemoglobin, water, platelets, and plasma.
c. red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma.
The degree to which hemoglobin is full of oxygen is called:
a. hemoglobin saturation
b. oxygen saturation.
c. hematocrit.
d. oxygen capacity.
b. oxygen saturation.
Hemorrhage can result in all of the following except:
a. decreased respirations.
b. decreased ability to oxygenate tissues.
c. decreased nutrients to tissues.
d. increased heart rate.
a. decreased respirations.
In shock, the body’s reactions to a decreased amount of oxygen reaching the cells include:
a. the release of epinephrine, increased stroke volume, and slowed respiratory rate.
b. increased stroke volume, increased heart rate, and increased peripheral resistance.
c. slowed respiratory rate, shunting of blood from the skin, and decreased pulse rate.
d. increased stroke volume, decreased pulse rate, and shunting of blood from the skin.
b. increased stroke volume, increased heart rate, and increased peripheral resistance.
In decompensated shock, the failure of body systems in spite of the body’s attempt to oxygenate vital
organs becomes apparent as:
a. increased blood pressure and reduced pulse rate.
b. delayed capillary refill and increased respiratory rate.
c. increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure.
d. increased respiratory rate and reduced level of consciousness.
c. increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure.
You are caring for a 55-year-old man with significant trauma. His medical history reveals high blood
pressure for which he takes a beta blocker. You realize that this group of drugs may:
a. inhibit his heart’s ability to beat faster.
b. cause him to have lower-than-normal blood pressure.
c. diminish his reactions to pain.
d. cause his heart rate to increase.
a. inhibit his heart’s ability to beat faster.
Which of the following factors must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding?
a. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood is lost.
b. A person in poor health cannot tolerate the same amount of blood loss as a healthier person.
c. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the snow.
d. Children show signs of shock much more quickly than do adults.
b. A person in poor health cannot tolerate the same amount of blood loss as a healthier person.
You get a call for a “serious” injury on the expert trail. As you are skiing up to the patient your first priority is:
a. looking to see how much blood is on the snow.
b. trying to determine how many people may be injured.
c. assessing the scene for rescuer safety.
d. performing a primary survey.
c. assessing the scene for rescuer safety.
The smaller branches of the arterial tree that contain a muscular layer that enables changes in vessel diameter are called _______; these vessels ________.
a. resistance vessels; enable the body to control how much blood is directed toward an area based on that area’s metabolic needs
b. distributive vessels; sense oxygen levels and increase heart rate when the brainstem detects dropping O2 levels or rising CO2 levels
c. arterioles; exchange O2 and CO2 and rid the body of waste products
d. metabolic vessels; trigger the release of glucose into the circulatory system
a. resistance vessels; enable the body to control how much blood is directed toward an area based on that area’s metabolic needs
You are treating a 42-year-old female exhibiting signs of shock. You do not suspect a spinal injury. To try to improve blood flow to the heart, you should position the patient:
a. supine with her feet elevated 8–12 inches above the level of the heart.
b. flat on her left side.
c. supine with the bed tilted so that her head is lower than her feet.
d. with her head slightly elevated and her arms raised over her head.
a. supine with her feet elevated 8–12 inches above the level of the heart.
When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, the priority of care is:
a. identifying risk factors for stroke.
b. determining if there is a family history of stroke.
c. recognizing the signs of a stroke.
d. determining the type of stroke.
c. recognizing the signs of a stroke.
Which of the following is the best answer to the question, “Are all stroke patients paralyzed on one side of their body?”
a. “Yes. Both the arm and leg on the same side will always be paralyzed.”
b. “No. Some patients suffering a stroke will show no signs of paralysis at all.”
c. “No. Paralysis can occur on both sides of the body and in different limbs.”
d. “No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness on one side of their bodies.”
d. “No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness on one side of their bodies.”
When assessing a patient for abnormal speech, you should:
a. ask the patient stick his tongue straight out.
b. ask the patient to repeat a common phrase.
c. see if one side of the patient’s mouth is drooping.
d. write questions on note cards for the patient to read.
b. ask the patient to repeat a common phrase.
When assessing a patient for a facial droop, you should:
a. palpate the face one side at a time.
b. gently lift and then let go of the skin over the cheeks.
c. ask the patient to show you his teeth or to smile.
d. observe the patient’s ability to turn his head to the right and then to the left.
c. ask the patient to show you his teeth or to smile.
Which of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient describes the proper procedure for assessing an arm drift?
a. “Hold your arms up over your head for 20 seconds.”
b. “Grab my fingers with both hands and squeeze as hard as you can.”
c. “Raise your hands above your head and close your eyes.”
d. “Hold your arms straight out for 10 to 15 seconds.”
d. “Hold your arms straight out for 10 to 15 seconds.”
Which of the following questions is critical for establishing a window of treatment for a patient who is weak and dizzy and may have suffered a stroke?
a. “Does your father have a history of heart problems or stroke?”
b. “What time did the weakness and dizziness start?”
c. “What medications do you take?”
d. “Do you have any pain in your arms or legs?”
b. “What time did the weakness and dizziness start?”
Which of the following pieces of information is assessed by the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
a. Blood glucose level
b. Presence or absence of facial droop
c. Duration of symptoms
d. Age of the patient
b. Presence or absence of facial droop
You have assessed a patient and found a patent airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. The patient is having no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. You should interpret these findings as:
a. not suggestive of a stroke.
b. suggestive of a stroke only if the patient’s blood pressure is also elevated.
c. suggestive of a stroke only if the patient’s pupils are not equal.
d. suggestive that a stroke may be occurring.
d. suggestive that a stroke may be occurring.
Which of the following statements shows that the speaker has an accurate understanding of assessment findings related to stroke?
a. “For a stroke to be suspected, both arms must be equally weak.”
b. “If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected.”
c. “A stroke should be suspected only when one arm is paralyzed, not just weak.”
d. “If one arm is weak, stroke should be suspected only if the patient’s blood pressure is also elevated.”
b. “If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected.”
You have been called for a 63-year-old woman with slurred speech and right arm weakness. On arrival, the patient informs you that the slurred speech and weakness have resolved. Since your assessment reveals no deficits, you would tell the patient:
a. “It would be best to start taking one baby aspirin every day; this will decrease the chance of this happening again.”
b. “Sometimes seizures present this way; call your doctor in the morning to schedule an appointment.”
c. “If this happens again, wait 10 minutes to see if you are okay. If the symptoms don’t go away, call 911.”
d. “You really need to be evaluated in the hospital. You could be at risk for a future stroke.”
d. “You really need to be evaluated in the hospital. You could be at risk for a future stroke.”
Your assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. Which of the following would be your priority?
a. Suction the patient’s airway.
b. Protect the patient’s left arm.
c. Determine the patient’s risk factors for stroke.
d. Monitor the patient’s blood pressure.
a. Suction the patient’s airway.
Which of the following events best describes an ischemic stroke?
a. An artery in the brain has ruptured.
b. Blood has collected throughout the brain tissue.
c. A heart attack has occurred at the same time as a stroke.
d. A blood clot has obstructed a blood vessel in the brain.
d. A blood clot has obstructed a blood vessel in the brain.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands hemorrhagic strokes?
a. “They occur when clots form in blood vessels in the brain.”
b. “They occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures.”
c. “Their signs and symptoms generally resolve within 24 hours.”
d. “They can sometimes be treated by clot-destroying medications.”
b. “They occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures.”
The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA):
a. are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.
b. can persist for a few days before they resolve.
c. are mild but permanent.
d. are severe and permanent.
a. are temporary and resolve within 24 hours.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of altered mental status (AMS)?
a. “AMS describes any abnormal change in a person’s level of awareness.”
b. “AMS occurs only when a patient is not responsive to verbal or painful stimuli.”
c. “AMS should be suspected only when a patient is on medications that can cause confusion.”
d. “AMS is any mental state in a person with diabetes.”
a. “AMS describes any abnormal change in a person’s level of awareness.”
Your patient is a 78-year-old male who was found lying on a beginner slope. The patient is unresponsive with unequal pupils and vital signs as follows: pulse 78, respirations 20 and deep. The patient has a hematoma on the back of his head. Which one of the following would you do first?
a. Find a witness to tell you how the person got there.
b. Apply a cervical collar.
c. Ensure an open airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
d. Look for a medic alert tag.
c. Ensure an open airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
Your patient is unresponsive and there is no evidence of trauma. Which piece of information given to you by the patient’s family is most important in relation to the treatment of a possible stroke?
a. “He forgot to take his blood thinner last night.”
b. “We think he had too much to drink last night.”
c. “We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m. last night.”
d. “He took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough.”
c. “We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m. last night.”
The benefit of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is that it:
a. enables you to identify patients at risk for stroke.
b. enables you to identify the type of stroke a patient is having.
c. helps you predict the likelihood a patient will die from a stroke.
d. helps you identify the probability that your patient is having a stroke.
d. helps you identify the probability that your patient is having a stroke.
You have been called for a seizure emergency. You find an adult female actively seizing with a bystander attempting to place a spoon between her teeth. The bystander tells you that he is trying to keep the person from biting her tongue. Which one of the following would be an appropriate response?
a. Tell the bystander to continue trying to get the spoon in place.
b. Ask the bystander to discontinue his efforts and then turn the patient onto her side to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions.
c. Instruct the bystander to restrain the patient while you put the spoon in place.
d. Tell the bystander that a padded tongue blade works better.
b. Ask the bystander to discontinue his efforts and then turn the patient onto her side to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions.
A young boy tells you that his twin brother suffers from seizures and asks what he can do if he sees his brother convulsing. You should give him which one of the following instructions?
a. “Move any moveable objects and furniture away from him.”
b. “Hold him firmly against the floor until he stops seizing or until the EMTs arrive.”
c. “Insert a spoon into his mouth to keep him from swallowing his tongue.”
d. “Call EMS only if the seizure lasts more than 10 minutes or he loses control of his bladder.”
a. “Move any moveable objects and furniture away from him.”
As a general rule, a seizing patient should be transported in what position?
a. Supine
b. Semi-Fowler’s
c. Lateral recumbent
d. Trendelenburg (shock position)
c. Lateral recumbent
After a delayed response, you arrive in the lodge and find a 62-year-old female is still seizing. Which one of the following should you do first?
a. Assess her airway and breathing.
b. Determine if she has a seizure history.
c. Ascertain the duration of the seizure.
d. Move her to the aid room for further assessment and then transport her to the hospital.
a. Assess her airway and breathing.
You are called the lodge to assess a 3-year-old boy. The parents state that their son was playing with his brother and “blanked out” and “stared off into space” for several seconds. They deny any convulsing-like movement. Based on this description, you would suspect what type of seizure?
a. A febrile seizure
b. A simple partial seizure
c. A grand mal seizure
d. An absence seizure
d. An absence seizure
When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs is most suggestive of a seizure?
a. Bruises on the arms
b. A bitten tongue
c. Pinpoint pupils
d. A slow heart rate
b. A bitten tongue
You have been called to the lodge for a behavioral emergency. When you arrive, you find a disheveled male in his forties sitting up against a wall. He is confused and incontinent. Bystanders state that he suddenly began to stumble around and then fell to the ground and was grunting and shaking. From this description, you would be suspicious of what condition?
a. A generalized seizure
b. A diabetic reaction
c. An absence seizure
d. A syncopal episode
a. A generalized seizure
Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by:
a. the duration of the seizure.
b. the length of the postictal period.
c. the presence of an aura prior to seizing.
d. a pre-existing history of seizures.
a. the duration of the seizure.
During the initial part of a generalized seizure, some patients experience a(n):
a. syncopal stage.
b. aura.
c. clonic phase.
d. postictal state.
b. aura.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the danger posed by status epilepticus?
a. “Status epilepticus is an extremely dangerous condition because the patient can go into shock from blood loss.”
b. “Patients who do not have a history of seizures are at greater risk for status epilepticus.”
c. “The longer the seizure continues, the greater the likelihood of permanent brain damage.”
d. “Status epilepticus indicates that the patient’s medications have reached toxic levels in the body.”
c. “The longer the seizure continues, the greater the likelihood of permanent brain damage.”
Which of the following statements concerning the causation of seizures is correct?
a. A seizure occurs when the heart beats irregularly, causing a decreased amount of oxygen-rich blood to
reach the brain.
b. All seizures are caused by epilepsy, a term that describes a problem somewhere in the body.
c. A seizure condition is a muscle problem that causes the arms and legs to jerk.
d. A seizure occurs when there is an electrical disturbance in the brain.
d. A seizure occurs when there is an electrical disturbance in the brain.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the A stands for:
a. ADHD and alcohol.
b. alcohol and acidosis.
c. acidosis and anemia.
d. abscess and acidosis.
b. alcohol and acidosis.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the E stands for:
a. epilepsy, environment, and electrolyte imbalance.
b. edema, electrolyte imbalance, and endocarditis.
c. epilepsy, echovirus, and environment.
d. electrolyte imbalance, environment, and echovirus.
a. epilepsy, environment, and electrolyte imbalance.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the first I stands for:
a. impetigo.
b. infantile neuroaxonal dystrophy.
c. insulin.
d. interstitial cystitis.
c. insulin.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the O stands for:
a. osteosarcoma and oxygen.
b. oxygen and overdose.
c. overdose and oliguria.
d. overdose and otitis.
b. oxygen and overdose.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the U stands for:
a. urticaria.
b. usher syndrome.
c. ulcers.
d. uremia.
d. uremia.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the T stands for:
a. thyroiditis and thrombophlebitis.
b. trauma and tumors.
c. thrombophlebitis and tinnitus.
d. trauma and thrombophlebitis.
b. trauma and tumors.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the second I stands for:
a. insomnia.
b. impetigo.
c. interstitial cystitis.
d. infection.
d. infection.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the P stands for:
a. parathyroid disorders and Parkinson’s disease.
b. parathyroid disorders and psychiatric conditions.
c. Parkinson’s disease and peripheral nerve disorder.
d. poisoning and psychiatric conditions.
d. poisoning and psychiatric conditions.
In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the S stands for:
a. steroids, seizure, and sinusitis.
b. seizure, stroke, and syncope.
c. Sjogren’s syndrome, seizure, and sinusitis.
d. sickle cell anemia, Sjogren’s syndrome, and steroids.
b. seizure, stroke, and syncope.
The part of the brain that is responsible for emotion, thought, speech, integration, and memory is the:
a. brain stem.
b. cerebellum.
c. cerebrum.
d. thalamus.
c. cerebrum.
The part of the brain that controls basic functions necessary for life is the:
a. brain stem.
b. cerebellum.
c. cerebrum.
d. thalamus.
a. brain stem.
The part of the brain that controls balance and coordination is the:
a. brain stem.
b. cerebellum.
c. cerebrum.
d. thalamus.
b. cerebellum.
Insulin:
a. enables transfer of glucose from blood into cells
b. increases the level of glucose circulating in the blood.
c. makes glucosamine work better as an energy source.
d. increases the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream.
a. enables transfer of glucose from blood into cells
The primary problem in Type II diabetes is that:
a. sugars cannot be easily digested in the stomach and small intestine.
b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.
c. insufficient insulin is produced.
d. too much insulin is produced.
b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.
The primary problem in Type II diabetes is that:
a. sugars cannot be easily digested in the stomach and small intestine.
b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.
c. insufficient insulin is produced.
d. too much insulin is produced.
b. cells exhibit resistance to insulin.
Which of the following actions may result in hypoglycemia in a diabetes patient?
a. Failure to take insulin or an oral diabetes medication
b. Lack of exercise
c. Missing a meal
d. Overeating
c. Missing a meal
Hyperglycemia:
a. has a more gradual onset than hypoglycemia.
b. is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
c. has a more rapid onset than hypoglycemia.
d. is more easily treated in prehospital environments than is hypoglycemia.
a. has a more gradual onset than hypoglycemia.
Glucose:
a. assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin.
b. is an energy source for brain cells and other cells in the body.
c. is an essential building block for body tissues such as muscle and bone.
d. allows the body to use insulin.
b. is an energy source for brain cells and other cells in the body.
Which of the following statements regarding poisonings is true?
a. A poison is any substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body.
b. All toxins are poisonous when in contact with the human body.
c. The majority of poisonings are intentional and result in homicide or suicide.
d. The number-one cause of poisoning in the United States is prescription medications.
a. A poison is any substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body.
Which of the following terms does not indicate a route of absorption in the body?
a. Ingestion
b. Inhalation
c. Distribution
d. Transdermal route
c. Distribution
A 44-year-old patient was found at home unresponsive. Based on his clinical presentation and the fact that he was burning a kerosene heater in an enclosed room, you suspect that he is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning. Based on this information, which route of exposure would you recognize as responsible
for the poisoning?
a. Transdermal route
b. Inhalation
c. Ingestion
d. Absorption
b. Inhalation
Distribution of a poisonous substance in the body occurs primarily through the:
a. lymphatic system.
b. circulatory system.
c. endocrine system.
d. gastrointestinal system.
b. circulatory system.
The process by which the body breaks down a substance is known as:
a. elimination.
b. detoxification.
c. metabolism.
d. distribution.
c. metabolism.
The speed at which a toxin is distributed in the body is affected by:
a. the heart rate.
b. body mass.
c. the respiratory rate.
d. urination.
a. the heart rate.
In the broadest sense, anything that has mass and occupies space is known as a:
a. poison.
b. toxin.
c. cell.
d. substance.
d. substance.
A 15-year-old admits to taking “a bunch” of extra strength Tylenol tablets. Her mother states it’s nothing to worry about because it was just Tylenol. Based on your training you recognize that this ingestion could have serious consequences. It is because toxic amounts acetaminophen can cause irreversible:
a. liver damage.
b. stomach damage.
c. brain damage.
d. hearing damage.
a. liver damage.
You are visiting a friend’s home and suddenly hear a child crying out in the kitchen. As you assess the scene you note kitchen cabinets are open with bottles tossed around. The child is holding her hand to her mouth. Your friend tells you that the child must have tasted something that she didn’t like. Based on your scene assessment, you would:
a. agree with your friend and suggest that a cookie would take the bad taste away.
b. ask your friend if she has Ipecac so you can make the child vomit.
c. call 911 and try to identify which bottle the child may have been drinking from.
d. offer the child a glass of milk to dilute any chemical he may have ingested.
c. call 911 and try to identify which bottle the child may have been drinking from.
Which of the following criteria is not one of the criteria for administering activated charcoal?
a. The patient ingested the poison less than three hours ago.
b. The patient is awake and responsive.
c. Transport time will be prolonged.
d. Authorization has been granted by medical control or some other EMS authority.
a. The patient ingested the poison less than three hours ago.
It is late Friday evening and you are joining your friends at a cabin for a winter weekend trip. When you open the door you notice how nice and warm it is inside. Your friends though are not very welcoming. They tell you they are not feeling well and complain of being lightheaded and nauseated. Based on their symptoms, you are concerned they may be suffering from:
a. carbon dioxide poisoning.
b. alcohol toxicity.
c. excessive heat exposure.
d. carbon monoxide poisoning.
d. carbon monoxide poisoning.
Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands inhalation poisonings?
a. “They can occur from inhaling common household products.”
b. “They affect the lungs only and do not circulate systemically.”
c. “An inhalation emergency cannot be occurring if you don’t smell anything.”
d. “Most inhalation poisonings are easily identifiable by a residue around the mouth.”
a. “They can occur from inhaling common household products.”
You are driving on the highway and see an overturned tanker. A fluid is spilling from the tanker rapidly covering the ground around the driver’s door. The driver appears to be unresponsive. The only marking on the tanker seems to be the name of the tanker company and hazard symbol. Your initial action should be:
a. try not to step in the liquid while pulling the driver away from the truck.
b. have someone call 911 and assess the driver’s ABCDs.
c. remain at a safe distance while calling 911 for assistance.
d. cover your mouth and nose so that you don’t breathe any fumes while you rescue the driver.
c. remain at a safe distance while calling 911 for assistance.
You are helping a friend change the battery in his truck when acid from the old battery splashes in his
eye. He is complaining of pain in his right eye and is having a hard time keeping it open. He has no problems
with airway, breathing, or circulation. What should you do?
a. Cover both his eyes and immediately drive him to the nearest Emergency Department.
b. Place an ice pack on his eye and immediately transport him to the nearest Emergency Department.
c. Pat the eye with a dry towel to absorb the acid.
d. Immediately irrigate the eye with copious amounts of water.
d. Immediately irrigate the eye with copious amounts of water.
You are at a party and are called to assist a young female college student who is unresponsive. Friends say that she is not a heavy drinker, but tonight she drank an excessive amount of alcohol. She responds only to painful stimuli and has snoring respirations. Her respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute and her radial pulse is weak. Based on your OEC training your first action would be would be:
a. place her lying on her right side in case she vomits.
b. notify the authorities because she is probably an underage drinker.
c. perform the jaw thrust-head tilt maneuver.
d. ask her friends if she has also ingested any drugs.
c. perform the jaw thrust-head tilt maneuver.
You are teaching a class about drug-related emergencies, specifically opiate overdose. Which of the following statements made by students indicates an understanding of possible signs of opiate overdose?
a. “Only illegal narcotics can cause hallucinations, which may make the patient violent.”
b. “When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression.”
c. “You should always ask patients if they have chest pain because narcotics increase the heart’s
workload. ”
d. “You should always check the patient’s pupils because they will be dilated in a narcotics overdose.”
b. “When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression.”
Agitation, elevated heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are signs of intoxication with which of the
following types of substances?
a. Cocaine and hallucinogens
b. Antipsychotics and carbon monoxide
c. Inhalants and sleeping pills
d. Alcohol and ethylene glycol
a. Cocaine and hallucinogens
Substance abuse is defined as:
a. an intentional or unintentional use of a substance or poison that results in a medical emergency.
b. an accidental ingestion of a toxin that interferes with normal functioning.
c. the use of a substance or poison at least once a day.
d. the intentional misuse of a substance that results in significant impairment or distress.
d. the intentional misuse of a substance that results in significant impairment or distress.
A patient in the third day of withdrawal from alcohol could develop all of the following conditions except:
a. rash.
b. seizure activity.
c. hallucinations.
d. muscle tremors.
a. rash.
Which of the following parts of the body is least often affected by substances?
a. The eyes
b. The heart muscle
c. The lymphatic vessels
d. The blood
c. The lymphatic vessels
A poisonous substance that comes from a living organism is known as a(n):
a. antipsychotic.
b. toxin.
c. chemical.
d. legume.
b. toxin.
As a whole, the least toxic of all accidental ingestion-related poisonings involve:
a. alcoholic beverages.
b. acetaminophen.
c. toxic plants.
d. aspirin.
c. toxic plants.
For children, the three deadliest poisons are:
a. household cleaners, aspirin, and adult prescriptions.
b. aspirin, acetaminophen, and iron.
c. carbon monoxide, toxic plants, and aspirin.
d. adult prescriptions, alcohol, and daily vitamins.
b. aspirin, acetaminophen, and iron.
The most commonly abused drug in the world is:
a. marijuana.
b. cocaine.
c. amphetamine.
d. alcohol.
d. alcohol.
In the United States, poison-related information is available 24 hours a day by contacting the:
a. National Institute on Drug Abuse at 1-800-222-HELP.
b. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Hotline at1-800-666-6666.
c. National Poison Center at 1-800-222-1222.
d. Chemical Emergency Center at 1-800-262-8200.
c. National Poison Center at 1-800-222-1222.
The mnemonic DUMBELS and the acronym SLUDGE can help identify specific signs and symptoms associated with:
a. exposure to nerve agents.
b. ingestion of ethylene glycol.
c. ingestion of LSD.
d. overdoses of antipsychotic drugs.
a. exposure to nerve agents.
A passive process whereby compounds move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:
a. diffusion.
b. osmosis.
c. metabolism.
d. inhalation.
a. diffusion.
Which of the following lists best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs once it passes the pharynx?
a. Bronchi, larynx, trachea, cricoid
b. Epiglottis, esophagus, trachea, alveoli
c. Trachea, cricoid, bronchi, alveoli
d. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
d. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which of the following events occurs?
a. Inhalation
b. Release
c. Inspiration
d. Exhalation
d. Exhalation
The most important muscle of respiration is the:
a. pectoralis major.
b. intercostal muscle.
c. diaphragm.
d. sternocleidomastoid.
c. diaphragm.
Which of the following actions causes an individual to inhale?
a. The intercostal muscles relax.
b. The chest cavity decreases in size.
c. The diaphragm contracts and flattens.
d. Pressure within the chest increases.
c. The diaphragm contracts and flattens.
A tachypneic patient is breathing:
a. more slowly than normal.
b. normally.
c. more rapidly than normal.
d. irregularly.
c. more rapidly than normal.
During a scene size-up, which of the following observations most strongly suggests that your adult patient is suffering from an acute respiratory emergency?
a. The patient is holding a metered-dose inhaler.
b. The patient is in the tripod position.
c. The patient’s respiratory rate is 20.
d. The patient’s hands are trembling.
b. The patient is in the tripod position.
In an adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is:
a. the tongue.
b. a food bolus.
c. mucous secretions.
d. an inflamed pharynx.
a. the tongue.
