Cybersecurity and Privacy Foundations Flashcards

Understand the relationship between data security and privacy, including key threats and protection strategies. (126 cards)

1
Q

What is Privacy by Design?

(PbD)

A

Embedding privacy principles into services and products from the beginning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Privacy Engineering?

A

Applying PbD principles using technical approaches to protect privacy and maintain data utility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two categories of Privacy-Enhancing Technologies?

(PETs)

A
  • Data altering/deidentification
  • Data shielding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is deidentification important?

A

It helps preserve privacy and exempts data from some laws and governance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between anonymous and pseudonymous data?

A
  • Anonymous data can’t identify individuals.
  • Pseudonymous uses identifiers that don’t reveal true identity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are strong identifiers?

A

Data like SSN, passport number, or name that directly identifies individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are weak identifiers?

A

Data like usernames or email addresses that can identify individuals when aggregated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are quasi-identifiers?

A

Data like a date of birth that can identify individuals when combined with external information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a persistent identifier?

A

Identifiers like IP or MAC addresses that consistently identify a device or user over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between linked and linkable data?

A
  • Linked: matching elements
  • Linkable: data that could be potentially associated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is suppression in deidentification?

A

Removing identifiers entirely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is generalization in deidentification?

A

Replacing specific data with broader categories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is noise addition?

A

Adding random variation to data to preserve overall statistical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does differential privacy work?

A

It balances privacy and data utility by adjusting the noise added to data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are HIPAA’s deidentification methods?

A
  • Safe Harbor (removal of 18 identifiers)
  • Expert Determination (very small re-identification risk)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is FTC guidance on deidentification?

A
  • Data must not be ‘reasonably linkable’.
  • The organization must not re-identify or allow others to do so.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two main types of data-shielding PETs?

A
  • Encryption
  • Hashing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is symmetric encryption?

A

Private-key cryptography where the same key encrypts and decrypts data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List pros and cons of symmetric encryption.

A
  • Pros: Fast, requires fewer resources
  • Cons: Requires safe key exchange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is asymmetric encryption?

A

Public-key cryptography using a key pair (public and private) for each user.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is a message sent using asymmetric encryption?

A
  • Encrypt with the receiver’s public key
  • Decrypt with their private key
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a digital certificate?

A
  • Used for authentication
  • Ensures a message came from a specific user
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the role of a certificate authority?

A
  • Generates keys
  • Validates identities
  • Issues and signs digital certificates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A

Supports key distribution and certificate validation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is **hashing**?
A **one-way mathematical function** that converts an input into a fixed-length **alphanumeric output**.
26
What is the **main goal** of hashing?
* Preserve data integrity * Prevent reverse identification
27
How does hashing **preserve privacy**?
It creates **pseudonyms** or **unique IDs** from identifiers like SSNs.
28
What is a **rainbow table**?
A **lookup table** of hash values to reverse hashed inputs.
29
What is **salting a hash**?
Adding **random data to the input** before hashing to prevent rainbow table attacks.
30
What are **trusted execution environments**?
Secure areas **in hardware** for private data processing.
31
What is **homomorphic encryption**?
Allows **computation on encrypted data** without decrypting it.
32
What is **secure multi-party computation**?
Enables parties to **compute results without revealing** their inputs.
33
What is a **zero-knowledge proof**?
A way to **prove knowledge** of information **without revealing the actual information**.
34
What are examples of **physical shielding technologies**?
* Webcam covers * Screen films * Biometric device locks
35
What is **information security**?
Protection of information's: * Confidentiality * Integrity * Availability
36
How does information security **differ** from cybersecurity?
* **Infosec** covers all formats * **Cybersecurity** focuses on digital systems and infrastructure
37
What does the **CIA triad** stand for?
* Confidentiality * Integrity * Availability
38
What is **confidentiality** in the CIA triad?
Ensuring data is **accessed only by authorized personnel**.
39
What is **integrity** in the CIA triad?
Ensuring data is **accurate, complete, and tamper-proof**.
40
What is **availability** in the CIA triad?
Ensuring data is **accessible when needed**.
41
What does the **DAD triad** stand for?
* Disclosure * Alteration * Destruction
42
What is **disclosure** in the DAD triad?
Unauthorized access to data.
43
What is **alteration** in the DAD triad?
Data is unknowingly changed or tampered with.
44
What is **destruction** in the DAD triad?
Data is lost.
45
What is a **control** in information security?
A measure implemented to mitigate risk.
46
What are the **three types of controls**?
* Administrative * Technical * Physical
47
What is the **NIST Cybersecurity Framework** (CSF)?
Voluntary guidance from NIST to **promote best practices** in cybersecurity.
48
What are the **five core functions** of the NIST CSF?
* Identify * Protect * Detect * Respond * Recover
49
What does the '**Identify**' function in NIST CSF cover?
* Business context * Systems * Data * Assets * Capabilities
50
What does the '**Protect**' function in NIST CSF involve?
**Safeguards** for confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
51
What does '**Detect**' refer to in the NIST CSF?
Identifying abnormal events.
52
What does '**Respond**' involve in the NIST CSF?
Taking action and notifying relevant parties.
53
What does '**Recover**' focus on in the NIST CSF?
Restoring systems, services, and capabilities.
54
What is the **adversarial mindset** in cybersecurity?
* Assumes constant threats * Emphasizes threat modeling and countermeasures
55
What is the **MITRE ATT&CK Framework**?
A knowledge base of cyberattacks and techniques.
56
What does **STRIDE** stand for?
* Spoofing * Tampering * Repudiation * Information disclosure * Denial of Service * Elevation of privilege
57
What is '**resilience**' in cybersecurity?
Ability to recover after an attack.
58
What is '**zero trust**'?
* No system, network, or actor is trusted * Verify all access requests
59
What is the principle of **least privilege**?
Users get **only the access they need** to perform their job.
60
What are **role-based access controls**?
Access is assigned **based on user roles**.
61
What is **security by default**?
Systems are configured for security from the outset.
62
What is **defense in depth**?
**Multiple layers** of security across various stages.
63
How does cybersecurity **differ** from privacy?
* **Cybersecurity**: system-focused * **Privacy**: data subject-focused
64
What is the role of the **Chief Privacy Officer** (CPO)?
**Leadership role** developing and implementing privacy policies.
65
What is the role of the **Data Protection Officer** (DPO)?
* Ensure legal compliance * Avoid conflicts of interest * Not involved in processing decisions
66
What does the **Chief Legal Officer** handle?
* **Legal oversight** including privacy * May or may not focus solely on **privacy**
67
What is the responsibility of a **Privacy Engineer**?
Ensure **technical compliance** and support privacy in services and technologies.
68
What are the duties of a **Privacy Manager**?
Develop, maintain, enforce privacy policies; **mid-level role**.
69
What does a **Privacy Analyst** do?
Assess legal/operational risk, help with policy, training; **entry-level role**.
70
What are the **stages** of the **information life cycle**?
* Creation * Use/Process * Storage * Sharing * Deletion
71
**Why** is the data life cycle **important** in privacy?
Certain laws apply to specific stages. ## Footnote E.g., deletion, storage
72
What is a **data inventory**?
Captures the who, what, where, when, why, and how of an organization’s data.
73
What is a **data controller**?
Entity that **determines the purpose and means** of processing data.
74
What is a **data processor**?
Processes data **on behalf of** the controller.
75
What is **data classification**?
Determines the **sensitivity** of data.
76
What is a **data flow diagram**?
A map **showing how data flows** through a system or application.
77
What is **data accountability**?
**Responsibility** for protecting data and complying with ownership requirements.
78
What **protections** are required for **high sensitivity data**?
* Encryption * Separate networks * Firewalls * Access logs
79
What does **RoPA** document?
* Purpose * Recipients * Retention * Controls of processing
80
What are the **goals** of a privacy program?
* Implement framework * Ensure compliance * Promote trust * Respond to requests/breaches * Monitor * Improve maturity
81
What is a **privacy program framework**?
Processes, tools, templates, and standards for managing a privacy program.
82
What are the **four main steps** in a privacy framework?
* Draft mission/vision * Develop framework * Implement framework * Track metrics
83
What is a **mission statement**?
Concise declaration of **organization's purpose** and how goals will be achieved.
84
What is a **vision statement**?
Inspirational depiction of **long-term aspirations** and desired future.
85
Give examples of **privacy program metrics**.
* Data subject requests * Incidents * Disclosures * Training * PIA metrics * ROI * Maturity
86
What are the **four stages** of the **privacy operational life cycle**?
* Assess * Protect * Sustain * Respond
87
What does the '**Assess**' stage involve?
* Document baseline * Identify inventory and risks * Document assessment
88
What does the '**Protect**' stage include?
* Implement privacy/security controls * Review access * Incident response * Integrate privacy into business
89
What does the '**Sustain**' stage focus on?
* Monitor and audit compliance * Train employees * Track regulatory changes
90
What is the focus of the '**Respond**' stage?
* Support customer rights * Handle privacy incidents * Ensure legal compliance
91
What is a **privacy notice**?
External, **public-facing** document informing consumers about data practices.
92
What is a **privacy policy**?
**Internal document** outlining standards and procedures for handling personal data.
93
What are **shared traits** of policies and notices?
* Explain how PII is handled * Can be public
94
What are the **key sections** of a **privacy policy**?
* Purpose * Scope * Applicability * Roles * Compliance * Penalties
95
What are the **steps** in privacy policy **implementation**?
* Review/approval * Communication * Annual review * Archive/version control
96
When is **express affirmative consent** required?
For **material changes in privacy policy**, per FTC guidance.
97
What are the **goals** of a **privacy notice**?
* Help consumers make informed decisions * Provide transparency
98
What should privacy notices include?
* Data collection and use * Retention * Legal basis * Principles
99
**Where** should privacy notices be accessible?
* Online (landing page) * Physically on-site
100
What is a **layered notice**?
Two-part: short summary + full legal text.
101
What is a **just-in-time notice**?
Displayed at or before data collection.
102
What is a **dashboard notice**?
Includes both notice content and user controls.
103
What are **FTC recommendations** for **privacy notices**?
* Privacy by Design * Privacy by Default * Transparency * Simplified choices
104
What is an **opt-in** user preference?
Customer **affirms consent** to share or collect data.
105
What is an **opt-out** user preference?
Customer **affirms refusal** to share or collect data.
106
What is **double/confirmed opt-in**?
Customer signs up **and** confirms via link in verification email.
107
What is '**no consumer choice/option**'?
Data collected **without** giving customer a **choice**.
108
When is 'no consumer choice/option' **acceptable**?
When data use is consistent with transaction context, company relationship, or law.
109
What does **COPPA require** for **opt-in**?
**Parental consent** before collecting data from children.
110
When does **FCRA** require **opt-in**?
**Before sharing** a credit report with employers, lenders, or others.
111
When does **HIPAA** require **opt-in**?
**Before disclosing** personal health information to third parties.
112
What is the **FTC's opt-in** requirement?
For **materially changed** privacy notices.
113
What does **VPPA** require for opt-out?
**Before disclosing** video rental data to third parties.
114
Who must provide opt-out under **CAN-SPAM**?
Email marketers
115
What does the **Do Not Call Rule** regulate?
* Telemarketing calls * Allows opt-out company-by-company
116
What is the **right to access**?
Consumers can **request to view** their personal data/records.
117
What is the **right to redress**?
Consumers can **request corrections** to their personal data/records.
118
What is the **Judicial Redress Act of 2015**?
Allows qualifying non-U.S. persons to sue U.S. agencies to access records.
119
**Who** is responsible for a **vendor's actions** under a privacy policy?
The business contracting the vendor.
120
What are best practices for **paper data disposal**?
Shred, burn.
121
What does the **FACTA Disposal Rule** require?
Dispose of consumer reports to prevent unauthorized access or misuse.
122
What is **vendor vetting**?
**Due diligence** on reputation, financials, security, and incident response.
123
What is **privacy risk**?
**Potential harm** from data collection, use, or processing. ## Footnote Examples: loss of control, discrimination, physical harm, reputational damage, economic loss.
124
What are the **steps in privacy risk management**?
* Identify risk * Select control * Implement control * Monitor continuously
125
What is a **Privacy Impact Assessment**? | (PIA)
Assesses risk, selects controls, ensures legal/policy compliance across data life cycle.
126
How is privacy risk **calculated**?
Risk = Impact x (Vulnerability x Threat)