EOY4 > Extra Paediatrics > Flashcards

Extra Paediatrics Flashcards

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1
Q

Which vaccinations should be given below 2 months old? (4)

A
  • 6 in 1
  • Rotavirus
  • Meng B (2 doses)
  • Pneumococcal PCV
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2
Q

Which vaccinations should be given at 1 years old? (4)

A
  • HIB/ Men C
  • MMR (1st dose)
  • PCV (2nd dose)
  • MenB (3rd dose)
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3
Q

Which vaccinations should be given at 3.5 years old? (2)

A
  • MMR (2nd dose)

- 4 in 1 pre-school booster

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4
Q

Which vaccination should be given between 2 and 10 years old?

A

Flu vaccine every year

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5
Q

Which vaccination should be given between 12 and 13 years old?

A

HPV

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6
Q

Which vaccinations should be given at 14 years old?

A
  • Meningitis ACWY

- 3 in 1 teenage booster

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7
Q

What does the 6 in 1 vaccine protect against?

A

Diptheria

Hepatitis B

Haemophilus Influenza B (HIB) (acute epiglottitis)

Polio

Tetanus

Whooping Cough (pertussis)

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8
Q

What does the 4 in 1 vaccine protect against?

A

Diptheria

Tetanus

Polio

Whooping Cough

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9
Q

What does the HPV vaccine protect against?

A

Human Papillomavirus Strains: 6, 11, 16 and 18

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10
Q

What does the 3 in 1 teenage booster protect against?

A

Diptheria

Tetanus

Polio

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11
Q

What are the contraindications to vaccination?

A

Acute, febrile illness

Allergies to ingredients

Immunodeficiency/compromised - don’t give if primary immunodeficiency or on steroids

BUT GIVE ALL VACCINATIONS EXCEPT TB IF HAVE HIV

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12
Q

Can live vaccinations be given together?

A

Yes, live vaccines should be given together OR separated by > 3 weeks

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13
Q

Describe the rash seen with measles (4)

A

Morbiliform

Erythematous and maculopapular, can become confluent.

Starts specifically behind ears and then spreads to body

Kloplik’s Spots

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14
Q

Describe the onset of the rash seen with measles

A
  • Prodromal Phase = 10-14 days after exposure

Kloplik’s Spots at end of prodromal phase

Symptoms for 2-4 days before rash

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15
Q

For how long should a child with measles be kept off school?

A

5 days after onset of rash

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16
Q

What are the other features associated with measles? (3)

A

Fever above 39 degrees

Coryzal symptoms

Conjunctivitis

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17
Q

What is the management of measles? (4)

A

Supportive as self limiting

Avoid contact with vulnerable people e.g. pregnant

Notifiable disease

MMR vaccine for prevention

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18
Q

What are the complications of measles? (4)

A

Otitis Media

Pneumonia

Encephalitis

Febrile seizures

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19
Q

How does mumps present?

A

Parotid swelling, usually bilateral

Prodromal malaise

Fever

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20
Q

What is the management of mumps?

A

Supportive as self limiting

MMR vaccine

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21
Q

What are 3 potential complications of mumps?

A
  • Orchitis +/- infertility
  • Arthritis
  • Pancreatitis
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22
Q

Describe the rash associated with Rubella

A

Pink, maculopapular

Initially on face then spreads to body then fades after 3 days

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23
Q

What is the onset of the rash associated with Rubella?

A

2-3 weeks after infection

Rash lasts 5 days normally

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24
Q

How long should a child with Rubella be kept off school for?

A

4 days after rash appears

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25
What are the associated symptoms of Rubella?
Arthralgia Suboccipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy Coryzal symptoms
26
What is the management of Rubella?
Supportive Notifiable disease MMR Vaccine Avoid pregnant women + contact tracing Avoid contact with vulnerable people
27
What is the triad of complications seen with Rubella?
Heart disease (PDA) Congenital cataracts Sensorineural hearing loss (triangle on a baby
28
Describe the rash associated with Varicella Zoster?
Chickenpox Small macules over head, trunk and proximal limbs Becomes vesicular and is ITCHY Then crusts over
29
What is the onset of the rash associated with varicella zoster?
Has a prodrome Rash progresses over 12-14 hours Crusting = 5 days after onset
30
What is the management of varicella zoster virus?
Manage symptoms e.g. calamine lotion/chloramphenamine if >1yo Oral Aciclovir if >14 yo
31
What is the causative organism of scarlet fever?
Group A Streptococcus
32
Describe the rash associated with scarlet fever?
Erythematous, blanching rash on abdomen and chest Punctate, rough and sandpapery Particularly visible in skin folds
33
Describe the onset of the rash associated with scarlet fever
Rash appears 12-48 hours after initial symptoms
34
What are the other symptoms of scarlet fever?
Strawberry tongue Cervical lymphadenopathy Pharyngitis Fever (<38.3)
35
What is the management of scarlet fever?
Notifiable disease Phenoxymethylpenicillin (GAS) Symptom management
36
What is the causative organism of hand, foot and mouth disease?
Coxsackie A16 Virus
37
Describe the rash seen with hand, foot and mouth disease
Ulcers within the oral cavity Macules and papules on dorsum of hands and heel margins
38
Describe the onset of the rash seen with hand, foot and mouth disease
Prodrome of 12-36 hours Mouth ulcers come first Hands and feet follow
39
What are the associated symptoms of HFMD?
Sore throat Low grade fever
40
What is the management of HFMD?
Supportive Can attend school (enterovirus as faecal-oral)
41
Describe the rash seen with Parvovirus B19?
Erythematous Looks like ‘slapped cheek’
42
What is the onset of the rash associated with parvovirus B19?
Prodromal phase = 2-5 days Rash lasts 1-2 weeks
43
What are the associated symptoms with Parvovirus B19?
- Myalgia - Low grade fever - Runny nose
44
What is the management of Parvovirus B19?
Supportive Avoid pregnant ladies Follow up for FBC (susceptible individuals at risk of aplastic anaemia – get pancytopaenia)
45
What is the causative organism of Roseola Infantum?
Human Herpes Virus 6
46
Describe the rash seen with Roseola Infantum
Cranial erythema (like a halo) Erythematous and maculopapular and on trunk.
47
Describe the onset of Roseola Infantum
Fever appears then goes away and then gets rash = often misdiagnosed
48
What are the associated symptoms of Roseola Infantum?
Really, really hot >40 – RoseohmygoditsHOT Febrile seizures are v common
49
What are the management and complications of Roseola Infantum?
Supportive management Encephalitis is a complication and can use antivirals in this case
50
What is the main complication of scarlet fever to be worried about and why?
Post-strep glomerulonephritis (most common cause of AKI in kids) Can be caused by any group A strep If a child has urinary symptoms ask about recent infections
51
What is other main complication of scarlet fever and how is this managed?
Rheumatic fever and therefore acquired valvular disorders Give empirical abx (pen v)
52
What is the Jones' Criteria for Rheumatic Fever?
J oints = Arthritis O (heart) = Cardiac Disease N odules = rheumatic E rythema Marginatum (target rash) S yndenhams Chorea ( sudden onset jerky movements and confusion)
53
What is a worrying complication of Parvovirus B19 in vulnerable individuals and why?
Can cause aplastic crisis Affects reticulocytes (RBC precursor cells) Bad for SCD/thalassaemia/haemaglobinopathy/G6PD as knocks out reticulocytes
54
Why should children infected with parvovirus B19 avoid pregnant women?
Can cross the placenta and infect susceptible babies = miscarriage
55
When should premature babies be vaccinated?
Should receive their routine vaccinations according to chronological age; there should be no correcting for gestational age. Born prior to 28 weeks gestation should receive their first set of immunisations at hospital due to risk of apnoea.
56
Define a febrile convulsion
A single, tonic-clonic, symmetrical and generalised seizure lasting <15mins Peak age is 6 months - 5 years
57
Why do febrile convulsions occur?
↑temperature, usually during the early stages of a viral infection. There is no intracranial infection Child is otherwise normal but there is a 1-2% chance they will go on to develop epilepsy
58
What advice should be given to the parent of a child who has had a febrile seizure?
Reassurance Advice to give paracetamol/ibuprofen early in illness Advice to put child in recovery position Still drowsy after 1 hour is not normal and requires medical attention
59
What is the acute management of a epilepsy in children?
Lasts > 5mins = emergency ambulance OR Buccal Midazolam as rescue therapy if the seizure lasts >5mins and has been recommended by a specialist. Then wait 10 mins and call an ambulance after if hasn't stopped
60
What is a reflex anoxic seizure?
Seizure following cyanosis due to high emotional stimulation (provoked) ⇢ breath holding Sleep for ~30 mins after and usually grow out of
61
Which cancer is most common in children?
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
62
Which children are more at risk of ALL?
Trisomy 21/Down's syndrome
63
What is the typical epidemiology of ALL in children?
Affects children of all ages but the main peak is between 2-5 years old Boys > Girls
64
Describe the clinical presentation of ALL in children
Insidious presentation and depends on where is infiltrated: Differential Diagnosis Bruising = ITP, trauma, non-accidental injury Recurrent infections = immunocompromised Lymphadenopathy = Reactive + hx of infection Pancytopenia = other malignancy or aplastic anaemiaGeneral = fatigue and malaise Bone Marrow = Bone Pain Pancytopenia Anaemia = pallor Neutropenia = ↑infections Thrombocytopenia = epistaxis, brusing, petechiae Reticulo-Endothelial System - precursors settle in these tissues Hepatosplenomegaly Lymphadenopathy
65
Give 4 differentials for ALL and how they might present
Bruising = ITP, trauma, non-accidental injury Recurrent infections = immunocompromised Lymphadenopathy = Reactive + hx of infection Pancytopenia = other malignancy or aplastic anaemia
66
Which blood tests should be done if ALL is suspected?
FBC Pancytopenia: low Haemaglobin (anaemia), WBC (neutropenia) and platelets (thrombocytopenia) OR Anaemia + lymphocytosis Blood Film Presence of blast cells
67
What imaging/invasive tests should be done if ALL is suspected?
Bone Marrow aspirate is needed to diagnose CXR - exclude a mediastinal mass (may obstruct airway) LP is CNS is involved
68
What is the acute management of ALL in children?
Stabilise patient - blood transfusion, abx, platelets ?TLS protection ?Steroids if mediastinal mass present
69
What is the long term management of ALL in children?
Combination Chemo + steroid Supportive care - platelets + red cells Prophylactic antifungals - prevents Pneumocystis Pneumonia
70
Why give Allopurinol/Rasburicase in tumour lysis syndrome?
Rapid cell lysis = hyperuricaemia Allopurinol prevents Uric Acid formation by acting on Xanthine Oxidase so prevents hyperuricaemia SO prevents kidneys from rapid cell lysis Rasburicase = urate oxidase so converts uric acid to allantoin = more easily excreted
71
Define hypersensitivity
The objectively reproducible symptoms or signs following exposure to a specific stimulus at a dose that is tolerated by a normal person
72
What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reaction and the antibodies that mediate them
I = A - Acute or Allergy. IgE mediated II = B - AntiBody - IgG or IgM mediated III = C - immune Complex (depositions of antibody-antigen complexes) VI = D = Days/Delayed - Cell-mediated by T cells and Macrophages
73
Define allergy
A hypersensitivity reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms leading to disease. Can be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated
74
Define atopy
A personal or familial tendency to produce IgE in response to ordinary exposure to potential allergens
75
Define anaphylaxis
A severe, potentially life threatening generalised or systemic hypersensitivity reaction. The onset is rapid and has a multi system involvement (airway/breathing/ circulation + skin/mucosal changes)
76
Give 4 examples of IgE mediated allergies
Anaphylaxis Urticaria Acute Asthma Acute Rhinitis
77
Give 3 examples of non-IgE mediated allergies
Coeliac Disease Contact Dermatitis Dermatitis herpetiformis
78
Describe the main differences between IgE and non-IgE mediated allergies
IgE = Acute onset + fast resolution with SPECIFIC symptoms Non-IgE = Longer onset post ingestion, symptoms are NON-SPECIFIC
79
How does a food intolerance occur?
No immunological mechanism behind it Lack of enzyme to digest Sensitivity to additives e.g. sulphites Psychological stress response to a certain food
80
What happens during sensitisation (first stage of allergy timeline)?
Antigen taken up by APCs (macrophage or dendritic cell) and presented to T cellss T cells become TH2s and release interleukines ILs activate Eosinophils and cause B cell class switching to produce specific IgE IgE can attach to mast cells
81
What happens during the early part of the second stage of the allergy timeline?
IgE attaches to mast cells = degranulation Histamine, protease/tryptase and leukotriene release
82
What happens during the late part of the second stage of the allergy timeline?
TH2, eosinophils and basophils etc are recruited to the site of exposure More immune cells are therefore attracted even after the allergen has gone
83
What are the long term investigations for allergy?
Bloods Skin Prick Test Immunoassay - Western Blot/ELISA that are specific for IgE
84
What is the long term, conservative management for allergy?
Patient/Parent = Allergy Education (avoidance of food/cross allergens) and an Allergy Plan/ ID Clinician = Risk Assessment and consider an Adrenaline Auto-Injector (AAI) + give information on biphasic response*. Give info on support websites Involve dietician and allergy nurse
85
What is the long term medical management for allergy?
Adrenaline Auto-Injector Immunomodulation/glucocorticoids?
86
What is the MOA for adrenaline during anaphylaxis?
QISS QIQ At normal concentrations, adrenaline has a higher affinity for β2 adrenoceptors than for α1 receptors At higher concentrations i.e. therapeutic dose it also activates α1 This causes: Bronchodilation via stimulation of B2 adrenoceptors Vasoconstriction (and therefore increasing BP as peripheral vascular resistance increases) via stimulation of A1 adrenoceptors
87
Give 3 indications for adrenaline
Anaphylaxis/angioedema +/- circulatory involvement Acute hypotension Can be nebulised for treatment of Croup (if not managed with corticosteroids)
88
Give 4 indications for 1 Adrenaline Auto-Injector
Allergy to high risk foods e.g. nuts (does this mean you????) Previous Hx of anaphylaxis Idiopathic anaphylaxis Moderate - severe asthma + food allergy
89
Give 5 indications for a second Adrenaline Auto-injector
Moderate - severe asthma + food allergy Can’t get to hospital easily e.g. live very rural Have concurrent mast cell disease Previous history of anaphylaxis + more than 1 dose adrenaline needed Previous near death anaphylaxis
90
When should a child with a fever be admitted? (5)
Temp >38 >5 days in duration <3 months Non-blanching rash Bulging fontanell
91
What characterises nephrotic syndrome?
Triad of: Proteinuria Hypoalbuminaemia Oedema
92
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Minimal change glomerulonephritis + hyperlipidaemia + hyper coagulable state + predisposition to infections
93
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in children?
Autoimmune thyroiditis
94
What are the Fraser guidelines?
Guidelines that are used to assess if a patient who has not yet reached 16 years of age is competent to consent to treatment, e.g. contraceptions
95
What are the 5 components of the Fraser guidelines?
- Understands professional advice - Can't be persuaded to inform parents/professional can inform parents - Likely to begin/continue to have sex anyway regardless - Physical/mental health will suffer without the contraception - Best interests require the contraception
96
Does a 16 year old person have capacity to consent?
Yes if 16+ under can also have capacity if they can understand what is involved
97
What happens if the parent does not consent but the child (~14-16) does consent?
Do what the child wants but get it in writing
98
What happens if a competent child does not consent to treatment?
The person with parental responsibility/the court can authorise the treatment if it is within the best interests of the child (unless you're in Scotland but good thing you aren't)
99
What is the pathophysiology of a slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Growth of the femur occurs at the end of the bone around the developing cartilage surrounding the growth plate (physis = metaphysis = widened shaft + epiphysis = end of bone) SUFE = epiphysis is displaced posteroinferiorly and therefore moves off the physis which is weaker and underdeveloped
100
How does a SUFE normally present?
Fat boys aged 10-16 Normally unilateral but 20% = bilateral Pain in: Hip, ant thigh, groin +/- knee Loss of internal rotation Stable can usually weight bear but unstable cannot
101
What is the difference between a stable and unstable SUFE?
LODER classification ``` stable = can walk with or without crutches unstable = cannot walk no matter what + higher risk of complications ```
102
What are the complications of a SUFE?
Epiphyseal slip progresses = early osteoarthritis Avascular necrosis of the femoral head Malunion = poor growth?
103
What is the pathophysiology behind perthes disease?
Interruption of the blood supply to the femoral head leading to avascular necrosis Some self healing after initial ischaemia and subsequent remodelling of the bone = distortion and abnormally shaped epiphysis Leads to abnormal ossification
104
Describe the blood supply to the femoral head
Intracapsular = medial femoral circumflex Extracapsular = ?
105
What are the investigations and definitive treatment of a SUFE?
Ix = Frog leg lateral x-ray of BOTH hips Tx = Surgery. Internal fixation of the affected hip
106
What is the presentation of Perthes' Disease?
Boys aged 3-11 Usually unilateral but 15% are bilateral Pain = hip, knee + limp. Pain is worsened by activity and relieved by rest Limited internal rotation and abduction
107
What is the management of Perthes' Disease?
Hip Xray - widening of joint space + reduced femoral head that is also flattened Self limiting so just focus on symptom reduction
108
What is osteomyelitis and what is the pathophysiology in children?
Infection within the bone that either spreads: Haematogenously (acute) e.g. staph aureus, GBS, E. Coli, Secondary to nearby infections/vascular disease or directly from trauma/surgery e.g. staph aureus Pus lifts the periosteum which interrupts blood supply leading to the formation of necrotic fragments
109
What is the most common causative agent of osteomyelitis in children with sickle cell disease?
Salmonella
110
Which bones are more at risk of osteomyelitis?
Highly vascular ones e.g. long bone metaphases like the distal femur
111
What is the presentation of osteomyelitis?
Gradual pain + warm, swollen erythematous joint + systemic signs of infection
112
What are the investigations for osteomyelitis?
Bed - baseline obs for A to E Bloods - FBC, blood culture, CRP Imaging - Diagnosis confirmation = MRI but changes don't show for ~12 days
113
What is the treatment for osteomyelitis?
Conservative Medical = 6 weeks of abx! Vancomycin + Cefotaxime until culture is known Surgical = abscess drainage/removal of sequestra
114
What are the causes of anaemia in children that have a LOW reticulocyte count?
Parvovirus B19 (slapped cheek) so do serology Diamond Blackfan (v v v v v rare) BM aspirate?
115
What are the causes of anaemic children that have a HIGH reticulocyte? How can they be further classified?
Raised bilirubin = haemolysis (Membrane disorder = h. spherocytosis, Enzyme disorder = G6PD, Haemaglobinopathy = SCD, thallassaemia) Normal bilirubin = Blood loss (acute = fetomaternal, chronic = VWB, Meckels), Impaired production = Fe/Folate - coeliac/IBD/B12 - vegan mother deficiency)
116
What are the risk factors for anaemia in children?
NM = Age (adolescent females), a baby from a multiple pregnancy M = Delayed intro of iron containing foods, poor diet (poverty, veganism), preterm, LBW
117
What is the management of anaemia in children?
Oral Fe supplements for 3 months Max 200mg per day in 2-3 divided doses Don't take with milk/tea/eggs/chappatis Take with OJ as vitamin C increases iron intake
118
What is the definition of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?
A type of thrombocytopenic purpura defined as an isolated LOW platelet count with a NORMAL bone marrow in the absence of other causes of low platelets. Platelets are destroyed by IgG
119
What are the definitions of mild, moderate and severe thrombocytopenia?
``` Mild = Platelet levels between 50-150 Moderate = 20-50 + increased risk of bleeding in surgery or trauma Severe = <20 + increased risk of spontaneous bleeding ```
120
What is the usual presentation of ITP?
Age 2-10 years 1-2 weeks after a viral illness Petechiael rash/purpuric/bleeding/bruising/epistaxis V rarely = intracranial haemorrhage
121
What are the investigations that should be done for a child presenting with ITP?
Mainly a clinical diagnosis but want to rule out ALL Bloods = FBC and blood film to rule out malignancy. Also serology e.g. viral, autoimmune, Anti-platelet if non-accidental injury suspected BM aspirate if abnormal signs/steroids part of management
122
What is the treatment for acute ITP?
Conservative = self limiting but avoid NSAIDs and contact sports as these prevent platelet aggregation. Give 24hr access to hospital Medical = Oral prednisolone/IV Anti-D/ IVIG if significant bleeding or affecting QOL
123
What is the treatment for chronic ITP?
Counted as low platelets after 6 months Screen for SLE and follow medical management
124
What is Henoch Schonlein Purpura? What type of hypersensitivity reaction is it?
An acute immune complex-medicated reaction (small vessel vasculitis) so is type 3 hypersensitivity
125
What is the common presentation of HSP?
Rash = purpuric + blanching Arthralgia = usually knees/ankles Abdominal pain More common in girls Preceding URTI
126
What are the bedside and blood tests to investigate HSP?
ESR, U&E (renal involvement is common), IgA Urinalysis = proteinuria BP
127
What is the management of HSP?
Self limiting so supportive Can give steroids but not usually Important thing is detection and prevention of CKD so need follow up urinalysis for ~8 weeks
128
How could a migraine present in a child?
Bilateral/frontal headache lasting 1-48hr Nausea and vomiting any 2 of photophobia, phonophobia, visual/sensory aura, +/- vertigo/abdo pain Made worse by physical activity
129
What is the acute management of migraine in a child?
Paracetamol/Ibuprofen Domperidone for nausea or sumatriptan if >12
130
WHAT IS the prophylactic management of migraine in a child? When would this be started?
3 month trial of pizotifen then propranolol if that doesn't work Disrupting school/social activity on a regular basis also work on stress management/sleep/triggers
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