module11/12pharm

Question 1

What are the benefits of estrogen therapy?

Answer 1

Decreases vasomotor symptoms, improves vaginal dryness, prevents bone loss.

Question 2

What is a major risk of estrogen therapy?

Answer 2

Increased risk of thromboembolism and certain cancers.

Question 3

When is estrogen-only therapy used?

Answer 3

In women without a uterus (hysterectomy).

Question 4

When is combination estrogen/progestin therapy used?

Answer 4

In women with a uterus to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.

Question 5

Why must progestin be added for women with a uterus?

Answer 5

Prevents endometrial cancer risk from unopposed estrogen.

Question 6

What are common adverse effects of estrogen?

Answer 6

Nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, headache, clot risk.

Question 7

What are advantages of transdermal estrogen?

Answer 7

Lower VTE risk, avoids first-pass metabolism, more stable levels.

Question 8

MOA of combined oral contraceptives?

Answer 8

Inhibit ovulation (suppress LH/FSH), thicken cervical mucus, thin endometrium.

Question 9

Most effective reversible contraception?

Answer 9

LARCs (IUD, implants).

Question 10

Absolute contraindication to combined OCs?

Answer 10

Smoking >35 yrs, history of DVT/PE, estrogen-dependent cancer, migraines with aura.

Question 11

What to do if 1 combined pill is missed?

Answer 11

Take ASAP + next pill at normal time.

Question 12

What to do if ≥2 pills missed?

Answer 12

Take one ASAP, use backup contraception x 7 days.

Question 13

Emergency contraception MOA?

Answer 13

Delays ovulation.

Question 14

When is Plan B most effective?

Answer 14

Within 72 hours.

Question 15

What does testosterone therapy treat?

Answer 15

Hypogonadism, delayed puberty, muscle wasting.

Question 16

What is contraindication for testosterone therapy?

Answer 16

Prostate or breast cancer.

Question 17

What labs must be monitored in testosterone therapy?

Answer 17

PSA, LFTs, Hgb/Hct.

Question 18

Why must men on sildenafil be screened for cardiac disease?

Answer 18

Because sexual activity increases cardiac workload.

Question 19

Sildenafil contraindicated with which drug?

Answer 19

Nitrates (causes fatal hypotension).

Question 20

MOA of tamsulosin?

Answer 20

Alpha-1 blocker: relaxes prostate & bladder neck.

Question 21

MOA of finasteride?

Answer 21

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor → shrinks prostate over months.

Question 22

Which BPH class works faster?

Answer 22

Alpha-1 blockers (tamsulosin).

Question 23

Which BPH class reduces PSA?

Answer 23

Finasteride.

Question 24

Vitamin D deficiency symptoms?

Answer 24

Bone pain, muscle weakness.

Question 25

Vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms?

Answer 25

Neuropathy, anemia, memory issues.

Question 26

Alcoholics are deficient in which vitamins?

Answer 26

Thiamine, folate, B6.

Question 27

When to prescribe folic acid?

Answer 27

Pregnancy, alcohol misuse, documented deficiency.

Question 28

Symptoms of vitamin A toxicity?

Answer 28

Liver injury, hair loss, teratogenicity.

Question 29

MOA of Orlistat?

Answer 29

Blocks fat absorption in GI tract.

Question 30

Adverse effect of Orlistat?

Answer 30

Oily stools, fecal incontinence.

Question 31

Contraindication for Orlistat?

Answer 31

Chronic malabsorption, cholestasis.

Question 32

MOA of Phentermine?

Answer 32

Sympathomimetic appetite suppressant.

Question 33

Qsymia (phentermine/topiramate) major warning?

Answer 33

Teratogenic.

Question 34

Contraindication for weight loss medications in pregnancy?

Answer 34

All anti-obesity medications are contraindicated.

Question 35

St. John’s Wort interaction?

Answer 35

Induces CYP450 → reduces effectiveness of many drugs (OCPs, warfarin).

Question 36

Harmful effects of Ma Huang (ephedra)?

Answer 36

Stroke, MI, arrhythmias.

Question 37

Harmful supplement linked to liver failure?

Answer 37

Kava.

Question 38

Define "complementary therapy."

Answer 38

Used *alongside* conventional medicine.

Question 39

Define "alternative therapy."

Answer 39

Used *instead of* conventional medicine.

Question 40

When should DMARDs be started for RA?

Answer 40

ASAP after diagnosis.

Question 41

First-line DMARD for RA?

Answer 41

Methotrexate.

Question 42

Methotrexate teaching?

Answer 42

Weekly dosing, folic acid supplementation, avoid pregnancy.

Question 43

Serious AE of methotrexate?

Answer 43

Hepatotoxicity, bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity.

Question 44

Labs before starting methotrexate?

Answer 44

CBC, LFTs, creatinine.

Question 45

Etanercept MOA?

Answer 45

TNF-alpha inhibitor.

Question 46

Why test for TB before starting etanercept?

Answer 46

TNF inhibitors can activate latent TB.

Question 47

What causes gout?

Answer 47

Hyperuricemia → uric acid crystal deposition.

Question 48

Drug for acute gout?

Answer 48

NSAIDs, colchicine.

Question 49

Drug for chronic gout prevention?

Answer 49

Allopurinol.

Question 50

Allopurinol serious AE?

Answer 50

Hypersensitivity syndrome (SJS/TEN).

Question 51

Probenecid MOA?

Answer 51

Increases uric acid excretion.

Question 52

Avoid which drugs with colchicine?

Answer 52

CYP3A4 inhibitors (statins, macrolides).

Question 53

First-line drugs for osteoporosis?

Answer 53

Bisphosphonates (alendronate).

Question 54

Alendronate teaching?

Answer 54

Take on empty stomach, remain upright 30 min.

Question 55

Prolia (denosumab) administration?

Answer 55

SQ every 6 months.

Question 56

Who should not receive Prolia?

Answer 56

Hypocalcemia.

Question 57

Teriparatide MOA?

Answer 57

PTH analog → increases bone formation.

Question 58

Drug used for Paget's disease?

Answer 58

Calcitonin or bisphosphonates.

Question 59

Common SE of calcitonin?

Answer 59

Nasal irritation.

Question 60

Timolol MOA?

Answer 60

Beta-blocker → decreases aqueous humor production.

Question 61

Latanoprost MOA?

Answer 61

Increases aqueous humor outflow.

Question 62

SE of latanoprost?

Answer 62

Eyelash growth, brown iris pigmentation.

Question 63

Teaching for glaucoma drops?

Answer 63

Punctal occlusion to reduce systemic absorption.

Question 64

Treatment for AOM?

Answer 64

Amoxicillin.

Question 65

Treatment for AOE?

Answer 65

Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone otic.

Question 66

Treatment for otomycosis?

Answer 66

Antifungal ear drops (clotrimazole).

Question 67

First-line treatment for mild acne?

Answer 67

Benzoyl peroxide.

Question 68

First-line for moderate acne?

Answer 68

Retinoid + antibiotic.

Question 69

Severe acne treatment?

Answer 69

Isotretinoin.

Question 70

IPLEDGE requirement?

Answer 70

Prevent pregnancy due to isotretinoin teratogenicity.

Question 71

Tretinoin treats which wrinkles?

Answer 71

Fine wrinkles (not deep).

Question 72

Contraindication for isotretinoin?

Answer 72

Pregnancy, liver disease.

Question 73

Mupirocin use?

Answer 73

Impetigo, MRSA decolonization.

Question 74

Ciprofloxacin otic is used for?

Answer 74

Bacterial otitis externa.

Question 75

What is a common AE of TNF inhibitors like etanercept?

Answer 75

Increased infection risk.

Question 76

What must be avoided while on methotrexate?

Answer 76

Alcohol & pregnancy.

Question 77

What must be corrected before starting denosumab?

Answer 77

Hypocalcemia.

Question 78

Who are good candidates for bisphosphonates?

Answer 78

Postmenopausal women with T-score ≤ –2.5.

Question 79

What is contraindication for alendronate?

Answer 79

Esophageal disorders.

Question 80

How to diagnose gout?

Answer 80

Joint aspiration with uric acid crystals.

Question 81

What foods should gout patients avoid?

Answer 81

Purine-rich foods (red meat, seafood).

Question 82

What supplement improves anemia in pregnancy?

Answer 82

Iron + folate.

Question 83

Which patients need vitamin B12 supplementation?

Answer 83

Vegans, bariatric surgery, pernicious anemia.

Question 84

What supplement reduces neural tube defects?

Answer 84

Folic acid.

Question 85

What is the BBW for testosterone?

Answer 85

May worsen BPH or prostate cancer.

Question 86

What is BBW for estrogen?

Answer 86

Increased VTE, stroke, breast cancer.

Question 87

What is BBW for progestins?

Answer 87

Increased CV events when combined with estrogen.

Question 88

Botox MOA?

Answer 88

Blocks acetylcholine release → muscle relaxation.

Question 89

What labs to monitor with allopurinol?

Answer 89

LFTs, renal function.

Question 90

What is first-line for postmenopausal osteoporosis?

Answer 90

Bisphosphonates.

Question 91

Why avoid nasal calcitonin long term?

Answer 91

Limited fracture benefit.

Question 92

What is the main early AE of isotretinoin?

Answer 92

Dry skin/lips.

Question 93

What is counseling point for benzoyl peroxide?

Answer 93

Can bleach fabrics.

Question 94

Preferred vaginal estrogen form?

Answer 94

For patients with isolated vaginal atrophy.

Question 95

Why use transdermal estrogen in high-risk patients?

Answer 95

Lower clot risk.

Question 96

What does phentermine increase?

Answer 96

Sympathetic activity (HR/BP).

Question 97

Who should not use phentermine?

Answer 97

Patients with uncontrolled hypertension.

Question 98

What should patients avoid after taking alendronate?

Answer 98

Lying down.

Question 99

What is the main risk of untreated glaucoma?

Answer 99

Irreversible vision loss.

Question 100

What should patient avoid with sildenafil?

Answer 100

Nitrates & high-fat meals (delay absorption).