Part 91 Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

What documents must be carried for each flight crew member?

7 things

A

Medical certificate
flight crew license
passport or photographic ID
AFM
operating instructions for computerized navigation systems
MEL for A/C

EX81/21 specifies the requirements for the ID to be current and issued within 10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Under what circumstances are flight crew members not required to carry certain documents?

A

When performing aerobatic maneuvers if carrying the documents presents a risk to the aircraft or its occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What documents must be carried for certain flights according to regulation 91.110?

A

Authorized aeronautical information, aircraft flight technical log or maintenance release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the exceptions to carrying documents for specific flights?

3 things

A

Operating under VFR by day within 50 NM of departure aerodrome

inside a flying training area

or on a route to/from a flying training area not adjacent to its aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can documents be carried in electronic form?

A

Yes, a document required to be carried on a flight may be carried as a copy in electronic form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When must an aircraft operate in accordance with the AFM?

A

The earlier of the time the aircraft’s doors are closed before T/O, or the A/C moves under its own power for take-off, to

The later of the time the aircraft’s doors are opened after landing or the aircraft comes to a rest after being airborne.

Must ensure that any activity in relation to the flight or operation, whether occurring before during or after the flight, is conducted in a way that meets each requirement or limitation for the activity in the AFM (EX81/21).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is required when carrying cargo if there is more than one flight crew member on board?

A

Cargo must be loaded so that a crew member can reach all parts of the compartment with a fire extinguisher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the maximum weight for cargo on an unoccupied seat?

A

77kg, unless the seat manufacturer allows a greater weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who must give permission for an animal to be brought onto an aircraft?

A

The pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Under what conditions can a firearm be carried?

A

An aircraft below 5700kg only with the consent of the pilot or operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the airspeed limits for all flights?

A

Class C, VFR - Below 10,000’ AMSL 250kts.
Class D, IFR or VFR - 250kts or 200 kts if at or below 2500’ AAL within 4nm of aerodrome
Class G/E, IFR or VFR - same as Class C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What speed must VFR flights not exceed?

A

Transonic or supersonic speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

VMC distance from cloud and vis requirements

A

All Airspace but D at or above 10,000’ - 1.5km horizontal, 1000’ vertical, 8km vis
All airspace but D below 10,000’ - 1.5km horizontal, 1000’ vertical, 5 km vis
Class G - same as CAA.
Class D - 1000’ vertical above cloud, 500’ below. 5km vis. Horizontal separation from cloud - 600m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is required for a special VFR clearance?

A

Day only, on request, keep clear of cloud, and 1600m visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Class A airspace restricted to?

A

IFR only airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the basic rule during a flight entail?

A

A flight crew member must maintain vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the right-of-way rules? 5 things

A
  1. Aircraft in an emergency - everyone gives way
  2. Aircraft is landing - all must give way
  3. Two heavier-than-air aircraft are on approach to land. The higher aircraft gives way, unless it is in the final stages of its approach to land.
    Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft gives way to the unpowered glider.
  4. Aircraft overtaking must give way to the aircraft being overtaken
  5. Two aircraft on converging headings - aircraft that has the other aircraft on its right must give way.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Right-of-way rules descending order 6

A

balloon
parachute
unpowered glider
airship
aircraft towing
power-driven aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is prohibited during take-off or landing regarding collision risk?

A

Flying in a way that creates a risk of collision with another aircraft, person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What actions should be taken if the radio becomes inoperative near an aerodrome?

A

Join the circuit on crosswind or downwind leg, switch on landing lights, anti-collision lights, and SSR transponder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must be done if the radio fails during a flight in Class G or Class E airspace?

A

Select 7600 on the transponder, remain outside controlled airspace, and transmit blind, broadcast position and intentions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What must be done if the radio fails during a flight in Class A, B, C, or D airspace or IFR in any airspace?

A

Select 7600.
Assume the radio is functioning and broadcasting position and intentions on the frequency prescribed in the AAI (authorised aeronautical information).
If the aircraft is in VMC and certain of maintaining VMC, remain in VMC and land at the most suitable aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the fuel requirements according to regulation 91.455?

A

Must comply with fuel requirements set out in the MOS, including monitoring fuel quantity and determining necessary fuel amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MOS definitions of Final reserve fuel and Contigency fuel.

A

MTOW<5700kg
VFR - 30 mins
NVFR and IFR - 45 mins

Turbojet >5700kg - 30 mins 5% contingency
piston >5700kg - 45 mins 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the minimum amount of usable fuel required at the commencement of a flight MOS 19.04
TTHDCA Taxi fuel, trip fuel, destination alternate fuel (if required), holding fuel (if required), contingency fuel (if required), final reserve fuel (if required), additional fuel (if required).
26
Procedures for determining fuel before flight and fuel monitoring during a flight
You must ensure that the amount of usable fuel onboard the aircraft is determined before the flight commences.
27
What must you do if in-flight fuel is predicted to be below the required on landing?MOS 19.06):
Consider ATC/operational conditions at destination, alternate(s), and en-route alternate(s), then divert to an aerodrome where MOS 19.04 fuel requirements can be met.
28
What is the regulation regarding the operation of equipment or electronic devices near aircraft during fuelling?
A person must not operate equipment or an electronic device within 15m of a critical fuelling point.
29
What is required for persons on board during fuelling with highly volatile fuel? vs non-volatile
Only crew members may be onboard, boarding, or disembarking for volatile Pax can be onboard, boarding or disembarking if the pilot or the operator has approval to do so. non volatile
30
What are the key requirements for forecasts in flight planning (MOS 7.02)?
Must study weather for route, departure, destination & alternates. If obtained >1 hr before departure → must update. Forecast must cover whole flight. Must include wind/temp: * ≤10,000 ft → GAF/GAMET * >10,000 ft → SIGWX * Any ops → flight forecast Aerodrome forecasts must be valid 30 min before to 60 min after ETA. Wind/temp data can come from charts, NAIPS, or approved systems.
31
What is required if no authorised weather forecast is available before departure?
You may depart if reasonably considering the weather conditions will allow a safe return within 1 hour; must return if no forecast is obtained within 30 minutes after take-off.
32
When must you nominate a destination alternate (MOS 8.04 / CASR 91.235)?
If ETA ±30 min has any of: Cloud: more than SCT below alternate minima Visibility: less alternate minima, or equal to or more then alternate minima but with a forecast of at least a PROB30 of <8 km due to fog/mist/dust/etc. Wind: exceeds aircraft limits (head/cross/tailwind). Thunderstorms/severe turbulence: forecast or PROB30.
33
When must you nominate an alternate if planning with a TAF3 or ICAO landing forecast? A: If destination weather conditions (cloud, vis, wind, TS/turb) are below minima at ETA.
ETA must be within the first 3 hours of TAF3 validity (and before the end time). Ignore PROB conditions. No ±30 min buffer needed — only conditions at ETA count.
34
When is the nomination of a destination alternate not required?
VFR by day within 50 nm of departure. OR If Wx exist that requires an alternate, but you ensure enough fuel is carried to permit the aircraft to hold at ADES until 30 mins after end of the forecasted wx OR If AD contains INTER/TEMPO in which an alternate is required, but you have enough fuel to permit the aircraft to hold for 30 mins for INTER, 60 for TEMPO. Multiple of either, fuel for holding must be for the most limiting requirement - 60 mins
35
What must be nominated if a forecast required for a planned destination is not available? And What is alternate met minima at aerodromes
A destination alternate aerodrome must be nominated. Day and night 1,500ft, 8km vis
36
What does a forecast including the change indicator BECMG indicate?
Deteriorating conditions commence at the start of the BECMG period, improving conditions at the end.
37
What is the buffer period applied to forecast weather conditions?
Except within the first 3 hours of a TAF3 or when using an ICAO landing forecast, the application of a 30-minute buffer to the beginning and the end of forecast weather conditions that require a destination alternate or carriage of holding fuel also applies to any INTER, TEMPO or BECMG period.
38
When must a destination alternate be within 1 hour for NVFR?
Always, unless: Destination has a ground-based nav aid, and you’re competent to use it, or Aircraft has approved GNSS and you’re competent to use it.
39
What is required if landing at night at an aerodrome with only portable runway lighting?
Nominate a destination alternate aerodrome unless reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to: Attend the aerodrome during the period from at least 30 minutes before the ETA, to completion of landing and taxiing, and: Display the portable lighting.
40
What conditions allow a flight to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting but without standby power?
Nominate a destination alternate unless portable runway lights are available and reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to: Attend the aerodrome during landing and taxiing, and display the portable lighting in the event of a failure of the primary lighting.
41
What are the conditions for using a pilot-activated lighting (PAL) system at night?
Nominate a destination alternate unless reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to: Attend the aerodrome during landing and taxiing, and: Manually switch on the runway lighting in the event of a failure of the PAL.
42
What are the criteria for nominating a destination alternate aerodrome?
Must be suitable as a destination aerodrome and not require a destination alternate itself
43
Must submit a flight plan IAW with the authorised aeronautical information (AAI) procedures for:
An IFR flight. VFR flight in C or D airspace.
44
For VFR flight plan requirements, when must you do it? (3)
Air transport or Over water, beyond a distance from land greater than would allow the aircraft to reach land with OEI, or In a designated remote area or At night, flying 120nm or more from the departure aerodrome, and must also do the following: Submit a flight plan or Nominate a SARTIME for your arrival, or Leave a flight note with a responsible person.
45
What is the altimeter reading requirement for VFR flight?
Must read site elevation to within 100ft or 110ft at test sites above 3300ft. If an aircraft with 2 altimeters that continues to fly VFR with 1 altimeter reading erroneously by more than 100 ft (or 110 ft as the case may be), you must consider the erroneous altimeter as inoperative for further use.
46
What landing distance factors are recommended for unfactored charts due to aircraft ageing?
MTOW ≤ 2,000 kg: 1.15 × actual landing distance MTOW 2,000–4,500 kg: Linear interpolation between 1.15 and 1.43
47
Specified VFR cruising levels (91.275): When flying under VFR, you must fly at a specified VFR cruising level for the aircraft track (see Figure 14). Exceptions to this rule are when:
Uncontrolled airspace and: * Below 3,000 ft AMSL, or * 3,000 ft AMSL to <1,500 ft AGL, or * Not practicable, or * Glider in soaring flight. Controlled airspace and ATC has issued a clearance/instruction.
48
VFR cruising level WE, EO directions
West even - 180 degrees to 359 degrees, East odd - 0 degrees to 179 degrees plus 500.
49
What are the key rules for transition altitude, layer, and level in the Australian FIR?
Transition altitude: 10,000 ft Transition level: FL110 at QNH ≥1013.2 hPa; varies below 1013.2 hPa No cruising in the transition layer Below transition altitude: use current local QNH, forecast QNH within 100 NM, or area forecast QNH At/above transition altitude: use 1013.2 hPa Climb: change QNH → 1013.2 hPa after 10,000 ft before levelling Descent: change 1013.2 hPa → QNH before entering transition layer
50
What is the minimum height over populous areas and public gatherings?
Must not fly below 1000ft above the highest feature within 600m.
51
What is the minimum height for VFR flights at night? (4)
Do not fly below: Published LSALT (lowest safe altitude) IFR for the route/segment Published minimum sector altitude (AAI) Calculated LSALT (MOS 12.03) 1,000 ft above highest obstacle within 10 NM ahead and either side of the aircraft
52
When can you fly below VFR night minimum heights?
Taking off or landing Within 3 NM of the aerodrome during takeoff or landing Following ATC clearance
53
What is the minimum height rule for other areas?
Cannot fly below 500ft above the highest feature within 300m.
54
What are the exceptions to the minimum height rule? Take off and LDG - 2 Training and practice - 5 Low flying - 3
Takeoff & Landing: Takeoff: lift-off and climb follow normal aircraft procedures Landing: circling, continuous descent, or MAP using normal rates/manoeuvres Training & Practice: Not carrying pax & practising procedures at aerodromes Forced landing practice with landowner consent Low-flying training (Part 141/142) over surveyed, approved areas, no pax Training circuits or testing aerodrome suitability Air displays with proper approval General Low-Flying Rules: Must hold low-flying authorisation/approval Must maintain ≥150 m above people, vehicles, structures, livestock Conduct risk assessment of flight area
55
What equipment must an aircraft have for VFR flight by day? IPMT
* Indicated Airspeed * Pressure altitude * Magnetic heading - direct reading compass or both as remote indicating and standby direct compass * Time - hhmmss, fitted on aircraft or worn and accessible
56
What additional equipment is required for NVFR flight? Flight instrument systems - NIP VM TTASO
Navigation: Approved GNSS or ADF/VOR Indicated Airspeed, Pressure Altitude, VSI: connected to a selectable alternate static source that can open or block static source and alternative static source simultaneously OR balanced flush ports Magnetic heading Time - HHMMSS Turn & Slip: turn-and-slip info; if second independent attitude source exists → slip only Attitude Stabilised heading: must indicate gyroscopic instrument power status OAT
57
What is the requirement for radio communication systems in any airspace?
Must be fitted with radio capable of communicating: Two-way radio by voice All frequencies needed for reporting, broadcast, listening watch (CASR 91.630, 91.635, 91.640, 91.675) for the route, incl. diversions On 121.5 MHz emergency frequency
58
Exception for radiocomm systems
Not required for VFR by day, Class G, at or below 5,000 ft AMSL, outside MBAs If you don't meet the horizontal separation criteria, the aircraft must be fitted with radios.
59
When can an aircraft begin a flight with inoperative radio communications?
If the flight is from AD, where the radio can't be fixed or replaced and is going to the nearest place to where it can be fixed. If in controlled airspace, ATS is informed before flight, and clearance is obtained. Flying above 5000' AMSL in class G or in an MBA, it's during the day in VMC, its accompanied by another AC which can make calls.
60
What is the cockpit and cabin lighting requirement for night operations? (5) (3)
Cockpit lighting: - Illuminate all equipment and documents used by each flight crew member - Be compatible with all equipment used - Placards/instruments readable from normal seated positions - Shield eyes from direct/reflected light - Adjustable intensity for conditions Cabin lighting: Each occupant can see and use: seatbelt, oxygen, normal & emergency exits Each Flight crew member has an independent portable light accessible from their seat Other crew members (if any) have an independent portable light at their station
61
What is the requirement for the carriage of emergency locator transmitters (ELT)?
All aircraft except single seat must be fitted with an automatic ELT or carry a survival ELT.
62
Exceptions for carriage of ELT
Flights <50 nm Flights to the manufacturer Preparation/delivery after purchase or transfer of operator If The positioning of an Australian aircraft from a location outside Australia to the place at which any ELTs required to be fitted to the aircraft will be registered with the Australian Maritime Safety authority (AMSA).
63
What must single-engine aircraft over water carry?
if flying over water on distances greater than gliding distance, you need to carry a survival (portable ELT) in addition to an automatic ELT. ## Footnote This applies if the aircraft cannot reach land in case of engine failure.
64
What are the requirements for aircraft that need to carry more than one life raft?
They must: * Be fitted with an automatic ELT and carry a survival ELT, or * Carry at least two survival ELTs
65
Where must a survival ELT be carried if on board?
In one of the following locations: * On the person of a crew member * In or adjacent to a life raft * Adjacent to an emergency exit used for evacuation
66
An aircraft may be flown without an automatic or survival ELT if:
ELT has been removed temp for maintenance and an entry is made into the tech log stating all its details and a placard is installed saying ELT not carried or installed visible to the pilot no more then 90 days have passed since removal. ## Footnote This applies to either an automatic or survival ELT.
67
Life jacket - carriage requirements, which aircraft always require it.
Seaplane or amphibian, or Single-engine aircraft which isn’t a seaplane or amphibian that flies over water beyond gliding distance
68
When is an aircraft not required to carry life jackets?
If it flies over water during normal climbing or descending procedures ## Footnote This includes normal take-off and landing operations.
69
How must life jackets be stowed on aircraft?
Infants: stowed where an adult responsible for the infant can easily reach them Everyone else: stowed where it is readily accessible from their seat
70
Under what condition must a person onboard a single-engine aircraft wear a life jacket?
If it is flown over water beyond gliding distance ## Footnote There are exceptions based on altitude and flight operations.
71
What is the exception for wearing life jackets when flying over water?
Not required if higher than 2000ft above the water or during normal climbing or descending operations over water