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Y3 Neurology > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

define the CNS

A

brain + spinal cord

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2
Q

what are the components of the PNS

A

12 CN
31 SN
+ branches

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3
Q

what percentage of cardiac output does the brain recieve

A

15%

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4
Q

what percentage of oxygen usage does the brain take?

A

20%

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5
Q

What are gyri, sulci and fissures?

A 
gyrus = outward projection
sulcus = inward projection
fissure = deep sulcus
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6
Q

what is the other name for the Sylvian fissure

A

lateral fissure

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7
Q

what is the name of the fissure separating the 2 cortexes

A

cerebral interhemispheric

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8
Q

what is the function of the corpus callosum

A

communication between hemispheres

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9
Q

name the components of the brainstem in order from superior to inferior

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

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10
Q

what is the main function of the thalamus

A

relay centre

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11
Q

the LGN is part of what brain structure

A

thalamus

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12
Q

the thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus and epithalamus are collectively known as what?

A

diencephalon

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13
Q

what hormones does the hypothalamus synthesise

A

ADH, oxytocin

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14
Q

the hypothalamus has a role in hormone release from the _____

A

anterior pituitary

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15
Q

name the meninges from superficial to deep

A

dura mater
arachnoid
(subarachnoid space +CSF)
pia

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16
Q

what arteries does the anterior circulation arise from

A

internal carotid

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17
Q

what arteries does the posterior circulation arise from

A

vertebral arteries

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18
Q

the IC bifurcates into the ….

A

MCA and ACA

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19
Q

the ophthalmic artery is a branch of the ____

A

IC

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20
Q

the anterior choroidal artery is a branch of the ___

A

IC

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21
Q

what artery connects the right and left anterior cerebral arteries

A

anterior connecting artery

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22
Q

what artery supplies the medial cerebral hemispheres

A

anterior cerebral arteries

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23
Q

what artery supplies the lateral hemispheres, basal ganglia and the internal capsule?

A

middle cerebral artery

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24
Q

what artery runs in the sylvian lateral fissure

A

middle cerebral artery

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25
Q

the vertebral arteries are a branch of the _____

A

subclavian arteries

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26
Q

the vertebral arteries pass through the _____ of C_ to _

A

through transverse foramen of C6-C2

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27
Q

the vertebral arteries join to form the ____ at the _____

A

join forming basilar at pons

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28
Q

the posterior inferior cerebellar arteries are branches of the _____

A

vertebral arteries

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29
Q

what artery terminates at the interpeduncular cistern?

A

basilar artery

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30
Q

the superior and anterior inferior cerebellar arteries are branches of the _____

A

basilar artery

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31
Q

what artery supplies the thalamus and occipital lobe

A

posterior cerebral arteries

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32
Q

the pontine arteries are branches of the _____

A

basilar artery

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33
Q

what structure does the dural venous sinuses drain to

A

internal jugular vein

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34
Q

is the superior sagittal sinus is paired or unpaired?

A

unpaired

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35
Q

the superior sagittal sinus goes from the anterior falx cerebri to the _____

A

confluence of the sinuses

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36
Q

is the calcarine sulcus is on the anterior or posterior aspect of the brain?

A

posterior

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37
Q

the cingulate sulcus is in the midline or lateral brain surface?

A

midline

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38
Q

During foetus development, there are 3 primary vesicles which give rise to the brain, what are their names?

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

ROMan PRO MESsage

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39
Q

Name the lobes of the brain

A 
parietal
frontal
occipital
temporal
insular
limbic
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40
Q

What is the function of the insular lobe?

A

has a role in pain

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41
Q

the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe contains the _____

A

motor cortex

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42
Q

the calcarine fissure of the occipital lobe contains the ____

A

visual cortex

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43
Q

the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe contains the _____

A

somatosensory cortex

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44
Q

the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe contains the ____ and _____ on the dominant side

A

auditory cortex and wernicke’s area

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45
Q

what is the function of wernicke’s area

A

speech comprehesion

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46
Q

the inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe on the dominant side contains _____

A

broca’s area

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47
Q

what is the function of broca’s area?

A

speech production

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48
Q

the micturition inhibition centre is part of which lobe?

A

frontal lobe

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49
Q

which lobe is responsible for executive function?

A

frontal lobe

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50
Q

which lobe contains the hippocampus

A

temporal lobe

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51
Q

what is the main function of the hippocampus

A

memory

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52
Q

which lobe contains the frontal eye feilds

A

frontal lobe

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53
Q

the amygdala is a part of the ____ system

A

limbic system

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54
Q

is the cerebellum directly above or below the tentorium cerebelli

A

below

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55
Q

does the cerebellum control ipsilaterally or contralaterally?

A

ipsilaterally

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56
Q

Name the structures that attach the cerebellum to the brainstem

A

superior, middle and inferior peduncles

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57
Q

Name the tree of white matter in the cerebellum

A

arbor vitae

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58
Q

Name the layers of the cerebellum from superficial to deep

A

outer molecular layer
middle Purkinje cell layer
inner granule cell layer

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59
Q

What is the name to the midline portion of the cerebellum?

A

vermis

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60
Q

What cell type sends efferents from the cerebellum

A

purkinje cells

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61
Q

Where to afferent inputs to the cerebellum arrive?

A

peduncles

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62
Q

What is the commonest cause of bilateral cerebellar disturbance?

A

Acute alcohol exposure

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63
Q

What type of information does the cerebellum receive and where doe sit send it?

A

receives sensory info for movement and sends it to thalamus

also sends intented motor

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64
Q

the cerebellum receives sensory info for movement, where does it send it?

A

thalamus

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65
Q

where does the cerebellum send intended motor information?

A

corticospinal tract

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66
Q

Is the basal ganglia a grey or white matter structure?

A

grey

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67
Q

Name the 5 components of the basal ganglia

A 
caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus
subthalamic nucleus
substantia nigra
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68
Q

Name the components of the striatum

A

caudate nucleus, putamen

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69
Q

Name the components of the corpus striatum

A

caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus

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70
Q

Name the components of the lenticular nucleus

A

putamen, globus pallidus

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71
Q

Is the internal capsule a grey or white matter structure?

A

white

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72
Q

What is the function of the internal capsule?

A

Connects cerebellar hemispheres

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73
Q

What is the function of the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

increases thalamus outflow to enhance movement

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74
Q

What is the function of the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

inhibits thalamus outflow to stop unwanted movement

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75
Q

Describe the main function and appearance of the substantia nigra?

A

dark streak in brainstem

produces dopamine

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76
Q

does the basal ganglia control ipsilaterally or contralaterally?

A

contralaterally

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77
Q

changed muscle tone, dyskinesia, tremor, chorea and myoclonus could all arise due to a lesion in the ______

A

basal ganglia

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78
Q

what structure produces CSF

A

choroid plexus of the ventricles

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79
Q

how much CSF is produced/absorbed a day

A

a pint

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80
Q

what structures does the cerebral aqueduct connect?

A

3rd and 4th ventricle

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81
Q

what structures does the interventricular foraminae of Monroe connect

A

3rd to lateral ventricles

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82
Q

dendrites convey graded electrical signals ____ to the neuron soma

A

passively

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83
Q

what part of a neuron contains the nucleus

A

body aka soma

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84
Q

neurons coma in different shapes; unipolar, pseudounipolar, bipolar and multipolar. what shape is a retinal neuron?

A

bipolar

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85
Q

neurons coma in different shapes; unipolar, pseudounipolar, bipolar and multipolar. what shape is a DRG?

A

pseudounipolar

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86
Q

neurons coma in different shapes; unipolar, pseudounipolar, bipolar and multipolar. what shape is a LMN?

A

multipolar

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87
Q

What is the most numerous cell type in the CNS?

A

glial cells

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88
Q

Name the 4 major types of glial cell

A

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes/Schwann cells
microglia
ependymal cells

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89
Q

There is no connective tissue in the CNS, what cell type instead takes on this role?

A

astrocytes

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90
Q

What is the shape of an astrocyte

A

a star

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91
Q

Name 3 of the roles of an astrocyte

A

blood brain barrier
homeostasis
support

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92
Q

Name the cells that produce myelin

A

oligodendrocyte in CNS

Schwann cell in PNS

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93
Q

Describe how the appearance of schwann cells and oligodendrocytes differs

A

oligodendrocytes have multiple branches attaching to multiple axons, whereas there is only 1 schwann cell for every segment of each axon

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94
Q

Name the gap in the myelin sheath of a nerve, between adjacent schwann cells

A

node of ranvier

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95
Q

What is the function of myelin sheaths and rodes of ranvier?

A

increase conduction velocity

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96
Q

What cell type are microglia derivates of?

A

macrophages

97
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

immune monitoring, antigen presentation

98
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells

A

form the epithelium lining the ventricles

99
Q

Ependymal cells are ciliated. true or false?

A

true

100
Q

Where is white matter found in the brain?

A

deep to the layer of outer grey matter

101
Q

____ matter is composed of cells processes, synapses, glial cells, neuron soma and blood vessels

A

Grey matter

102
Q

____ matter is composed of myelinated axons + glial cells + blood vessels

A

white matter

103
Q

what level does the spinal cord end

A

L1/2

104
Q

name the structure in the spinal cord that contains CSF

A

central canal

105
Q

what is the function of the lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord at L1-3?

A

lower limb innervation

106
Q

what is the function of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord at C3-T1?

A

upper limb innervation

107
Q

what is the name of the additional grey matter structure in the spinal cord present at T1-L2 and what is its function

A

lateral horn

contains preganglionic sympathetic neurons

108
Q

name the grey matter horns of the spinal cord, and what is their basic function

A

dorsal sensory horn

ventral motor horns

109
Q

what is the other name for the white matter columns of the spinal cord

A

fasciculi

110
Q

what are the names of the white matter columns of the spinal cord

A

dorsal
lateral
ventral

111
Q

what is the name of the structure that contains the epidural venous plexuses + adipose and is found between dura and vertebrae

A

epidural space

112
Q

the spinal nerves commence the start of the ___

A

PNS

113
Q

the posterior rami of spinal nerves supply the _____

A

back of neck/trunk

114
Q

the anterior rami of spinal nerves supply the _____

A

limbs, anterior/lateral trunk

115
Q

what is the name of the thin piece of connective tissue that is a continuation of the conus medullaris ?

A

filum terminale

116
Q

what is the name of the structure that attaches the lateral SC to the dura to suspect the SC with the spinal canal

A

denticulate ligament

117
Q

how many neurons are there in the somatosensory pathway

A

3

118
Q

where is the cell body of the 1st neuron (the primary sensory afferent) in the somatosensory pathway

A

in dorsal root ganglia or cranial ganglia

119
Q

where is the cell body of the 2nd neuron in the somatosensory pathway

A

dorsal horn of spinal cord or in brainstem

120
Q

where is the cell body of the 3rd neuron in the somatosensory pathway

A

thalamus

121
Q

is a stretch receptor a slow or fast sensory unit?

A

slow

122
Q

is a muscle spinal a slow or fast sensory unit

A

fast

123
Q

is a Pacinian corpuscle a slow or fast sensory unit?

A

very fast

124
Q

‘the site innervated by 1 sensory unit’ is the definition of ____??

A

receptive field

125
Q

what can be used to measure receptive field

A

2 point discrimination

126
Q

‘the afferent ending of 1 sensory axon’ is the definition of ____???

A

sensory unit

127
Q

itch, pain, temp, proprioception and pressure are examples of sensory ____

A

itch, pain, temp, proprioception and pressure are examples of sensory modalities

128
Q

____ stimuli have a low threshold for sending a signal in the somatosensory pathway

A

innocuous

129
Q

nociceptors are ___ threshold receptors for initiating a signal

A

high threshold

130
Q

receptive field size varies with body part. true or false

A

true

131
Q

pacinian and meissner’s corpuscles are found on hairy skin. true or false

A

false

pacinian corpuscles are found on hairy skin, meissner’s corpusclesare found on hairless skin

132
Q

the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway innervates the whole body. true or false

A

false, doesn’t innervate anterior head

133
Q

what sensory modalities does the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway deal with

A

fine touch and conscious proprioception

134
Q

where does the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway synapse and decussate

A

medulla

135
Q

the fasciculus cuneatus of the DCML pathway innervates _____

A

everything above T6 (except anterior face)

136
Q

the fasciculus gracilis of the DCML pathway innervates _____

A

below T6

137
Q

what modalities does the spinothalamic tract deal with

A

pain and temperature

138
Q

where does the spinothalamic tract decussate and synapse?

A

at level they enter dorsal horn of the spinal cord

139
Q

the ____ tract conveys unconscious proprioceptive info to the cerebellum to guide posture and limb movements

A

spinocerebellar tract

140
Q

the trigeminal system is responsible for sensory innervation of the anterior head, where are the soma of the trigeminal system located?

A

trigeminal sensory ganglion

141
Q

in somatosensation, lateral inhibition modifies information via _____ on the way to the primary somatosensory cortex

A

inhibitory interneurons

142
Q

“an alpha motor neuron and all the fibres it innervates” is the definition of _____?

A

motor unit

143
Q

name the two types of LMNs

A

α alpha motor neuron

γ gamma motor neuron

144
Q

what do alpha motor neurons innervate?

A

extrafusal fibres of skeletal muscle

145
Q

what to gamma motor neurons innervate?

A

muscle spindle intrafusal fibres

146
Q

type I skeletal muscle fibres get ATP from ______ and are fatigue ____

A

ATP from oxidative phosphorylation, fatigue resistant

147
Q

type ____ skeletal muscle fibres get ATP from glycolysis, not fatigue resistant

A

IIb fast

148
Q

are muscle spindles in extensors or flexors?

A

extensors

149
Q

muscle spindles are monosynpatic. true or false

A

true

150
Q

“the αMNs that innervate a single muscle” is the definition of the ______??

A

motor neuron pool

151
Q

the _____ regulate muscle tension to prevent overload

A

golgi tendon organs

152
Q

the ____ reflex is where a muscle spindle registers a change in the length of skeletal muscle & opposes it

A

myotatic

153
Q

the corticospinal CST tract is also know as the ____ tract

A

pyramidal

154
Q

85% of fibres in the corticospinal tract cross at the _____ and the other 15% of fibres cross at the ____

A

85% of fibres in the corticospinal tract cross at the decussation of the pyramids and the other 15% of fibres remain uncrossed

155
Q

the crossed ____ fibres in the CST are responsible for _____

A

the crossed lateral fibres in the CST are responsible for fine movements of the distal limb

156
Q

the uncrossed ___ fibres in the CST are responsible for movements of ____ body parts

A

the uncrossed ventral fibres in the CST are responsible for movements of proximal/axial body parts

157
Q

the corticobulbar pyramidal tract contains the CN UMNs for motor innervation to the ______

A

face, head and neck

158
Q

motor system outside the pyramidal tract are referred to as the ______ system

A

extrapyramidal system

159
Q

name the 4 tracts that make up the extrapyramidal system

A

rubrospinal
vestibulospinal
reticulospinal
tectospinal

160
Q

which extrapyramidal tract originates the red nucleus of the midbrain

A

rubrospinal

161
Q

what is the function of the rubrospinal tract

A

excite flexors & inhibit extensors of the upper body

162
Q

what is the function of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

posture/antigravity muscles; leg extensors/arm flexors

163
Q

what is the function of the tectospinal tract?

A

reflex head movement to visual/auditory stimuli

164
Q

the reticulospinal tract has two divisions, what are their names

A

lateral medullary and medial pontine

165
Q

what is the name of the nerve involved and the spinal cord level of the biceps reflex?

A

C5/6 musculocutaneous

166
Q

what is the name of the nerve involved and the spinal cord level of the triceps reflex?

A

C7/8 radial

167
Q

what is the name of the nerve involved and the spinal cord level of the knee jerk reflex?

A

L3/4 femoral

168
Q

what is the name of the nerve involved and the spinal cord level of the ankle jerk reflex?

A

S1/2 tibial

169
Q

the ____ separates scala media and the scala tympani

A

basilar membrane

170
Q

in the auditory pathway, where do the hair cells synapse

A

spiral ganglion

171
Q

go and learn the auditory pathway.

A 
spiral ganglion> 
cochlear nerve> 
ventral cochlear nucleus> 
dorsal cochlear nucleus>
project bilaterally> superior olivary nucleus>
lateral lemniscus>
inferior colliculus>
medial geniculate body>
primary auditory cortex in superior temporal gyrus
172
Q

in the vestibular system, what is are the semicircular canals responsible for

A

rotational movement

173
Q

name the otolith organs

A

urticle and saccule

174
Q

in the vestibular system, what are the otolith organs responsible for

A

tilt, acceleration, gravity

175
Q

in the vestibular system, the cupula is displaced by _____ movement

A

endolymph

176
Q

in the vestibular system, the ___ contains the crista, hair cells and cupula

A

ampulla

177
Q

the ____ reflex keeps the eyes fixed when the head moves

A

vestibulocular

178
Q

the ___ hair cells are afferent CN VII

A

inner

179
Q

the ___ hair cells are efferents from the superior olivary nucleus

A

outer

180
Q

in the visual system, what is the function of lateral inhibition

A

aids localization and contrast

181
Q

in the visual pathway, after fibres cross at the optic pathway where do they go next

A

optic tract

182
Q

in the visual pathway, where do fibres go after the optic tract

A

optic radiation

183
Q

where is the optic radiation located

A

superior in parietal lobe, inferior in temporal lobe

184
Q

in the visual pathway, where do fibres go after the optic radiation

A

visual cortex

185
Q

meyer’s loop is part of the ______ that loops around the temporal lobe, it contains _____ visual field fibres

A

meyer’s loop is part of the inferior optic radiation that loops around the temporal lobe, it contains upper visual field fibres

186
Q

what is the resting membrane potential of a neuron

A

-70

187
Q

what is the threshold membrane potential for an action potential in a neuron

A

-60

188
Q

in a neuron action potential, what happens on the upstroke

A

depolarisation: voltage gated Na channels open

189
Q

in a neuron action potential, what happens on the downstroke

A

hyperpolarisation: voltage activated K channels open

190
Q

the ______ separates the pre and post-synaptic membrane

A

synaptic cleft

191
Q

at the termination of a synapse ______ enzyme degrades ACH to ____ and _____

A

at the termination of a synapse acetylcholinesterase enzyme degrades ACH to acetate and choline

192
Q

does excitation happen during depolarisation or hyperpolarisation?

A

depolarisation

193
Q

ionotropic receptors are rapid and metabotropic receptors are slow at signalling. true or false

A

true

194
Q

give an example of an ionotropic receptor

A

ACh nicotinic receptor

195
Q

give an example of a metabotropic receptor

A

ACh muscarinic GPCR

196
Q

what is the main excitatory transmitter

A

glutamate

197
Q

what receptors does glutamate act on

A

ionotropic NMDA glutamate receptors and ionotropic non-NMDA glutamate receptors

198
Q

glutamate binding to its receptor triggers a depolarising ____

A

EPSP excitatory postsynaptic potential

199
Q

glutamate binding to its receptor triggers a depolarising EPSP, does this always result in an action potential?

A

no, only if the depolarisation reaches the threshold

200
Q

what is the main inhibitory transmitter

A

GABA

201
Q

what receptors does GABA act on

A

ionotropic GABA-A or metabotropic GABA-B receptor

202
Q

what ion is involved ionotropic GABA-A receptors?

A

Cl

203
Q

what ion is involved metabotropic GABA-B receptors?

A

K

204
Q

GABA binding to its receptor triggers a hyperpolarising ____

A

IPSP inhibitory post synaptic potential

205
Q

what is the function of a IPSP

A

inhibits action potentials

206
Q

is glycine an inhibitory or excitatory transmitter?

A

inhibitory

207
Q

GABA and glycine are both widespread inhibitory neurotransmitters. true or false

A

false. GABA is widespread but glycine is only found in the brainstem and spinal cord

208
Q

what type of neuron is glycine involved iwth in the spinal cord?

A

inhibitory internuerons

209
Q

what type of neurotransmitter are GABA, glycine and glutamate?

A

amino acid transmitter

210
Q

what type of neurotransmitter are dopamine, histamine, NA and serotonin?

A

amine transmitters

211
Q

______ type of pain is adaptive and immediate

A

nociceptive

212
Q

______ type of pain is adaptive and functions for healing

A

inflammatory

213
Q

_____ type of pain is a maladaptive

A

pathological

214
Q

what type of stimuli activate nociceptor Aδ fibres

A

mechanical and thermal

215
Q

what type of stimuli activate nociceptor C-fibres

A

all

216
Q

how is pain from nociceptor Aδ fibres experienced?

A

first quick stabbing / pricking feeling

217
Q

how is pain from nociceptor C fibres experienced?

A

2nd slow burn, throb, cramp, ache

218
Q

are nociceptor Aδ fibres myelinated?

A

thinly melinated

219
Q

are nociceptor C fibres myelinated?

A

unmyelinated

220
Q

name the subset of nociceptive C fibres that release pro-neurogenic-inflammation mediators

A

peptidergic polymodal

221
Q

where are the soma of neurons in the nociceptive pathway located

A

trigeminal ganglion or dorsal root ganglion

222
Q

what horn of the spinal cord contains nociceptive fibres

A

dorsal horn

223
Q

name the tract that carries fast Aδ nociceptive fibres to the thalamus

A

spinothalamic

224
Q

name the tract that carries slow C nociceptive fibres to the brainstem

A

spinoreticular

225
Q

[somatic/visceral] pain is from body wall structures eg. the peritoneum

A

somatic

226
Q

is somatic or visceral pain well localised

A

somatic

227
Q

is somatic or visceral pain experienced as a dull ache / throbbing sensation

A

visceral

228
Q

What word is used to describe the organisation of the primary somatosensory cortex and primary motor cortex

A

somatotopic

229
Q

What part of the body makes up the biggest portion of the sensory cortical homunculus and the motor cortical homunculus

A

hands

230
Q

How do you recognise the pons on histology sections?

A

horizontal bands

231
Q

How do you recognise the midbrain on histology sections?

A

contains the cerebral aqueduct

232
Q

In the corticospinal tract, where do fibres go after the medulla?

A

through pons, then midbrain, then internal capsule, then to primary motor cortex
except reverse?

233
Q

The prosencephalon (one of the primary vesicles of the brain in development) splits to give rise to 2 secondary vesicles, what are their names?

A

telencephalon

diencephalon

234
Q

What structure in the mature brain does the telencephalon become?

A

the cerebral hemispheres

235
Q

What structure in the mature brain does the mesencephalon become?

A

midbrain

236
Q

The rhombencephalon (one of the primary vesicles of the brain in development) splits to give rise to 2 secondary vesicles, what are their names?

A

metencephalon

mylencephalon

237
Q

What structure in the mature brain does the metencephalon become?

A

pons, cerebellum

238
Q

What structure in the mature brain does the mylencephalon become?

A

medulla

239
Q

Which primary vesicles form the forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain?

A 
forebrain = prosencephalon
midbrain = mesencephalon
hindbrain = rhombencephalon

Y3 Neurology (23 decks)

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