1
Q
The express purpose of processing a scene is to:
a. Recover physical evidence
b. Arrest a suspect
c. Document the scene as found
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
A
e. A & C only
2
Q
In situ means the condition of the item once in the laboratory
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
3
Q
The six basic steps in examination of a crime scene – assessing, observing, documenting, searching, collecting, and analyzing – can be accomplished in any order
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
4
Q
In a free society, the police have _____ basic goals. (What are they?)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
A
b. 2
Prevention of crime and disorder, and the preservation of peace
Protection of life, property, and personal liberty
5
Q
Crime prevention refers to
a. Controlling general behavior patterns
b. Active investigation and the identification of those responsible for the crime
c. Efforts to keep crime from occurring
d. The scope of services provided by police
A
c. Efforts to keep crime from occurring
6
Q
Crime repression refers to
a. Controlling general behavior patterns
b. Active investigation and the identification of those responsible for the crime
c. Efforts to keep crime from occurring
d. The scope of services provided by police
A
b. Active investigation and the identification of those responsible for the crime
7
Q
Regulating non-criminal conduct refers to
a. Controlling general behavior patterns
b. Active investigation and the identification of those responsible for the crime
c. Efforts to keep crime from occurring
d. The scope of services provided by police
A
a. Controlling general behavior patterns
8
Q
Provision of services refers to
a. Controlling general behavior patterns
b. Active investigation and the identification of those responsible for the crime
c. Efforts to keep crime from occurring
d. The scope of services provided by police
A
d. The scope of services provided by police
9
Q
The protection of personal liberties is a Constitutional issue
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
10
Q
Justice is defined by society in the form of
a. Judges
b. Juries
c. Judges and juries
d. The police
e. The victim
A
c. Judges and juries
11
Q
In order to be fair, justice considers the needs of these entities:
a. The victim
b. The accused
c. Society
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
A
e. All of the above
12
Q
Evidence can be defined as anything that tends to prove a fact in contention
a. True
b. False
A
b. False – prove OR disprove
13
Q
Testimonial evidence is more reliable than physical evidence
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
14
Q
Physical evidence is always that which is collected
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
15
Q
An example of a predictable effect is
a. Moving an item of evidence from one location to another
b. Odors
c. Onset of rigor mortis
d. The presence of ice in a glass
A
c. Onset of rigor mortis
16
Q
An example of an unpredictable effect is
a. The haphazard opening of a revolver cylinder
b. The smell of burnt gunpowder
c. Insect activity at a death scene
d. The heat signature of a tire in a roadway
A
a. The haphazard opening of a revolver cylinder
17
Q
An example of a transitory effect is
a. Moving an item of evidence from one location to another
b. The presence of frozen ice cream in a bowl
c. Onset of livor mortis
d. The sequence of insects at a death scene
A
b. The presence of frozen ice cream in a bowl
18
Q
Through relational details, the investigator is able to establish a correlation between various objects. Examples of these types of details are
a. The presence of a void pattern on a wall surrounded by spatter
b. A clustering of shell casings on the ground
c. The presence of a weapon in close proximity to the victim
d. All of the above
A
d. All of the above
19
Q
A functional detail is one that may manifest itself in the operating condition of items in the scene. An example of this is whether the door was locked at the time of a break in
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
20
Q
If a wax paper roll is discovered in the kitchen of an arson scene. It would not be necessary to evaluate its function since it is not unusual to find a wax paper roll in a kitchen
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
21
Q
Timing and sequencing are two distinct concepts
a. True
b. False
A
a. True
22
Q
The forensic linkage triangle illustrates that items of evidence are used to establish links between
a. The victim and suspect only
b. The suspect and the scene only
c. The victim and the scene only
d. The victim, the suspect, and the scene
A
d. The victim, the suspect, and the scene
23
Q
Any good crime scene processing methodology will demand which of the following
a. Knowledge/flexibility
b. Skills and tools
c. A methodological approach/coordinated effort
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
A
d. All of the above
24
Q
A checklist is useful when processing a scene and should always be followed step by step
a. True
b. False
A
b. False
25
The addition, destruction, and movement of material in the scene are considered to be what kind of issues?
a. Scene integrity
b. Scene placement
c. Constitutional
d. Collection
a. Scene integrity
26
Probable cause is the investigative standard
a. True
b. False
b. False
27
It is appropriate to exclude exculpatory information from reports in the early stages of an investigation
a. True
b. False
b. False
28
At trial, the investigator should state the facts, even if it is not supportive of the prosecution’s argument
a. True
b. False
a. True
29
Class characteristics best serve the forensic professional by
a. Placing an item within a group
b. Linking a specific individual to the crime
c. Eliminating possibilities
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
e. A & C only
30
Individual characteristics are those that are unique based upon natural variation, damage, or wear
a. True
b. False
a. True
31
If an item of evidence is individualized, there is no longer a need to consider its context
a. True
b. False
b. False
32
Locard’s Exchange Principle can generally be summarized as
a. Gunshot wounds result in high impact spatter patterns
b. Every contact leaves a trace
c. Insect succession can assist with time of death determinations
d. Fingerprints are unique and permanent
b. Every contact leaves a trace
33
Placing a victim in a chair for an interview then placing the suspect in the same chair with no additional measures being taken can result in
a. Mechanical fit
b. Cross contamination
c. An arrest of the wrong individual
d. The loss of a job
b. Cross contamination
34
Mechanical fit is another term for
a. The appropriate person for the job
b. The appropriate tools for the job
c. Fracture match
d. Fitting a weapon unto a wound
c. Fracture match
35
Fracture matching is a class characteristic
a. True
b. False
b. False
36
Fingerprints do not begin to develop until after birth
a. True
b. False
b. False
37
Loops make up approximately what percent of all fingerprint patterns
a. 30%
b. 5%
c. 80%
d. 65%
d. 65%
38
In 1973, it was determined that there was no minimum requirement for agreement of minutiae in order for a print to be individualized
a. True
b. False
a. True
39
Fingerprints found at a crime scene consist of 98% grease, oil, salts, and amino acids
a. True
b. False
b. False
40
Fingerprints at a crime scene can be categorized as
a. Latent
b. Patent
c. Plastic
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
41
If someone has touched an item of evidence since the incident, there is no need to process the item due to the transient nature of fingerprints
a. True
b. False
b. False
42
Any number of conditions might prevent a fingerprint from occurring on a surface that otherwise would be expected to hold prints
a. True
b. False
a. True
43
Wet bench serology testing results provide
a. Class characteristics
b. Individual characteristics
a. Class characteristics
44
The acid phosphatase test and microscopic evaluations are used when testing for the presence of
a. Blood
b. Vaginal secretions
c. Sperm
d. Urine
c. Sperm
45
The presence of saliva can be determined by testing for the presence of
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Buccal cells
c. Amylase or starches
d. Peptidase A
c. Amylase or starches
46
It is permissible to temporarily place an item that is wet with blood in a plastic bag for transport
a. True
b. False
a. True
47
The structure of DNA was discovered in the
a. 1940s
b. 1950s
c. 1960s
d. 1970s
b. 1950s
48
The following is NOT a source of nuclear DNA
a. White blood cells
b. Skin cells
c. Red blood cells
d. Muscle cells
c. Red blood cells
49
The nucleus of a cell contains ____ pairs of chromosomes
a. 15
b. 23
c. 32
d. 36
b. 23
50
The following is a correct pairing of the DNA subunits
a. Adenine & Thymine
b. Adenine & Cytosine
c. Adenine & Guanine
d. Guanine & Thymine
a. Adenine & Thymine
Guanine & Cytosine
51
The downfall of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is
a. The length of time to perform the test
b. The resulting statistics
c. The expense of the required equipment
d. The need for a large amount of undegraded genetic material
d. The need for a large amount of undegraded genetic material
52
The downfall of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is
a. The length of time to perform the test
b. The resulting statistics
c. The expense of the required equipment
d. The need for a large amount of undegraded genetic material
b. The resulting statistics
53
The benefits of short tandem repeat (STR) technology are
a. The need for only small amounts of genetic material
b. The resulting statistics
c. The length of time required to perform the test
d. A & B
d. A & B
54
The downfall of STR is
a. The length of time to perform the test
b. The resulting statistics
c. Contamination issues
d. The need for a large amount of undegraded genetic material
c. Contamination issues
55
The difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA is
a. The number of base pairs
b. The structure
c. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from only the mother
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
56
The best test to perform on a hair with no root is
a. RFLP
b. STR
c. mDNA
d. Microscopic examination
c. mDNA
57
Hair examinations routinely result in individualizations
a. True
b. False
b. False
58
Fibers are classified first by their originating source, the categories with which include natural, synthetic, and:
a. Cotton
b. Manufactured
c. Dyed
d. Undetermined
b. Manufactured
59
Trace evidence analysis of fibers routinely result in class characteristic determinations, but can also lead to individualization
a. True
b. False
a. True
60
It has been determined that 50% of any transferred hairs or fibers are lost in the first 8 hours following contact
a. True
b. False
b. False
61
Hair and fiber documentation and collection should occur immediately upon discovery
a. True
b. False
a. True
62
The two most common methods for search and collection of hair and fibers are taping and vacuuming
a. True
b. False
a. True
63
Comparing a glass fragment with a known glass sample in an effort to determine if it can be excluded or included as having originated from a common source is
a. Type determination
b. Direction of force determination
c. Sequence of force determination
d. Fracture matching
a. Type determination
64
Evaluating the radial fractures present in the first concentric ring of glass fractures is used with
a. Type determination
b. Direction of force determination
c. Sequence of force determination
d. Fracture matching
b. Direction of force determination
65
Physical and optical properties of glass can individualize the evidence
a. True
b. False
b. False
66
The evaluation with multiple bullet defects in glass and where their radial fractures meet is used with
a. Type determination
b. Direction of force determination
c. Sequence of force determination
d. Fracture matching
c. Sequence of force determination
67
A mechanical fit of broken glass/plastic will elevate a class characteristic to the level of individualization
a. True
b. False
a. True
68
The rule of evaluating direction of force is referred to as the
a. C2 rule
b. Stress fracture rule
c. 4R rule
d. Concentro-radial rule
c. 4R rule
69
Concentric fractures radiate out from a central point in the fracture
a. True
b. False
b. False
70
Ridge lines on radial fractures form right angles to the side from which the force was applied
a. True
b. False
b. False
71
The trace examiner uses all of the following EXCEPT when analyzing paint samples
a. Infrared spectrometry
b. Gas chromatography
c. Scanning electron microscopes
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
72
When trace amounts of soil are found on shoes or clothing, the technician should remove it immediately to prevent loss
a. True
b. False
b. False
73
An important distinction between the atomic absorption analysis (AAA) and the scanning electron microscope (SEM) when examining gunshot residue is that AAA is able to detect singular particles that contain barium, antimony, and lead
a. True
b. False
b. False
74
The detection of gunshot residue or the lack of gunshot residue has little to no probative value
a. True
b. False
a. True
75
Firearm evidence can have both class and individual characteristics
a. True
b. False
a. True
76
A single and complete unfired unit of ammunition is called a
a. Bullet
b. Projectile
c. Casing
d. Cartridge
d. Cartridge
77
Cartridge casing: bullet :: shotgun shell :
a. Slug
b. Pellets
c. Neither A nor B
d. Both A & B
d. Both A & B
78
The primer cap is struck by the ______ which ignites the primer compound which in turn ignites the gunpowder
a. Hammer
b. Firing pin
c. Trigger
d. Safety
b. Firing pin
79
Shotguns have a series of lands and grooves in the barrel to give the projectile spin
a. True
b. False
b. False
80
The action of the _________ lifts a single cartridge from the top of the magazine and inserts it into the barrel
a. Slide
b. Hammer
c. Firing pin
d. Safety
a. Slide
81
A firearm that is magazine fed and each time the trigger is pulled a cartridge is fired and another cartridge automatically inserts is referred to as
a. Semi-automatic
b. Automatic
a. Semi-automatic
82
Evaluation of a firearm in the lab always begins with a distance determination
a. True
b. False
b. False
83
Presented with a bullet from a crime scene, a firearms examiner can identify a list of possible weapons that could have fired the projectile based solely on the caliber and the number size, and twist of the lands and grooves present
a. True
b. False
a. True
84
When comparing the test fired bullet and crime scene bullet, the striations being examined are marks made by the lands and grooves
a. True
b. False
a. True
85
Recovered casings may have what kind of marks available for comparison
a. Firing pin
b. Breech face
c. Extractor
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
86
Any projectiles and casings collected at the crime scene need to be marked on directly for identification
a. True
b. False
b. False
87
Because shotgun pellets have individual characteristics, they need to be placed in separate containers
a. True
b. False
b. False
88
A tool mark caused when a cutting edge of a tool is brought into contact with and slid against a target surface is called
a. Compression marks
b. Saw marks
c. Drill marks
d. Striation marks
d. Striation marks
89
Tools with opposed jaws create this type of tool mark
a. Compression marks
b. Saw marks
c. Drill marks
d. Striation marks
a. Compression marks
90
Since the most important tool mark variations occur at the microscopic level, best practices dictate to cast the mark for analysis
a. True
b. False
b. False
91
There are potential opportunities for fracture matches when dealing with tool mark evidence
a. True
b. False
a. True
92
Tire and shoe marks can be both two and three dimensional
a. True
b. False
a. True
93
Which of the following provides tire class characteristics
a. Tread design
b. Noise treatment
c. Tread-wear bars
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
94
Given a set of tire tracks, track width can be measured from the outside of one tread to the inside of the opposite tread
a. True
b. False
b. False
95
The wheelbase is measured from the outside of one tread to the outside of the opposite tread
a. True
b. False
b. False
96
The most significant class discriminator for shoe mark evidence is
a. Size
b. Tread pattern
c. Sole shape
d. Brand
b. Tread pattern
97
Proper photographs of shoe and tire mark evidence typically offer the examiner greater detail for comparison than do plaster casts of other lifting techniques
a. True
b. False
a. True
98
The best scale for bite mark photography is one designed by
a. NMAE
b. ABFO
c. ABMDI
d. AAFS
b. ABFO
American Board of Forensic Odontology
99
It is best practice to store accelerant evidence in plastic containers such as gallon jugs
a. True
b. False
b. False
100
Conscious efforts to copy known writing is referred to as
a. Forgery
b. Known writings
c. Tracings
d. None of the above
c. Tracings
101
A tracing can be identified to a specific writer
a. True
b. False
b. False
102
Alterations of writing are best viewed with
a. Oblique lighting
b. ALS
c. ESDA
d. No special equipment is needed to view alterations
b. ALS
103
If a suspect has deleted evidentiary files from a computer, then time does not need to be spent trying to recover them
a. True
b. False
b. False
104
The type and nature of computer-generated evidence that may be present in a scene is very limited
a. True
b. False
b. False
105
If an evidentiary computer is running, the technician must shut it down and document the same prior to collection
a. True
b. False
b. False
106
A clinical pathologist determines the cause and manner of death
a. True
b. False
b. False
107
Manner of death can be categorized as
a. Homicide
b. Suicide
c. Undetermined
d. A & B only
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
108
How initial responding officers, CSIs, investigators, and lab personnel interact is dictated by
a. Police chief
b. Personalities
c. SOPs
d. Jurisdiction
c. SOPs
109
The responding officer’s objectives are to bring in site under control and coordinate resources
a. True
b. False
a. True
110
Documentation of initial observations and statements by individuals on scene has become unnecessary since the incorporation of computer-aided dispatch
a. True
b. False
b. False
111
To the initial responder, the address given serves the most significant role in the location of the crime scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
112
To expedite the process, investigators can initiate a search warrant based on the information given during dispatch
a. True
b. False
b. False
113
The first responder needs to be alert to sights, sounds, and smells because they can be transient
a. True
b. False
a. True
114
Emergency care is always the first order of business for the first responding officer
a. True
b. False
b. False
115
Potential safety issues to responders are
a. Suspects remaining on scene
b. Natural hazards
c. Man made hazards
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
116
Lifesaving always takes priority over evidence preservation
a. True
b. False
a. True
117
If it is obvious that the evidence will be destroyed by EMS efforts, the officer should act to collect it before the arrival of investigators
a. True
b. False
a. True
118
Police officers have the ability to establish what victims are beyond emergency medical help
a. True
b. False
b. False
119
Exceptions exist for which the response/actions of EMS can be slowed as long as they don’t contradict local laws
a. True
b. False
a. True
120
In most jurisdictions, anyone present at the scene that has an opportunity to examine the victim can pronounce death
a. True
b. False
b. False
121
The officer should never ride in an ambulance with the victim due to the possibility of obstructing lifesaving efforts
a. True
b. False
b. False
122
The initial responding officer should attempt to conduct responsibilities in the following order
a. Lifesaving, safety, scene control
b. Scene control, lifesaving, safety
c. Safety, scene control, lifesaving
d. Safety, lifesaving, scene control
d. Safety, lifesaving, scene control
123
The following needs to be considered when establishing the primary crime scene
a. Primary focal points
b. Natural entry and exit
c. Secondary scenes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
124
The primary focal points can often tell the entire story of the crime
a. True
b. False
b. False
125
It is acceptable to secure a scene larger than necessary because it is easier to decrease its size than increase its size
a. True
b. False
a. True
126
It is acceptable to use a natural boundary such as a stream to define a portion of the scene perimeter
a. True
b. False
b. False
127
For an indoor scene, it is always sufficient to use the building itself as the initial perimeter
a. True
b. False
b. False
128
It is permissible to refuse the crime scene entry to the chief
a. True
b. False
a. True
129
The most effective way to quickly establish a visible perimeter on scene is by use of
a. Uniformed officers
b. Barrier tape
c. Police cars
d. A natural border such as shrubbery
b. Barrier tape
130
A significant group to consider in reference to entry when controlling the scene is
a. EMS
b. Media
c. Other police officers
d. Family members of the victim
c. Other police officers
131
The purpose of the crime scene entry log is to have a list of who entered and when
a. True
b. False
b. False – AND for what purpose
132
The officer responsible for the scene, as well as the first responding officer, needs to take the time to brief investigators upon arrival
a. True
b. False
a. True
133
The initial responding officer’s actions have the potential to make or break the processing of the scene
a. True
b. False
a. True
134
There are guidelines that dictate the one correct way to process a crime scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
135
The purpose of processing the crime scene is to collect as much information and evidence as possible, in as pristine a condition as possible
a. True
b. False
a. True
136
Collection of evidence is simply the physical collection of items from the scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
137
Evidence collection entails
a. Cataloguing the interrelationships of where items are in the scene
b. Noting the physical layout of the scene
c. Documenting observations of things that cannot be physically collected
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
d. All of the above
138
Scene assessment is an ongoing process that begins the processing task and defines what procedures will be employed
a. True
b. False
a. True
139
Observation is always non-intrusive
a. True
b. False
b. False
140
Documentation can be exceptionally intrusive
a. True
b. False
a. True
141
Documentation of observations always precedes photography and close-up photography, and special techniques are always the last actions taken
a. True
b. False
a. True
142
Because of its intrusive nature, any physical search of the scene always follows initial documentation efforts
a. True
b. False
a. True
143
Unless dealing with fragile evidence, the CSI always collects evidence after the observation and documentation phases
a. True
b. False
a. True
144
Once collected, an item can’t be placed back into the scene for documentation
a. True
b. False
a. True
145
Processing techniques for various items of evidence are almost always the last actions taken by the technician in the overall scene processing methodology
a. True
b. False
a. True
146
The CSI must constantly consider every method and process employed at the scene in an effort to determine where in the overall sequence it belongs methodology
a. True
b. False
a. True
147
There are a number of established and validated methodologies for crime scene processing
a. True
b. False
a. True
148
The six basic crime scene actions are assessing, observing, documenting, searching, collecting, and processing
a. True
b. False
a. True
149
More intrusive actions will be completed prior to the less intrusive
a. True
b. False
b. False
150
Initially, the investigator must make note of
a. Who called
b. What was reported
c. How the caller became aware of the information
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
d. All of the above
151
The first responding officer makes notes of the environmental conditions and verifies the scene location; therefore, there is no need for the first responding investigator to repeat these efforts
a. True
b. False
b. False
152
As an investigator on scene, it is appropriate to be skeptical of EMS, ME investigator, and doctors’ opinions regarding the nature of injuries and reasons for death
a. True
b. False
a. True
153
Close-up photographs define the condition of the scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
154
Items can be moved during the overall observation step of processing
a. True
b. False
b. False
155
The best method of documenting observations is with a recording device
a. True
b. False
b. False
156
At the time the crime scene sketch is being completed, it is permissible to move items
a. True
b. False
a. True
157
A recheck involves another visual observation during which the investigator checks for any items or critical observations that may have been overlooked
a. True
b. False
a. True
158
The body should be removed from the scene as soon as possible to be taken to the morgue
a. True
b. False
b. False
159
Physical examination of the body for evidence must be completed prior to its release
a. True
b. False
a. True
160
If any evidence is discovered during an on-scene examination of the body, it should be documented and left for collection by the medical examiner’s office during autopsy
a. True
b. False
b. False
161
Placing the body in a body bag can destroy blood patterns and gunshot residue
a. True
b. False
a. True
162
Which should be done last
a. Moving items to collect evidence
b. Release of the body
c. First recheck
d. Photograph the scene
a. Moving items to collect evidence
163
Rechecks of the scene should be continued until the results of the same are negative
a. True
b. False
a. True
164
If something was not done during scene processing, it is necessary to know and articulate why it was not done
a. True
b. False
a. True
165
Once the scene is released, the CSI can return without a warrant as long as it is within the first 24 hours
a. True
b. False
b. False
166
The crime scene team performs an assessment (before/after) processing
a. Before
b. After
a. Before
167
The crime scene team needs to reassess the scene boundary even though it has already been defined by the first responding officer.
a. True
b. False
a. True
168
The following allows for a more effective assessment of the scene boundary by the crime scene team
a. Training and experience
b. Scene stability
c. Available lighting
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
169
A single barrier around the scene perimeter is adequate for long term scene integrity
a. True
b. False
b. False
170
A second perimeter is made so that there is an area into which police officers and other persons on scene can move into freely
a. True
b. False
b. False
171
Everything outside of the outer perimeter is unsecured and uncontrolled; therefore, the outer boundary will require the greatest level of effort on the part of the officers securing the scene
a. True
b. False
a. True
172
The distance between each crime scene perimeter should be at least 20 feet
a. True
b. False
b. False
173
It is far better to have one perimeter that no one can violate than to have three perimeters manned by weak security
a. True
b. False
a. True
174
Status plays a role in determining what individuals are permitted access beyond the perimeter
a. True
b. False
b. False
175
Technique(s) for handling supervisors when attempting to restrict access to the scene include
a. Enforce the use of personal protective equipment
b. Coffee
c. Create a route/observation area for authorized persons
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
e. A & C only
176
Entry and exit points are defined by ease of access and which of the following:
a. The avenue of approach and departure by the perpetrator(s)
b. Scene exposure concerns
c. Availability
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
177
It is highly recommended that there is a written crime scene control log at every one of the several perimeters
a. True
b. False
b. False
178
In the functional approach to scene processing, several different individuals/teams perform different, specialized activities
a. True
b. False
a. True
179
The approach to processing in which a single team handles all activities is called
a. Functional
b. Area
c. Specialized
d. Circular
b. Area
180
When designating functional teams, the photography team can consist of one individual
a. True
b. False
b. False
181
The sketch and measurement team generally requires how many members?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
b. 3
182
The specific search method a crime scene team selects is not important so long as it is methodical and systematic
a. True
b. False
a. True
183
The most important tool of the crime scene searcher is clean, white light
a. True
b. False
a. True
184
A search should not be held over until daylight hours since the evidence needs to be collected as soon as possible
a. True
b. False
b. False
185
This search method is effective for and widely employed in interior scenes
a. Strip
b. Line
c. Spiral
d. Grid
c. Spiral
186
The critical consideration when performing the spiral search is
a. Managing the pace
b. Too many individuals performing the search at a time
c. Whether to move inward or outward
d. Conducting it indoors or outdoors
a. Managing the pace
187
The search method during which the search moves down an area and at the end reverses direction and moves down the adjacent area is called
a. Line
b. Strip
c. Grid
d. Zone
b. Strip
188
The search method during which a searcher is assigned to each lane, and they all move simultaneously in the same direction is called
a. Line
b. Strip
c. Grid
d. Zone
a. Line
189
The search method best suited for uneven terrain is
a. Line
b. Strip
c. Grid
d. Zone
a. Line
190
The search method for which an area is divided into two sets of lanes that run at 90-degree angles to each other is called
a. Line
b. Strip
c. Grid
d. Zone
c. Grid
191
Using a zone search on a vehicle, the vehicle is broken into four zones: driver, front passenger, rear right passenger, rear left passenger
a. True
b. False
b. False
192
When using the zone search method on a large scene, it is typically used in conjunction with another search method such as the spiral search
a. True
b. False
a. True
192
Point to point search methods are the most common in the US
a. True
b. False
b. False
193
The primary biohazard exposures associated with crime scene work are
a. HIV
b. AIDS
c. Hepatitis
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
e. A & C only
194
This virus can survive in dried blood at room temperature for up to a week
a. HIV
b. Hep A
c. Hep B
d. Hep C
c. Hep B
195
CSIs can be their own source of inhalation/chemical/fire hazards
a. True
b. False
a. True
196
Airborne dried blood particles produced when scraping samples are not often of concern since they will not make direct contact with open skin
a. True
b. False
b. False
197
Decontamination can be achieved with this ratio of bleach to water
a. 1:10
b. 10:1
c. 1:3
d. 5:1
a. 1:10
198
It is up to the CSI to be able to assess the safety of a structure in fire/explosion scenes
a. True
b. False
b. False
199
If the CSI happens upon a suspect meth lab, they should immediately back out until those specially trained to deal with such scenes can respond
a. True
b. False
a. True
200
Goggles, particle masks, Tyvek suits, gloves, and booties are all examples of PPE which stands for
a. Personal processing equipment
b. Personal protective equipment
c. Personal preventative efforts
d. Priority protection engineering
b. Personal protective equipment
201
The basic actions necessary for documenting and processing a mass crime scene are significantly more complex than those for processing a more common scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
202
A (higher/lower) f/stop value results in a smaller aperture
a. Higher
b. Lower
a. Higher – remember, however, that it is a fraction
203
Police agencies need to wait for a mass crime scene to occur since it is difficult to predict scene specifics when attempting to develop policies and procedures
a. True
b. False
b. False
204
Access is more difficult to control during a multi-jurisdictional mass crime scene response, and a system of identification needs to be developed ahead of time
a. True
b. False
a. True
205
The following should be pre-event considerations for mass crime scenes
a. Available specialty skills
b. Available resources
c. Potential staging areas
d. All of the above
e. B & C only
d. All of the above
206
The two primary concerns when dealing with the mass crime scene are team formation and standardization of techniques
a. True
b. False
a. True
207
It is recommended that the video/photography team enter the scene with the processing team so they can be given advice at to what needs to be documented
a. True
b. False
b. False
208
If media editors feel that graphic video serves a function in telling a story, then they reserve the right to show any video that was shot in a public setting
a. True
b. False
a. True
209
A public information officer must follow standard operating procedures which provide guidelines as to how the jurisdiction will handle news releases
a. True
b. False
a. True
210
The media, just like the police department, has a public service role that must be fulfilled
a. True
b. False
a. True
211
Narrowing the search area that a single searcher is responsible for is the only way to increase the effectiveness of a given search
a. True
b. False
a. True
212
The most critical element of crime scene processing is
a. Reconstruction
b. Suspect apprehension
c. Documentation
d. Observation
c. Documentation
213
Documentation consists of the following elements
a. Notes/Sketches
b. Photographs/Video
c. Reports
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
d. All of the above
214
If a CSI is used to working with a film camera, but another individual on scene has a digital camera for use, it would be best to go digital
a. True
b. False
b. False
215
Photography identification problems can best be solved with evidence-establishing and close-up photographs
a. True
b. False
a. True
216
Orientation issues are often significant because the orientation of an item has potential to change conclusions
a. True
b. False
a. True
217
Confusion created by photographs of altered scenes can best be eliminated by
a. Evidence-establishing photographs
b. A photo log
c. A two-person photography team
d. Good cross examination
b. A photo log
218
Evidence-establishing photographs are also referred to as close-up photographs
a. True
b. False
b. False
219
Every item of evidence or point of interest can be adequately captured with one overall, one midrange, and one close-up photograph
a. True
b. False
b. False
220
Close-up photographs are the first to be taken so detail can be captured prior to alteration
a. True
b. False
b. False
221
In terms of using a wide-angle lens, the distortion increases with an increase in field of view
a. True
b. False
a. True
222
Placing scales and evidence markers into the scene is considered scene alteration
a. True
b. False
a. True
223
Evidence-establishing photographs are those that depict items that have been identified with placards
a. True
b. False
b. False
224
Close-up photographs need to be taken without a scale to avoid attacks by defense counsel reference material alteration of the scene
a. True
b. False
a. True
225
All close-up photography must be completed before clearing the scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
226
Roadmapping is used to document
a. Bullet trajectories
b. Developed latent prints
c. Bloodstain patterns
d. All evidence within a crime scene
c. Bloodstain patterns
227
Documentation of bloodstain patterns have a tendency to be difficult because
a. Of their biohazard potential
b. They look very similar and are therefore difficult to differentiate
c. They can be spread over a large area
d. Of the amount of labeling necessary
b. They look very similar and are therefore difficult to differentiate
228
If items are located during the later stages of processing, it may be necessary to take additional overall photographs even though the scene has been significantly altered
a. True
b. False
a. True
229
A photo log only identifies the basic information of what, when, and who produced the photos
a. True
b. False
b. False
230
The primary purpose of crime scene photographs is to illustrate the scene condition to the court
a. True
b. False
b. False
231
All photographs taken at the crime scene will be admissible in order to illustrate every aspect of the scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
232
When taking close-up photographs of evidence, the camera lens must be perpendicular to the plane of the evidence
a. True
b. False
b. False
233
Most crime scene photography can be accomplished with this size lens:
a. 28 mm
b. 35 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 65 mm
c. 50 mm
234
The CSI must take as many photographs as possible to depict the violence of a scene so that the jury can understand what the victim must have endured
a. True
b. False
b. False
235
In order to produce quality crime scene photographs, the CSI must
a. Have physical control over the camera
b. Be able to control the lighting
c. Understand how to control the focus and depth of field
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
236
Operating a camera with a focal length of 55mm and under, the CSI will be able to control the camera without a tripod for shutter speeds of 1/60th of a second or more
a. True
b. False
a. True
237
No matter what the lighting conditions, a flash should be employed when photographing the crime scene
a. True
b. False
a. True
238
In order to correct and eliminate overexposure and bleached out photos when conducting close-up photography, the CSI must
a. Tilt the camera to a 45-degree angle
b. Move the flash away from the source and hold at 45 degrees
c. Take the photographs in a darkened room
d. Use an appropriate filter
b. Move the flash away from the source and hold at 45 degrees
239
At extreme close-up range, bounce flash is an effective method of eliminating over exposure issues
a. True
b. False
b. False
240
A large aperture allows (more/less) light in
a. More
b. Less
a. More
241
A smaller f/stop results in larger depth of field
a. True
b. False
b. False
242
Depth of field refers to the amount of the scene that is illuminated
a. True
b. False
b. False
243
The best focus system for crime scene work is typically available in many single lens reflex and digital cameras is called
a. Split image
b. Lens rotation
c. Aperture dependent
d. Shutter priority
a. Split image
244
The camera setting keeps the aperture open as long as the shutter release is depressed
a. Aperture priority
b. Shutter priority
c. Bulb
d. ISO
c. Bulb
245
This technique is effective in nighttime/low light photography
a. Fill flash
b. Paint with light
c. Bounce flash
d. Photography should be avoided at night
b. Paint with light
246
Video can be used as an alternative to photography at the crime scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
247
The zoom function on a video camera should be used as frequently as possible
a. True
b. False
b. False
248
When videotaping a room as part of crime scene documentation, it is not recommended to pan from one side of the room to the other and back again
a. True
b. False
a. True
249
Crime scene mapping and crime scene sketching are interchangeable terms
a. True
b. False
b. False
250
The primary factors in deciding how much effort to direct as a scene are
a. Whether a suspect is in custody at the time of processing
b. The severity of the crime
c. The importance of the evidence interrelationships
d. All of the above
e. B & C only
e. B & C only
251
The CSI can simplify a sketch by removing items that were noted and fixed during the scene examination but that are considered less important to the investigation
a. True
b. False
a. True
252
The formal sketch, whether hand drawn or computer generated, has five basic elements: heading, diagram area, title block, scale and direction notations, and …
a. The position of the victim
b. Legend
c. Notations of lights on or off
d. Notation of the nearest fixed landmark
b. Legend
253
The sketch heading provides important information relevant to the location of the scene and the creator of the sketch
a. True
b. False
b. False
254
The sketch should always be created with north facing the top of the page
a. True
b. False
b. False
255
The type of sketch that gives horizontal views only and is suited for the vast majority of crime scenes
a. Cross projection
b. Elevation
c. Bird’s eye view
d. Three dimensional
c. Bird’s eye view
256
The type of sketch that illustrates the horizontal surfaces and lays down the vertical surfaces to depict evidence present on them
a. Cross projection
b. Elevation
c. Bird’s eye view
d. Three dimensional
a. Cross projection
257
The type of sketch that offers the ability to present crime scene information in a more realistic perspective
a. Cross projection
b. Elevation
c. Bird’s eye view
d. Three dimensional
d. Three dimensional
258
The type of sketch that is drawn to depict a side view of some portion of the scene
a. Cross projection
b. Elevation
c. Bird’s eye view
d. Three dimensional
b. Elevation
259
When mapping the scene, regardless of the method employed, the items of evidence are fixed before measurements are made of static elements such as walls and furniture
a. True
b. False
a. True
260
The method best used for crime scenes with clear and specific boundaries (such as indoor scenes) in which items are measured at 90 degrees to the surrounding surfaces
a. Baseline coordinates
b. Rectangular coordinates
c. Triangulation
d. Polar coordinates
b. Rectangular coordinates
261
The rectangular coordinate method is less precise than triangulation
a. True
b. False
a. True
262
If a pistol is measured with rectangular coordinates, it is fixed in the scene
a. True
b. False
b. False
263
In order to fix a regularly shaped item in a scene using triangulation, a minimum of this number of straight-line measurements from two distinct landmarks to two distinct points on the item is needed
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
c. 4
264
Using triangulation, this number of measurements from the center mass is needed to fix an irregularly shaped item of evidence
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
a. 2
265
Once an item is fixed in a scene using the triangulation method, it can then be used as a landmark from which to triangulate another item
a. True
b. False
b. False
266
This mapping method requires the fixing of a datum point from which a line extends. Items are then measured to points along the line and that point measured back to the datum point
a. Rectangular coordinates
b. Triangulation
c. Baseline coordinates
d. Polar coordinates
c. Baseline coordinates
267
This mapping method is an effective technique for mapping exterior scenes in which the evidence is significantly scattered over a relatively open area
a. Rectangular coordinates
b. Triangulation
c. Baseline coordinates
d. Polar coordinates
d. Polar coordinates
268
The polar coordinate method is based on surveying techniques and often requires three measurements: the horizonal angle, the horizontal distance, and
a. The difference in elevation
b. Distance to a fixed point that has also been measured
c. Distance to the top of the surveyor’s tool being used
d. Distance to the bottom of the surveyor’s tool being used
a. The difference in elevation
269
When using the polar coordinate method, it is necessary to place the sighting device at a (higher/lower) elevation than the items of evidence
a. Higher
b. Lower
a. Higher
270
When using polar coordinates, there should only be one datum point
a. True
b. False
b. False
271
Total station systems found their first foothold in forensics during this type of investigation
a. Missing persons
b. Homicide
c. Home invasion
d. Traffic
d. Traffic
272
Once properly leveled on scene, alignment of the total station to magnetic north is not necessary
a. True
b. False
a. True
273
Total stations and polar coordinates suffer the same problem of
a. Needing daylight to operate
b. Needing to designate true north
c. Needing a clear line of sight to the evidence
d. The limitation of having only one datum point
c. Needing a clear line of sight to the evidence
274
With the use of a total station, if multiple datum points are necessary, the system is moved and the datum points are tied to one another through a technique known as
a. Back sight
b. Rear view
c. Coordinate connector
d. Datum point connector
a. Back sight
275
It is necessary to combine mapping methods in instances such as
a. Indoor homicide scenes
b. Exterior scenes
c. Gravesites
d. All of the above
e. B & C only
e. B & C only
276
If a technique or method of processing meets negative results, it is unnecessary to include the result in the investigative notes
a. True
b. False
b. False
277
If a technique or method of processing meets positive results, it is sufficient to make note of it within the investigative notes
a. True
b. False
b. False
278
It is important that the CSI make notes of observations that appear unremarkable
a. True
b. False
a. True
279
Which of the following is considered the investigator’s best evidence
a. Photographs
b. Sketches
c. Notes
d. Reports
c. Notes
280
Once notes have been transposed into the final report, they must be shredded for the sake of confidentiality and security
a. True
b. False
b. False
281
This section of the report is intended to provide a general description of the scene and associated features of the scene and their relationship to the surrounding area
a. Introduction
b. Characteristics of the scene
c. Conditions of the scene
d. Environmental conditions
b. Characteristics of the scene
282
Untreated wood is an example of a (porous/nonporous) surface
a. Porous
b. Nonporous
a. Porous
283
This section of the report identifies and describes aspects of the scene that are pertinent to the investigation
a. Introduction
b. Characteristics of the scene
c. Conditions of the scene
d. Environmental conditions
c. Conditions of the scene
284
The critical component of any final crime scene report is (are)
a. Observations
b. Results of processing techniques
c. Conclusions of analysis
d. Objectivity
d. Objectivity
285
The radiant energy spectrum visualized as color spans the following range of wavelengths
a. 100nm to 350nm
b. 300nm to 520nm
c. 400nm to 700nm
d. 800nm to 1000nm
c. 400nm to 700nm
286
A nanometer is this unit of measure
a. 100th of a meter
b. 1000th of a meter
c. 1,000,000th of a meter
d. 1,000,000,000th of a meter
d. 1,000,000,000th of a meter
287
Which of the following is the lowest on the electromagnetic spectrum
a. UV energy
b. X rays
c. Visible light
d. Infrared energy
b. X rays
288
On the electromagnetic spectrum, the lower the wavelength the lower the energy level
a. True
b. False
b. False
289
When light is converted from one wavelength to another, the following phenomenon occurs
a. Reflection
b. Delineation
c. Absorption
d. Luminescence
d. Luminescence
290
This is the phenomenon defined by the conversion of light from one wavelength to another and occurs as long as the object is exposed to an active energy source
a. Luminescence
b. Fluorescence
c. Phosphorescence
d. Chemiluminescence
b. Fluorescence
291
This defines the color of any object we visualize
a. Reflection
b. Conversion
c. Absorption
d. Phosphorescence
a. Reflection
292
RUVIS is the use of (shortwave/longwave) UV light to visualize untreated fingerprints
a. Shortwave
b. Longwave
a. Shortwave
293
(Shortwave/Longwave) UV light can be used when attempting to visualize/photograph bloodstains, especially those located on red- or violet-colored objects
a. Shortwave
b. Longwave
b. Longwave
294
This area of the electromagnetic spectrum, in conjunction with a yellow barrier filter, can be useful for visualizing bite marks and bruises on human skin
a. Shortwave UV (180nm to 254nm)
b. Longwave UV (365 nm to 415nm)
c. Near UV and Violet (415nm to 485nm)
d. Orange-Red (570nm to 700nm)
c. Near UV and Violet (415nm to 485nm)
295
Which is the best sequence of processing techniques for an examination of dry paper
a. Ninhydrin, DFO, Silver Nitrate
b. DFO, Silver Nitrate, Physical Developer
c. Ninhydrin, DFO, Physical Developer
d. DFO, Ninhydrin, Silver Nitrate
d. DFO, Ninhydrin, Silver Nitrate
296
The best method for processing a wet, porous surface is to allow it to dry, then treat it with
a. DFO
b. Physical Developer
c. Ninhydrin
d. Powder / Brush
b. Physical Developer
297
The best processing method for a wet, nonporous smooth surface is
a. DFO
b. Ninhydrin
c. Small particle reagent
d. Physical developer
c. Small particle reagent
298
When processing human skin for latent fingerprints, skin dampness with negatively affects the adding machine paper process
a. True
b. False
b. False
299
A method for processing bloody prints on scene is
a. Amido black
b. Leuco-crystal violet
c. Luminol
d. All of the above
e. A & B only
e. A & B only
300
This type of fingerprint brush is the most effective as an initial on scene search brush
a. Fiberglass
b. Camel hair
c. Feather
d. Magnetic
b. Camel hair
301
The following are variables affecting the time it takes to develop a print with cyanoacrylate fuming
a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Amount of glue used
d. All of the above
e. B & C only
d. All of the above
302
Small particle reagent can be used to process wet surfaces for prints. It reacts with what component of the residue
a. Amino acids
b. Salts
c. Fats
d. Magnesium
c. Fats
303
There are no methods for latent print processing in a fire scene since they are destroyed in the flame and heat
a. True
b. False
b. False
304
In the context of forensics, the term impression refers only to 3D marks
a. True
b. False
b. False
305
Rubberized casting compounds are an effective means of recovering bite marks from human skin
a. True
b. False
b. False
306
The most effective method of visualizing dust prints is
a. ALS at 520nm and orange barrier filter
b. Oblique lighting
c. Fingerprint powder and brush
d. RUVIS
b. Oblique lighting
307
When casting impressions in loose soil, as much fixative as necessary can be used since it will not obscure detail due to its transparency
a. True
b. False
b. False
308
Dental stone can be used to recover 2D and 3D impressions
a. True
b. False
a. True
309
When searching for fiber evidence, the ALS should be set at 485nm
a. True
b. False
b. False
310
Dark hairs will likely fluoresce and can be detected with the ALS set at 530nm
a. True
b. False
b. False
311
The tail of an elongated bloodstain is in the direction opposite the direction of travel
a. True
b. False
b. False
312
The reverse vectors defined by individual stain directionality intersect in this 2D space
a. Point of Origin
b. Point of Convergence
b. Point of Convergence
313
When a blood droplet strikes a surface, a right triangle is formed. The sides of this triangle are composed of the diameter of the blood droplet, the area on the target wither the droplet first touches and then terminates its movement, and
a. The tail/satellite spatter of the stain
b. The area of convergence
c. The path of the droplet
d. The width of the pattern
c. The path of the droplet
314
The impact angle of a bloodstain is determined by dividing the length of the stain by the width and calculating the inverse sine of this value
a. True
b. False
b. False
315
“Bear claw” shaped bloodstains can be estimated to have an impact angle of
a. 10-30 degrees
b. 40-60 degrees
c. 70-90 degrees
d. None of the above
b. 40-60 degrees
316
By carefully examining impact spatter in the crime scene, the analyst can determine that it was created by a blow to the head with a hammer
a. True
b. False
b. False
317
A blood drip pattern can be categorized as a
a. Passive stain
b. Dynamic stain
a. Passive stain
318
This is the pattern type that occurs when a bloody object makes contact with an unstained object
a. Swipe
b. Wipe
a. Swipe
319
This type of pattern involves a number of small individual stains that radiate out from a central location
a. Drip
b. Passive
c. Pooled blood
d. Spatter
d. Spatter
320
Cast off patterns can assist the analyst with the determination of the (minimum/maximum) number of swings made by the bloodied object
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
a. Minimum
321
This pattern type assists with determining the relative position of items at the time of an event based upon the absence of stains normally expected to be present
a. Negative
b. Void
c. Skeleton
d. Null
b. Void
322
A positive phenolphthalein test is conclusive evidence for the presence of blood
a. True
b. False
b. False
323
What type of chemical reaction occurs in the presence of hemoglobin components when presumptively testing for the presence of blood
a. Decomposition
b. Synthesis
c. Acid-Base
d. Oxidation-Reduction
d. Oxidation-Reduction
324
The order of application for a phenolphthalein test is the following
a. Alcohol, hydrogen peroxide, phenolphthalein
b. Hydrogen peroxide, phenolphthalein, alcohol
c. Alcohol, phenolphthalein, hydrogen peroxide
d. Phenolphthalein, alcohol, hydrogen peroxide
c. Alcohol, phenolphthalein, hydrogen peroxide
325
The following blood enhancer reacts with, and stains proteins present in the blood
a. Luminol
b. Fluorescein
c. Leuco-malachite green
d. Amido black
a. Luminol
326
A positive luminol response to blood will be an immediate and intense reaction that dies out quickly
a. True
b. False
b. False
327
A fluorescein reaction to blood requires viewing with an ALS
a. True
b. False
a. True
328
Water based amido black enhancement can interfere with subsequent DNA analysis
a. True
b. False
a. True
329
The study and examination of the firearm itself in considered this area of ballistics
a. External
b. Internal
c. Terminal
b. Internal
330
Terminal ballistics involves which of the following
a. The study and examination of the firearm itself
b. The consideration of the effect of the bullet on a human target
c. The consideration of the bullet path and trajectory once it has left the firearm
b. The consideration of the effect of the bullet on a human target
331
A single casing found at the scene can define the position of a weapon when it was fired
a. True
b. False
b. False
332
A projectile that enters the body and does not exit is referred to as this type of wound
a. Penetrating
b. Perforating
a. Penetrating
333
The lack of stippling and soot around an entry gunshot wound in conclusive evidence of a distant range shot
a. True
b. False
b. False
334
In order to verify a defect as being from a bullet, the sodium rhodizonate test can be used to test for the presence of what component
a. Barium
b. Antimony
c. Metallic lead
d. Copper
c. Metallic lead
335
When traveling through plate glass, a bullet will create a coning effect on which side of the glass
a. Entry
b. Exit
b. Exit
336
It is acceptable to assume that a bullet is traveling in a straight path (that is prior to resistance and gravity causing it to travel in a parabolic arc) with no intervening targets up to what distance
a. 10m
b. 20m
c. 30m
d. 40m
c. 30m
337
According to the National Fire Protection Association, with few exceptions, the proper methodology for processing a fire scene entails establishing the (cause/origin) first
a. Cause
b. Origin
b. Origin
338
When the temperature in a confined space reaches 1100°F, nearly any ignitable surface in the room will being burning. This is referred to as
a. Flashpoint
b. Flashover
c. Ignition temperature
d. Thermal interface
b. Flashover
339
Fire patterns are the visible and measurable physical effects of fire on material in the scene
a. True
b. False
a. True
340
The 3 components necessary to have a fire are fuel, heat, and
a. An ignition source
b. Flammable material
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen
341
The following can provide clues regarding the nature of the fuel source burning
a. Nature of the Soot
b. Color of the smoke
c. Color of the flame
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
d. All of the above
342
The presence of multiple locations of low burn in a fire scene identified the fire as arson
a. True
b. False
b. False
343
The areas of an engineered landfill that can be used to narrow a search are called
a. Zones
b. Cells
c. Loci
d. Domains
b. Cells
344
Problems associated with landfill recovery include
a. Postmortem wounds
b. Heat generation
c. Necessary resources
d. All of the above
e. A & C only
d. All of the above
345
During a gravesite excavation, evidence is discovered in the order it was deposited
a. True
b. False
b. False
346
The basic archeological concept that is applied to gravesite excavation is called
a. Leveling
b. Layering
c. Bracketing
d. Stratification
d. Stratification
347
Growing plants found on the surface of a suspected grave should be pulled for further analysis by a botanist
a. True
b. False
b. False
348
Datum points are established with the grid over a gravesite prior to excavation in order to
a. Take elevation readings
b. Indicate directionality
c. Make rectangular coordinate measurements
d. Mark evidence
a. Take elevation readings
349
Once human remains are completely exposed during a gravesite search, the excavation can be stopped
a. True
b. False
b. False
350
When located bones are wrapped, contained, or buried in some fashion, the CSI can lay them out in proper skeletal configuration on scene to visualize what still needs to be located
a. True
b. False
b. False
351
When collecting entomological evidence, half of the sample is preserved in the condition as found and half kept alive in order to mature
a. True
b. False
a. True
352
The final step of crime scene processing is
a. Evidence collection
b. Analysis
c. Reconstruction
d. Trial
b. Analysis
353
When an analysis of the scene becomes less specific, it, in turn, becomes more accurate
a. True
b. False
a. True
354
Per Gardner, this person is perhaps one of the first investigative authors to set out a specific crime scene methodology
a. Hans Gross
b. Luke May
c. Edward Heinrich
d. Paul Kirk
c. Edward Heinrich
355
According to James Osterburg, as referenced by Gardener, the primary source of data from which any reconstruction should develop is
a. Physical evidence
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Both A & B
d. Neither A & B
a. Physical evidence
356
The basis of all crime scene reconstruction is
a. Evidence
b. Analysis
c. Scientific method
d. Documentation
c. Scientific method
357
Conducting event analysis requires concentration on testimonial evidence
a. True
b. False
b. False
358
Relative chronology makes no association to absolute chronology
a. True
b. False
a. True
359
In terms of event chronology, terminus peri quem refers to
a. An action proceeding another action
b. An action occurring simultaneously with another action
c. An action following another action
b. An action occurring simultaneously with another action
360
Event segments that are believed by the analyst to be correct, but cannot be objectively established, should be included in the outline resulting from the event analysis
a. True
b. False
b. False
361
Crime scene reconstruction uses what order of steps to its methodology
a. Establish event segments, established events, define segments, sequence segments
b. Define event segments, establish events, establish event segments, sequence segments
c. Establish events, establish event segments, define event segments, sequence segments
d. Define event segments, establish segments, sequence segments, establish events
c. Establish events, establish event segments, define event segments, sequence segments
362
Risk management steps need to be taken immediately upon arrival
a. True
b. False
b. False
363
It is in the front-line field personnel that risk management always fails
a. True
b. False
b. False
364
UVA is an effective tool for visualizing biological stains.
a. True
b. False
a. True
365
Orange-Red wavelengths are _________.
c. 485-330 nm
d. 500-700 nm
e. 400-700 nm
f. 700-2000 nm
d. 500-700 nm
366
When are thermal imaging devices used?
a. Police air operations
b. Dimly lit scenes
c. Search warrants for stolen property
d. Never
a. Police air operations
367
Radiant energy is measured by the length of its wave from ____________.
a. Crest to trough
b. Crest to peak
c. Peak to peak
d. None of the above
c. Peak to peak
368
What does an excitation filter do?
a. Increases the intensity of the fluorescent emission
b. Causes excited electrons to absorb energy
c. Blocks all light except fluorescent emission
d. Creates specific wavelengths
d. Creates specific wavelengths
369
What does ACE-V stand for?
a. Analyze, Compare, Exclude, Verify
b. Analyze, Compare, Evaluate, Verify
c. Assess, Collect, Evaluate, Verify
d. Assess, Compare, Evaluate, Verify
b. Analyze, Compare, Evaluate, Verify
370
The Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) was first established in the ?
a. Late 1970s
b. Early 1980s
c. Late 1960s
d. Early 1990s
a. Late 1970s
371
178. Porous surfaces included varnished and painted surfaces, plastic surfaces, and glass
a. True
b. False
b. False
372
Chemicals that work to develop prints on porous evidence includes ______.
a. Iodine
b. Phenolphthalein
c. Ninhydrin
d. Both A & C
d. Both A & C
373
Small-Particle Reagent (SPR) consists primarily of ______.
a. Molybdenum disulfide suspended in an alcohol solution
b. Molybdenum trisulfide suspended in a water solution
c. Molybdenum disulfide suspended in a water solution
d. Molybdenum trisulfide suspended in an alcohol solution
c. Molybdenum disulfide suspended in a water solution
374
The area of ballistics conducted by forensic pathologists that considers the effect of projectiles on the body is:
a. Internal Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
c. External Ballistics
d. Trajectory Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
375
A _______________ toolmark is formed when a tool is force into a soft material.
a. Saw
b. Compression
c. Mechanical
d. Striation
b. Compression
376
This process is used to develop latent prints on wet surfaces.
a. Ninhydrin
b. Black Powder
c. Small Particle Reagent (SPR)
d. Sticky Side Powder
c. Small Particle Reagent (SPR)
377
Crime scene photographs should be taken in which order?
a. Overall, evidence establishing, close-up
b. Midrange, close-up, overall
c. Far away, closer, closest
d. Close-up, midrange, overall
a. Overall, evidence establishing, close-up
378
If no latent prints are developed at a scene, it is okay to leave fingerprint recovery techniques out of your report.
a. True
b. False
b. False
379
The area of ballistics conducted by forensic pathologists that considers the effect of projectiles on the body is:
a. Internal Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
c. External Ballistics
d. Trajectory Ballistics
b. Terminal Ballistics
380
A _______________ toolmark is formed when a tool is forced into a soft material.
a. Saw
b. Compression
c. Mechanical
d. Striation
b. Compression
381
This process is used to develop latent prints on wet surfaces.
a. Ninhydrin
b. Black Powder
c. Small Particle Reagent (SPR)
d. Sticky Side Powder
c. Small Particle Reagent (SPR)
382
Crime scene photographs should be taken in which order?
a. Overall, evidence establishing, close-up
b. Midrange, close-up, overall
c. Far away, closer, closest
d. Close-up, midrange, overall
a. Overall, evidence establishing, close-up
383
If no latent prints are developed at a scene, it is okay to leave fingerprint recovery techniques out of your report.
a. True
b. False
b. False
384
A staging area used by a suspect is an example of:
a. Primary scene
b. Secondary scene
c. Initial scene
d. Irrelevant scene
b. Secondary scene
385
What is a transitory effect?
a. Changes to the scene or evidence that occur with some regularity
b. An often-fleeting effect and often fail to stand out
c. Changes that occur in some expected or random fashion
d. Ability to place objects back in the scene
b. An often-fleeting effect and often fail to stand out
386
Which of the following is the lowest on the electromagnetic spectrum?
a. X rays
b. UV energy
c. IR energy
d. Visible light
a. X rays
387
The crime scene narrative in your final report should be:
a. Detailed
b. Accurate
c. Understandable
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
388
Which shutter speed should the camera be placed on when painting with light?
a. B
b. S
c. Auto
d. P
a. B
389
Which of the following items are suggested as part of a casting kit?
a. Gelatin lifters
b. Flour sift
c. Tape
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
390
Risk management is defined as a deliberate effort to identify hazards, assess the significance of those hazards, and then:
a. Implement controls to mitigate risk
b. Increase the probability of injury
c. Write policies and procedures
d. Go to lunch
a. Implement controls to mitigate risk
391
Placing scales and evidence markers into the scene is considered scene alteration.
a. True
b. False
a. True
392
Evidence establishing photographs are also referred to as close-up photographs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
393
Which of the following create confusion in photographs
a. Identification problems
b. Orientation problems
c. Incomplete documentation
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
394
The initial responding officer’s actions have the potential to make or break the processing of the scene.
a. True
b. False
a. True
395
The ability to lift _________ is a basic skill necessary to process a crime scene.
a. Gun shot residue
b. Fingerprints
c. Bloodstain patterns
d. Tire impressions
b. Fingerprints
396
The 3 types of fingerprints are:
a. Latent, patent, plastic
b. Latent, patent, visible
c. Invisible, visible, bloody
d. Plastic, powder, invisible
a. Latent, patent, plastic
397
The two well established principles for fingerprint identification are:
a. Individuality and exclusivity
b. Exclusivity and permanence
c. Permanence and pattern type
d. Individuality and permanence
d. Individuality and permanence
398
Without an understanding of this, ______________ is often difficult to identify the origin of the fire
a. Fire flow
b. Burn patterns
c. Destruction by fire department personnel;
d. Horizontal demarcation
a. Fire flow
399
Five basic principle guide the crime scene analyst during reconstruction”
a. Superposition, chronology, relationship, methodology, causal connection
b. Methodology, chronology, relationship, continuity, causal connection
c. Relationship, communication, diagram skills, superposition, causal connection
d. Superposition, continuity, chronology, relationship, causal connection
b. Methodology, chronology, relationship, continuity, causal connection
400
The photography team requires a minimum of how many members
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
a. 2
401
The evidence team requires a minimum of how many members
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
a. 2
402
The composition of a crime scene team is first defined by whether the team’s approach is one of area or function.
a. True
b. False
a. True
403
The following should be included in a basic tool kit:
a. Hammer
b. Screwdriver
c. Pliers
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
404
The following should be included in a DNA collection kit:
a. Buccal swabs
b. Lifting tape
c. Index cards
d. None of the above
a. Buccal swabs
405
These are the 2 methods of scanning distance used by 3D mapping systems:
a. Time of flight and point clouds
b. Time of flight and phase shift
c. Phase shift and point clouds
d. None of the above
Page 172-174
b. Time of flight and phase shift
406
Measurements can be obtained from point clouds
a. True
b. False
a. True
407
A crime scene sketch has how many basic elements?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
d. 5
408
The crime scene search is a ______ process
a. 2D
b. 3D
c. None of the above
d. All of the above
a. 2D
409
One of the primary health concerns in the fire scene is the _________ of dust and gases.
a. Inhalation
b. Contamination
c. Processing
d. None of the above
a. Inhalation
410
The following allows for a more effective assessment of the scene boundary by the crime scene team.
a. Training and experience
b. Scene stability
c. Available lighting
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
411
Once the scene is released, the CSI can return without a warrant as long as it is within the first 24 hours
a. True
b. False
b. False
412
Potential safety hazards to responders are
a. Suspects remaining on scene
b. Natural hazards
c. Manmade hazards
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
413
A mechanical fit of broken glass/plastic will elevate a class characteristic to the level of individualization.
a. True
b. False
a. True
414
The 2 main reasons why crime scene photographs are poor is lack of proper composition and lack of experience handling the camera.
a. True
b. False
a. True
415
A ___________ pattern consists of an accumulation surrounded by a number of random satellite stains.
a. Gush
b. Wipe
c. Drip
d. Blood into blood
d. Blood into blood
416
To achieve basic goals, police apply _____ basic objectives.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
d. 5
417
________________ effects are changes that occur in an unexpected fashion
a. Predictable
b. Transitory
c. Functional
d. Unpredictable
d. Unpredictable
418
The CSI’s methods must consider these 3 scene-integrity issues: addition of material, destruction of material, and movement of material
a. True
b. False
a. True
419
CSIs must have a strong sense of ethics
a. True
b. False
a. True
420
Characteristics presented by all physical evidence can be classified into 2 categories:
a. Class and individual
b. Individual and testimonial
c. Class and testimonial
d. Testimonial and natural
a. Class and individual
421
Fingerprints develop in the human fetus at about ______ weeks
a. 5
b. 8
c. 12
d. 19
c. 12
422
________ evidence is encountered in the crime scene in the form of hairs, fibers, glass, paint, and soil
a. Bloodstain
b. Pattern
c. Firearms
d. Trace
d. Trace
423
Arches make up about _____% of fingerprint patterns
a. 65
b. 30
c. 5
d. None
c. 5
424
All glass is the same
a. True
b. False
b. False
425
Which type of fingerprint can be seen by the naked eye?
a. Patent
b. Latent
c. Plastic
d. Impression
a. Patent
426
Which of the following does NOT have the potential to provide DNA profiles?
a. Blood
b. Sweat
c. Saliva
d. Hair with no root
d. Hair with no root
427
The __________ fold is an effective way to collect samples of small substances.
a. Investigators
b. Scientific
c. Analyst
d. Pharmacist
d. Pharmacist
428
Casings can be compared to one another, evidence if no weapon is found to compare them to.
a. True
b. False
a. True
CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATION
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