SAMPLE Q Flashcards by Sophia Faith Nagum

in the Baltimore classification system, which viral group consists of double-stranded DNA viruses that replicate through an RNA intermediate?

A. Group I
B. Group V
C. Group VI
D. Group VII

D. Group VII

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Bacteria classified as micro-aerophiles are distinguished by their need for:

A. Complete absence of oxygen, which is toxic to them.
B. The presence of oxygen for growth.
C. Minute amounts of oxygen.
D. The ability to live either in the presence or absence of oxygen

C. Minute amounts of oxygen

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During the release stage of viral replication, which of the following statements best explains why some animal viruses can establish persistent infections without causing immediate cell death?

A. The viruses possess a lytic mechanism that destroys
the host cell membrane upon release.
B. Enveloped viruses can exit the host cell through budding, allowing the host cell to remain intact.
C. Non-enveloped viruses utilize viral polymerase to
repair the host membrane after egress.
D. Viral egress prevents the formation of new virions,
reducing cytopathic effects on the host cell

B. Enveloped viruses can exit the host cell through

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The following rules apply in designating the official name of bacteria, except one

A. Names are always written in binomials.
B. Binomials are italicized or bold.
C. The first letter of the generic name is capitalized.
D. Specific names are not capitalized.

B. Binomials are italicized or bold.

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What is the main function of the keratin spore coat in bacterial spores?

A. To provide energy during germination
B. To allow DNA replication
C. To protect the spore from harsh environmental conditions
D. To help the spore attach to surfaces

C. To protect the spore from harsh environmental conditions

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What whip-like structure helps bacteria move toward nutrients through chemotaxis?

A. Pili
B. Monotrichous
C. Flagella
D. Amphitrichous

C. Flagella

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Which of the following statements correctly describes the exponential phase of bacterial growth?

A. The bacterial population remains constant because cells are adapting to a new environment.
B. Cells divide at a constant and maximum rate, showing uniform metabolic activity.
C. Bacteria begin to die faster than new cells are produced due to nutrient depletion.
D. Growth rate slows down as toxic products accumulate and essential nutrients become exhausted

B. Cells divide at a constant and maximum rate, showing uniform metabolic activity.

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Which term refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood.

A. Bacteremia
B. Septicemia
C. Pyemia
D. Toxemia

A. Bacteremia

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According to the Baltimore Classification System, viruses are grouped based on which of the following criteria?

A. Shape of their capsid
B. Type of host they infect
C. Method of mRNA synthesis
D. Presence or absence of an envelope

C. Method of mRNA synthesis

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The classification system for microorganisms divides all organisms into three large groups or domains: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya. Which of these domains primarily includes the microorganisms that are associated with human or animal diseases, and also contains species that play beneficial roles like producing antibiotics and forming the normal flora?

A. Archaean domain
B. Bacteria domain
C. Eukarya domain
D. Protista domain

B. Bacteria domain

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This term refers to an infection caused by more than one species of pathogen

a) Infection
b) Mixed Infection
c) Contagion
d) Superinfection

c) Contagion

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Aflatoxins are carcinogenic mycotoxins produced by some species of:

a) Candida
b) Cryptococcus
c) Rhizopus
d) Aspergillus

d) Aspergillus

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Which of the following is a specialized structure that helps Bacillus survive extreme environmental stress?

A. Ribosome
B. Capsule
C. Endospore
D. Plasmid

C. Endospore

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During his microbiology lab, Efraim noticed a bacterium with a thick peptidoglycan layer and high teichoic acid content. Which type of bacterial cell wall was he most likely observing?

a. Gram-negative
b. Gram-positive
c. Acid-fast
d. Mycoplasma

b. Gram-positive

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Which of the following correctly describes the function of bacterial fimbriae?

A. They serve as locomotory organelles enabling motility in bacteria.
B. They facilitate attachment of bacteria to surfaces or host cells and aid in DNA transfer.
C. They protect bacterial cells from phagocytosis and desiccation.
D. They act as permeability barriers and sites of oxidative phosphorylation.

B. They facilitate attachment of bacteria to surfaces or host cells and aid in DNA transfer.

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This structure is a mucoid gelatinous layer that covers the entire bacterium and lies external to the cell wall.

A. Capsule
B. Capsid
C. Flagella
D. Cell membrane

A. Capsule

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The domain Eukarya includes which of the following groups?

A. Viruses and bacteria
B. Fungi, plants, and animals
C. Archaea and cyanobacteria
D. Thermophiles and methanogens

B. Fungi, plants, and animals

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What are the following major fields of microbiology that evaluate the degree and spread of contamination, spoilage and dissemination of infections.

A. Aquatic Microbiology
B. Aero-microbiology
C. Geochemical Microbiology
D. Industrial Microbiology

B. Aero-microbiology

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A student observes bacteria forming slipping, smooth, and spreading colonies on an agar plate. Which property best explains this appearance?

A. Capsule formation
B. Flagellar motility
C. Irregular cell division
D. Spore production

B. Flagellar motility

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The ff. are scientists who contributed to the development of the microscope, except?

A. Anthony Van Leeuwenhoek
B. Galileo Galilei
C. Spallanzani
D. Conelius Drebbel

C. Spallanzani

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Which of the following major fields of Microbiology includes water purification and biological degradation of wastes?

A. Agricultural microbiology
B. Medical microbiology
C. Aquatic microbiology
D. Industrial microbiology

C. Aquatic microbiology

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Which of the following bacteria cannot be reliably stained using the Gram stain?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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Which of the following statements best describes the Baltimore classification of viruses?

A. It groups viruses based on their host range and capsid structure.
B. It classifies viruses according to their genome type and the method of mRNA synthesis.
C. It categorizes viruses by the diseases they cause in humans and animals.
D. It organizes viruses by their evolutionary history and morphology.

B. It classifies viruses according to their genome type and the method of mRNA synthesis.

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What do you call the condition that slows down or prevents the growth and multiplication of bacteria without killing them?

A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostasis
C. Bacteriophage
D. Antibiotics

B. Bacteriostasis

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Which of the following is typically produced by microorganisms at the end of the logarithmic growth phase? A. Toxin B. Spore C. Enzyme D. Metabolite

B. Spore

A bacterium that uses light as its energy source and organic compounds (like glucose) as its carbon source is best classified as a: A. Chemoautotroph B. Photoautotroph C. Photoheterotroph D. Chemotheraphy

C. Photoheterotroph

Which of the following statements best describes Gram-positive bacteria? A. They appear red or pink after Gram staining. B. They lose the crystal violet stain after alcohol decolorization. C. They have a thick peptidoglycan layer that retains the crystal violet-iodine complex. D. They have a thin peptidoglycan layer and high lipid content in their cell wall.

A. They appear red or pink after Gram staining.

What best describes transformation in genetic engineering? A. Cutting DNA into smaller fragments B. Inserting recombinant DNA into a host cell C. Chemically modifying DNA bases D. Destroying unwanted DNA with heat

B. Inserting recombinant DNA into a host cell

The mechanism of impermeability and detoxification mediates bacterial survival by: a. Triggering the expression of PAMPs and DAMPs. b. Performing extensive DNA repair mechanisms. c. Producing enzyme that inactive various toxic derivatives through chemical modification d. Causing enlargement,swelling,and changes in bacterial shape in response to toxic substrates.

c. Producing enzyme that inactive various toxic derivatives through chemical modification

Which pathway proceeds after glycolysis if oxygen is not available? A. Pyruvate Decarboxylation B. Fermentation C. Methyl Glyoxal Pathway D. Pentose Phosphate Pathway

B. Fermentation

What are "persister cells"? A. Genetically resistant bacteria B. Dormant bacterial cells that survive lethal conditions C. Bacteria that die after antibiotic exposure D. Mutant bacteria with permanent resistance

B. Dormant bacterial cells that survive lethal conditions

What cycle involves the removal of oxaloacetate from the TCA cycle to supply carbon for amino acid formation in bacteria? A. Glyoxylate Cycle B. Kreb’s Cycle C. Methyl Glyoxal Cycle D. Pentose Phosphate Cycle

A. Glyoxylate Cycle

Which bacterial structure is responsible for initiating bioflim formation? a. Pili b. Flagella c. Irreversible surface attachment d. Capsule

c. Irreversible surface attachment

Which of the following best describes phenotypic switching? A. A permanent change in the genetic sequence of a bacterial cell B. A reversible switch between two phenotypic states, similar to an on/off mechanism C. The process of transferring genetic material between two bacterial cells D. The random mutation of DNA caused by environmental stress

B. A reversible switch between two phenotypic states, similar to an on/off mechanism

Which of the following Extracellular enzymes and Activators is incorrectly matched? A. Cord Factor: Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Coagulase: Clostridium perfringens C. Hemolysin: Streptococcus spp D. None of the above

B. Coagulase: Clostridium perfringens

Which of the following bacterial pathways is an alternative to glycolysis that produces two molecules of NADPH and one molecule of ATP from each molecule of glucose? A. Glycolysis (Embden-Meyerhof Pathway) B. Pentose Phosphate Pathway C. Entner-Doudoroff Pathway D. Glyoxylate Cycle

C. Entner-Doudoroff Pathway

What general term is used to describe the process of taking a piece of DNA from one source and combining it with another strand of DNA, often resulting in a structure sometimes referred to as a "chimera"? A. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) B. DNA Denaturation C. Recombinant DNA (rDNA) D. Bacterial Transduction

C. Recombinant DNA (rDNA)

Which neurotoxin, produced by Clostridium botulinum, acts on motor neurons by preventing the release of acetylcholine at the myoneural junction, resulting in flaccid paralysis? a) Tetanospasmin b) Botulinum toxin c) Shiga toxin d) Diphtheria toxin

b) Botulinum toxin

While studying bacterial survival, Aljon discovered that some bacteria form slimy layers on surfaces, helping them resist antibiotics and dehydration. What survival mechanism is this? a. Phenotypic switching b. Endospore formation c. Biofilm formation d. Mutation

c. Biofilm formation

This process encompasses a selection of a piece of DNA which has to be inserted into a vector. A. Transformation B. Phage introduction C. Non-bacterial transformation D. None of the above

A. Transformation

Which vector is commonly used in bacterial transformation? A. Fungi B. E.coli C. Clostridium perfringens D. Virus

B. E.coli

Which are the pyrimidine bases in DNA A. cytosine and thymine B. cytosine and adenine C. cytosine and guanine D. cytosine and uracil

A. cytosine and thymine

What is the main function of the glyoxylate cycle in microorganisms? A. Breakdown of proteins B. Conversion of fats into carbohydrates C. Energy production through glycolysis D. Reduction of nitrogen waste

B. Conversion of fats into carbohydrates

Which of the following is an example of piliated, adherent bacterial pathogens? A. N. meningitidis B. V. pyogenis C. N. colireae D. Streptococcus gonnorhoeae

A. N. meningitidis

Which of the following steps of PCR allows the primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the single-stranded DNA template? A. Denaturation B. Annealing C. Extension D. None of the above

B. Annealing

Which term describes the ability of microorganisms to change in response to environmental fluctuations? A. Mutation B. Adaptive response C. Biofilm formation D. Sporulation

B. Adaptive response

Which of the following options are the major components of fungal cell walls? A. Lipids B. Chitin C. Glucans D. Proteins

C. Glucans

Which term describes the process that destroys all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores, and is typically achieved by using an autoclave (moist heat under pressure)? A. Disinfection B. Antisepsis C. Sanitization D. Sterilization

D. Sterilization

Which of the following best explains why bacterial endospores can survive harsh environmental conditions? A. They are metabolically active and reproduce quickly under stress. B. They have a high water content that keeps the cell hydrated. C. They use flagella to move away from harmful environments. D. They possess thick protective layers and contain dipicolinic acid and calcium that stabilize the DNA.

D. They possess thick protective layers and contain dipicolinic acid and calcium that stabilize the DNA.

Which of the following statements best describes Zygospores? A. Asexual spores formed inside sporangia. B. Sexual spores formed after gametangial copulation between compatible hyphae. C. Asexual spores produced at the tip of a conidiophore. D. Sexual spores formed inside a sac-like structure called ascus.

B. Sexual spores formed after gametangial copulation between compatible hyphae.

Agaricus, Polyporus, Puccina, Ustilago, and Lycoperdon are examples of what classification of fungi? A. Zygomycetes B. Basidiomycetes C. Ascomycetes D. Deuteromycetes

B. Basidiomycetes

Which term best describes fungi that can grow in both yeast and mold forms depending on the temperature? A. Saprophytic fungi B. Dimorphic fungi C. Dermatophytic fungi D. Opportunistic fungi

B. Dimorphic fungi

What is the sterilizing factor in sunlight mainly caused by ultraviolet rays? A. Radiation B. Filtration C. Dry Heat D. Moist Heat

A. Radiation

All of the following fungi are zygomycetes except: A. Mucor B. Albugo C. Phythium D. Yeast

D. Yeast

A. Mushrooms reportedly grow by producing mycelium above a substrate or ground. B. Yeasts are multicellular A. Statement A is correct B. Statement B is correct C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are incorrect

D. Both statements are incorrect

Which statement accurately describes the general site of nucleic acid replication for major viral types? A. All DNA viruses replicate only in the cytoplasm. B. All RNA viruses replicate exclusively in the nucleus. C. Most DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus. D. Genome size determines if replication occurs in the nucleus or cytoplasm.

C. Most DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus.

What method of sterilization uses temperature above the boiling point of water to kill bacterial spores? a) Pasteurization b) Free-Flowing Steam c) Steam Under Pressure d) Boiling Water

c) Steam Under Pressure

During their weekend nature hike, Danni, Jiyo, Miki, and Theo discovered a mysterious white mold growing on a decaying log. When they brought it back to the lab, they noticed the fungus had formed thick-walled, round spores inside its hyphae perfectly designed to endure the coming dry season. Curious, they wondered: what kind of asexual spores are these tough survivors? a. Conidiospores b. Zoospores c. Chlamydospores d. Oospores

c. Chlamydospores

What is the genetic material found inside a virus? A. Both DNA and RNA B. Only RNA C. Only DNA D. Either DNA or RNA, but never both

D. Either DNA or RNA, but never both

What organelle can be found in a virus? A. Ribosome B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. None D. Mitochondria

C. None

What is the key difference between sexual and asexual spore formation in fungi? A. Sexual spores are formed without gamete fusion. B. Asexual spores require meiosis before release. C. Sexual spores result from nuclear fusion between two compatible cells. D. Asexual spores always have motility.

C. Sexual spores result from nuclear fusion between two compatible cells.

What is the time between infection by another virus and appearance of mature virus occurs within the cell? A. Onset Phase B. Induction Phase C. Infection Phase D. Eclipse Phase

D. Eclipse Phase

Which of the following is the first step undertaken by the virus as it attaches to the host cell surface to initiate infection? A. Penetration B. Adsorption C. Uncoating D. Release

B. Adsorption

How do fungi generally obtain their nutrients? A. By producing their own food through photosynthesis B. By converting carbon dioxide and water directly into glucose C. By absorbing nutrients from other organisms D. By trapping small organisms for food.

C. By absorbing nutrients from other organisms

What is the primary function of the viral capsid? A. It replicates viral nucleic acids during infection. B. It provides energy for the virus to penetrate host cells. C. It protects the viral genome and facilitates attachment to host cells. D. It synthesizes viral proteins necessary for replication.

C. It protects the viral genome and facilitates attachment to host cells.

Which type of spore is characterized as thick-walled and unicellular, developing within the vegetative hyphae of fungi? A. Chlamydospores B. Conidiospores C. Blastospores D. Arthrospores

A. Chlamydospores

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the core structure and nature of a virus? A. Viruses are small, living cells that contain both DNA and RNA and can replicate independently. B. Viruses are large, non-living particles made only of protein that use host cells for energy. C. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites consisting of a nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat (capsid). D. all of the above

C. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites consisting of a nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat (capsid).

Which of the following statements correctly describes Zygomycetes A. They reproduce by forming basidiospores on club-shaped basidia. B. They have septate hyphae with dolipore septa. C. They are coenocytic, their hyphae are non-septate and multinucleate. D. They are unicellular yeasts that reproduce by budding.

C. They are coenocytic, their hyphae are non-septate and multinucleate.

SAMPLE Q Flashcards

(68 cards)