SPV Full Deck 2025

Question 1

The Flag/Overwater Operations checklist found in Chapter 9 of the FOM:

Answer 1

Serves as a useful tool/memory jogger to ensure the appropriate
steps are completed prior to and during flag and overwater
operations.

Question 2

When must crews accomplish the operational HF radio check that verifies
transmission and reception?

Answer 2

In flight, above 10,000 feet prior to entering oceanic airspace

Question 3

How would you know what destinations require a paper GenDec?

Answer 3

CS-18 Document Bag Checklist

Question 4

Although Bermuda is operated under domestic rules, what are the fuel
requirements if an alternate is not required?

Answer 4

Enough fuel to fly to the destination plus an additional 2 hours as a
contingency measure

Question 5

Oceanic Route Verification: Which waypoints require verification specifically in
oceanic airspace?

Answer 5

Only the waypoints in oceanic, beginning with the oceanic entry and
ending with the oceanic exit

Question 6

Long Distance Operations Control (LDOC) frequencies are primarily used for:

Answer 6

Non-ATC related communications such as airborne HF radio
checks, company communications, and MedLink.

Question 7

What is the procedure for populating waypoint ETAs along your oceanic route in
ORCA airspace on the navigation log?

Answer 7

Once above 10,000 feet, use your takeoff time, then add the TTIME
from the OFP to your takeoff time to populate the waypoint ETAs
starting with the oceanic entry.

Question 8

How long do you have to submit an ASAP report?

Answer 8

As soon as practical following the duty day/shift of event occurrence
or as soon as practical from becoming aware of the event, absent
extraordinary circumstances.

Question 9

Regarding medical situations, a FCIR must be submitted when there has been:
(Select all correct answers.)

Answer 9

An injury to a crewmember
An injury to a customer
A serious illness of a customer

Question 10

Emergency Medical Equipment: Where would you find a POB on an aircraft?
(Select all correct answers.)

Answer 10

In the FWD Cabin
In the AFT cabin

Question 11

There are times during the operation when the PTU is either unsafe or
unnecessary to operate.
Which of the following is NOT a time that PTU is inhibited?

Answer 11

Second engine start

Question 12

What does “COOLING” indicate on the NEO’s E/WD?

Answer 12

The FADEC considers the thermal state of the engine, and
commands an automatic dry crank prior to starting the engine

Question 13

For NEO aircraft, after landing and a short taxi to the gate, how long must the
crew wait for the cool-down period before shutting down the engine(s)?

Answer 13

3 minutes

Question 14

In which of the following circumstances will the ram air turbine (RAT)
automatically deploy?

Answer 14

AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and aircraft speed is above 100
knots.

Question 15

True or False: Before engine start, if the GND CTL pushbutton automatically
switches from ON to AUTO after the electrical transfer between EXT PWR and the
APU gen , the crew must set the RCDR GND CTL back to ON.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

What is the potential consequence of applying takeoff thrust directly from idle
without performing the engine stabilization step?

Answer 16

Asymmetric thrust during acceleration, which may be d i i c u l t to
counteract and could lead to loss of directional control

Question 17

When trying to determine the need to evacuate following an engine fire indication
on the ground:

Answer 17

The FO should focus on running the appropriate checklist
The CAshould get additional information to help assess the
situation from ATC or ARFF
The CAshould get additional information to help assess the
situation from the Cabin Crew
All of these answers are correct

Question 18

What should be announced on the PA if the captain feels an evacuation is
imminent?

Answer 18

“Cabin Crew at Stations”

Question 19

What does “Challenge-Response, Action-Response” mean when completing the
Evacuation Checklist?

Answer 19

The FO will read the Challenge, then the Response, then Action the
associated item, then repeat the Response to confirm the action has
been completed.

Question 20

While running the Ditching Checklist, the checklist states:
“EVACUATION……………………………… INITIATE.” At this point,

Answer 20

The CA should call, “Easy Victor, Easy Victor”

Question 21

In a water evacuation, the FO’s first post ditching duty is to:

Answer 21

Exit the aircraft immediately and take charge outside until relieved
by the CA

Question 22

In a water evacuation, the CA’s duties are:

Answer 22

The CA, as Raft Commander, will put the raft close to the aircraft,
inflate the life vest, move to the raft, cut the cord that is attached to
the aircraft

Question 23

What would be the correct flight crew action(s) if you encounter severe turbulence
while enroute?

Answer 23

Turn ON fasten seatbelt sign, announce “Inflight Crew, be seated
immediately”; make a flight deck P.A. to Customers

Question 24

True or False: Aflight may be planned over an area of volcanic ash defined by a
TWCo SIGMET provided consideration is given to single-engine driftdown and
depressurization.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

What indication(s) are associated with a Volcanic Ash encounter?

Answer 25

A. Engine surge or flameout B. St. Elmo's Fire

Question 26

How long of a delay would be appropriate when departing behind a “heavy” aircraft to avoid Wake Turbulence?

Answer 26

B. 2 minutes - this time is typically suficient to allow vortices to dissipate C. If RECAT is used - 5 NM (minimum radar separation by ATC)

Question 27

Aflight crew is experiencing an upset. How should the crew initially respond to the upset?

Answer 27

Recognize and Confirm the situation

Question 28

The runway you are using for takeoff has a NOTAM shortening its available length. To enter that runway in AeroData, you’ll need the right code. Where can you find that code?

Answer 28

RWY LIST page

Question 29

During the departure brief, the Jeppesen - 7 page is used to discuss the EFP for the departure runway. When receiving T/O DATA, AeroData indicates that there is a difference in the EFP. Which is controlling?

Answer 29

AeroData

Question 30

What tool is used to determine if a crew can meet the climb gradient on a missed approach?

Answer 30

ABG

Question 31

When TO INHIBIT is displayed, what ECAM cautions or warnings will be displayed, if any?

Answer 31

Only t im e - critical cautions or warnings will be displayed

Question 32

What action should the Crew take to view ECAM overflow messages?

Answer 32

Select the CLR key on the ECAM Control Panel.

Question 33

You notice that the SD page automatically displays a particular system accompanied by a pulsating green indication. What does this mean?

Answer 33

This is an ECAM Advisory. It alerts the pilots to system parameters that have drifted out of tolerance

Question 34

In the event of a dual FMGC failure, how can we recover the ability to tune an ILS/VOR frequency?

Answer 34

By selecting the guarded NAV pushbutton on both RMPs

Question 35

What is the difference between the PA using the headset and a PA using the handset?

Answer 35

The PA volume to the customers is louder using the headset and PA button on the RMP.

Question 36

What aural indication is apparent when a there is an emergency call from the Cabin to the Flight Deck?

Answer 36

There are three long buzzers to indicate an emergency call from the Cabin to the Flight Deck.

Question 37

True or false: at JetBlue, the EVAC alert switch should always be in the CAPT & PURS position.

Answer 37

False

Question 38

True or false: in the event of a failure of one of the primary ACPs, ACP #3 can be used as a backup by selecting the audio switching knob located adjacent to ACP #3.

Answer 38

True

Question 39

When making an outgoing SATCOM call, what is the final step to connect the call after the desired contact has been selected from the SAT menu?

Answer 39

On the ACP select the SAT transmit pushbutton, ensure the SAT audio is selected and the volume is adjusted accordingly.

Question 40

What does a flashing amber ATT light mean on the SATCOM button?

Answer 40

This indicates a SATCOM incoming call.

Question 41

If the aircraft is on the ground without a source of bleed air, will the potable water system function?

Answer 41

No, without a source of bleed air the potable water system will not function. APU bleed may need to be used.

Question 42

How can you isolate lavatory sinks and galleys in the event of a water leak?

Answer 42

By turning off the shutoff valves for the affected sinks or galley areas.

Question 43

True or False: Once a Code Red is declared, it cannot change to a Code Yellow as Code Red has the highest priority

Answer 43

False

Question 44

When must the Low Visibility Takeoff Guide in the FCOM be referenced?

Answer 44

When takeoff visibility is less than 5000 RVR or 1 mile

Question 45

When must a takeoff alternate be listed on the OFP?

Answer 45

When the airport is below landing limits for runway(s) in use or below the Captain's landing minimums (based on Precision-Like or Precision approach not lower than CAT I)

Question 46

While holding short of the active runway, a line up and wait clearance is issued by ATC. What action should be taken if the red Stop Bar is still illuminated?

Answer 46

Continue holding short. Query ATC about the clearance and inform the controller that the Stop Bar is still illuminated

Question 47

While holding short of the active runway, the crew receives a “Line Up and Wait” clearance. Prior to crossing the hold short line, the crew must:

Answer 47

Confirm clearance, verbally verify proper runway and verbally verify that the approach path is clear

Question 48

If the approach lighting system is the only visual reference, what is required to descend below 100 feet above TDZE?

Answer 48

Red terminating bars or red side bars are distinctly visible and identifiable

Question 49

When must we have two alternates listed on the dispatch release?

Answer 49

When the forecast reports marginal weather (less than 600 & 2) at the destination and first alternate When we are dispatched under exemption 20108 Both answers are correct

Question 50

Assuming a standard CAT I ILS approach (200 & ½ ) , what destination forecast below requires the flight to be dispatched under Exemption 20108?

Answer 50

KHPN TAF VRB03KT 1/4SM FG VV001 TEMPO 1316 1/2SM FG KHPN TAF VRB03KT 1/2SM FG VV001 TEMPO 1316 1/4SM FG (correct) KHPN TAF VRB03KT 1/2SM FG VV001 TEMPO 1316 1SM BR KHPN TAF VRB03KT 1SM BR OVC002 PROB 1316 1/2SM FG

Question 51

Choose the best answer. Acrew is enroute to SEA with PDX listed as their alternate. While enroute, PDX drops below alternate minimums. Why is an amendment to the original release required?

Answer 51

It is required because the alternate weather is required to stay at or above alternate weather minima. An amended release is required for a new alternate that meets alternate minima.

Question 52

When in RVSM Airspace, what is the tolerance between altimeters?

Answer 52

± 200ft between primary altimeters

Question 53

During a PRM Approach, you hear the controller issue the following clearance to your flight, “Traffic Alert - JetBlue 10 turn right heading 300, descend and maintain 1,600.” At the same time, your TCAS issues an RA warning of “Climb, Climb.” What action should you take?

Answer 53

Turn right to 300 (per ATC) and climb (per the RA)

Question 54

The WSI App Flight Plan Guidance (FPGs) product permits JetBlue Flight Crews to:

Answer 54

Display adverse weather conditions on the iPad that may affect the route of flight

Question 55

How many flight control computers does the A320 have?

Answer 55

7

Question 56

What is an ELAC?

Answer 56

An ELAC is an Elevator Aileron Computer. The ELACs provide elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.

Question 57

On the ECAM F/CTL page, what is the purpose of the two markings on the aileron indications?

Answer 57

Since lowering the flaps causes a 5° aileron droop, these markings indicate the neutral position of the ailerons with and without out flaps extended

Question 58

True or False: When the autopilot is engaged, any inputs to the rudder trim switch or the RESET button will be ignored.

Answer 58

True

Question 59

When the sidesticks are moved simultaneously in the same or opposite direction, the system adds the signals together. What indication does the Flight Crew receive when this happens if neither Pilot has pressed the takeover button?

Answer 59

DUAL INPUT audio message, and both CA and FO green annunciator lights on the glareshield

Question 60

True or False: When both sidesticks are moved in the same direction, the combined orders cannot exceed the equivalent of the maximum deflection of a single sidestick.

Answer 60

True

Question 61

How do you deactivate a sidestick?

Answer 61

Pressing and holding the takeover button on top of the sidestick for 4 0 seconds

Question 62

If both takeover buttons are pressed around the same time, which one has priority?

Answer 62

The last one pressed

Question 63

Which FLAPS lever setting will cause the aircraft to inhibit the use of, or auto- retract the speedbrakes on the A320?

Answer 63

FULL

Question 64

The speedbrakes automatically retract during high AOA operations, when thrust levers are set to TOGA, or when the flaps are set to FULL. If necessary, how can you redeploy the speedbrakes?

Answer 64

Place the SPEEDBRAKE lever back to the RET position, then back to the desired setting.

Question 65

If the autopilot is engaged, what is the maximum speedbrake deflection the SECs will allow on the A320?

Answer 65

1/2 Deflection

Question 66

During takeoff, or Go-around, what does S speed mean when viewed on the airspeed tape?

Answer 66

S speed refers to slat retraction speed. It appears when the FLAPS lever is set to position 1 and is the lowest speed that you can select the FLAPS lever to 0.

Question 67

How can a deactivated sidestick be restored to normal operation?

Answer 67

Pressing the takeover button on either sidestick will restore normal operations.

Question 68

In Mechanical backup, what flight controls are available to the Pilot?

Answer 68

The Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) and the Rudder are mechanically linked to the cockpit controls and the only controls available to the pilot.

Question 69

What is the maximum operating altitude with slats or flap extended?

Answer 69

20,000 ft

Question 70

True or False: Pilots should NEVER attempt to reset a WTB circuit breaker.

Answer 70

True

Question 71

What position on the EMER EXIT LT allows for automatic activation of the emergency lights with loss of normal electrical power?

Answer 71

ARM

Question 72

What is the source of power for the EMER EXIT LTS and how long will they operate when switched on?

Answer 72

The EMER EXIT LTS are powered by internal batteries that will operate for about 10 minutes.

Question 73

True or False: Inflight Crew are not able to activate the EMER LTS from the cabin if the EMER EXIT LT switch is in the OFF position.

Answer 73

False

Question 74

What must pilots do in every unexpected or n o n-normal situation?

Answer 74

Fly, Assess, Communicate, Manage

Question 75

AFlight Crew is issued a different SID with a different altitude upon taxiing while departing on the same runway. What must the crew reference?

Answer 75

The Departure Changes Guide is required since a SID change occurred after pushback.

Question 76

True or False: Non-Normals are always emergencies.

Answer 76

False

Question 77

If vectored off an ARRIVAL, Flight Crews must…

Answer 77

Consider the STAR canceled and expect ATC to issue an altitude to maintain

Question 78

Other than the information systems available to the Flight Crew on the flight deck, what is another fundamental yet useful tool to assist in monitoring the aircraft flight path while on the descent to meet a crossing restriction?

Answer 78

3 to 1 Rule

Question 79

Which statement is correct regarding Non-Essential Equipment and Furnishing (NEF) items listed on the MX- 4 logbook (GMM) page?

Answer 79

NEF items will not be listed on the dispatch release

Question 80

Once a stall condition has been confirmed, what is the first action that should be taken?

Answer 80

Apply Nose-Down Pitch to reduce the Angle of Attack

Question 81

Symptoms of hypoxia may include which of the following?

Answer 81

Impaired judgment Sense of euphoria Headache All answers are correct

Question 82

Cruising at FL350, a rapid decompression occurs. The approximate time of useful consciousness is .

Answer 82

15 to 30 seconds